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Simran Zutshi

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JEE Main 2024 Jan 29 Shift 1 Question Paper with Solution pdf is available for download here. Students found Physics easy and Chemistry hard. Physics carried the highest weightage and overall difficulty level was moderate.

JEE Main 29 Jan Shift 1 2024 Question Paper with Solution PDF

JEE Main 2024 Question Paper with Answer Key 29 Jan Shift 1 download icon Download Check Solution
JEE Main 2024 Question Paper with Solution PDF Jan 29 Shift 1

Question 1:

If in a G.P. of 64 terms, the sum of all the terms is 7 times the sum of the odd terms of the G.P., then the common ratio of the G.P. is equal to:

  • (1) 7
  • (2) 4
  • (3) 5
  • (4) 6
Correct Answer: (4) 6
View Solution



Let the Geometric Progression (G.P.) have first term \(a\) and common ratio \(r\). The number of terms is \(n = 64\).


The sum of all 64 terms is given by \(S_{total} = a + ar + ar^2 + \dots + ar^{63} = \frac{a(r^{64} - 1)}{r - 1}\).


The odd terms of the G.P. are the 1st, 3rd, 5th, ..., 63rd terms: \(a_1, a_3, a_5, \dots, a_{63}\).


This sequence is \(a, ar^2, ar^4, \dots, ar^{62}\), which is a G.P. with first term \(a\), common ratio \(r^2\), and number of terms \(\frac{64}{2} = 32\).


The sum of the odd terms is \(S_{odd} = \frac{a((r^2)^{32} - 1)}{r^2 - 1} = \frac{a(r^{64} - 1)}{r^2 - 1}\).


According to the problem, \(S_{total} = 7 \times S_{odd}\).


Substituting the formulas, we get \(\frac{a(r^{64} - 1)}{r - 1} = 7 \times \frac{a(r^{64} - 1)}{r^2 - 1}\).


Assuming \(a \neq 0\) and \(r \neq 1\), we can divide both sides by \(a(r^{64} - 1)\).

\(\frac{1}{r - 1} = \frac{7}{r^2 - 1}\).


Using the identity \(r^2 - 1 = (r - 1)(r + 1)\), the equation becomes \(\frac{1}{r - 1} = \frac{7}{(r - 1)(r + 1)}\).


Multiply both sides by \((r - 1)\) (since \(r \neq 1\)): \(1 = \frac{7}{r + 1}\).

\(r + 1 = 7\).

\(r = 6\).


The common ratio is 6.
Quick Tip: When selecting a sub-sequence from a G.P. (like odd or even terms), remember that the new common ratio is the original ratio raised to the power of the step size (e.g., step 2 gives \(r^2\)).


Question 2:

In an A.P., the sixth term \(a_6 = 2\). If the \(a_1a_4a_5\) is the greatest, then the common difference of the A.P. is equal to:

  • (1) \(\frac{3}{2}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{8}{5}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{2}{3}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{5}{8}\)
Correct Answer: (2) \(\frac{8}{5}\)
View Solution



Let the first term of the A.P. be \(a\) and the common difference be \(d\).


Given the sixth term \(a_6 = a + 5d = 2\), we can express \(a\) as \(a = 2 - 5d\).


We want to maximize the product \(P = a_1 a_4 a_5\).


Express each term in terms of \(d\):

\(a_1 = a = 2 - 5d\).

\(a_4 = a + 3d = (2 - 5d) + 3d = 2 - 2d = 2(1 - d)\).

\(a_5 = a + 4d = (2 - 5d) + 4d = 2 - d\).


Substitute these into the product expression: \(P(d) = (2 - 5d) \cdot 2(1 - d) \cdot (2 - d)\).

\(P(d) = 2(1 - d)(2 - d)(2 - 5d)\).


Expand the terms to find the derivative easily. Let's expand \((1-d)(2-d) = 2 - 3d + d^2\).

\(P(d) = 2(2 - 3d + d^2)(2 - 5d)\).

\(P(d) = 2(4 - 10d - 6d + 15d^2 + 2d^2 - 5d^3) = 2(-5d^3 + 17d^2 - 16d + 4)\).


To find the critical points for maxima/minima, find \(\frac{dP}{ld}\):

\(\frac{dP}{dd} = 2(-15d^2 + 34d - 16)\).


Set \(\frac{dP}{dd} = 0\): \(-15d^2 + 34d - 16 = 0 \Rightarrow 15d^2 - 34d + 16 = 0\).


Using the quadratic formula \(d = \frac{-b \pm \sqrt{b^2 - 4ac}}{2a}\):

\(d = \frac{34 \pm \sqrt{34^2 - 4(15)(16)}}{30} = \frac{34 \pm \sqrt{1156 - 960}}{30} = \frac{34 \pm \sqrt{196}}{30} = \frac{34 \pm 14}{30}\).


Two possible values: \(d_1 = \frac{48}{30} = \frac{8}{5}\) and \(d_2 = \frac{20}{30} = \frac{2}{3}\).


To check for maximum, use the second derivative test: \(\frac{d^2P}{dd^2} = 2(-30d + 34)\).


For \(d = \frac{8}{5}\): \(P''(\frac{8}{5}) = 2(-30(\frac{8}{5}) + 34) = 2(-48 + 34) = -28 < 0\). This indicates a local maximum.


For \(d = \frac{2}{3}\): \(P''(\frac{2}{3}) = 2(-30(\frac{2}{3}) + 34) = 2(-20 + 34) = 28 > 0\). This indicates a local minimum.


Therefore, the product is greatest when the common difference \(d = \frac{8}{5}\).
Quick Tip: When maximizing a product of terms in a sequence with a fixed term constraint, express all variables in terms of the common difference (or ratio) to reduce it to a single-variable calculus problem.


Question 3:

Given functions
\(f(x) = \begin{cases} 2 + 2x, & -1 \le x < 0
1 - \frac{x}{3}, & 0 \le x \le 3 \end{cases}\)

and
\(g(x) = \begin{cases} -x, & -3 \le x \le 0
x, & 0 < x \le 1 \end{cases}\)

find the range of \((f \circ g)(x)\).

  • (1) \((0, 1]\)
  • (2) \([0, 3)\)
  • (3) \([0, 1]\)
  • (4) \([0, 1)\)
Correct Answer: (3) \([0, 1]\)
View Solution



We need to find the range of the composite function \(y = f(g(x))\).


First, let's determine the range of the inner function \(g(x)\).


The domain of \(g(x)\) is \([-3, 1]\), split into two parts.


Part 1: For \(-3 \le x \le 0\), \(g(x) = -x\). As \(x\) varies from \(-3\) to \(0\), \(-x\) varies from \(3\) to \(0\). So, the range here is \([0, 3]\).


Part 2: For \(0 < x \le 1\), \(g(x) = x\). As \(x\) varies from just above \(0\) to \(1\), the range is \((0, 1]\).


The union of these two sets is \([0, 3] \cup (0, 1] = [0, 3]\). Thus, the range of \(g(x)\) is \(R_g = [0, 3]\).


Let \(u = g(x)\). Then \(u\) takes values in \([0, 3]\).


We now need to find the range of \(f(u)\) for \(u \in [0, 3]\).


The function \(f(u)\) is defined piece-wise. We check which definition applies to the interval \([0, 3]\).


For \(0 \le u \le 3\), the definition is \(f(u) = 1 - \frac{u}{3}\).


This is a linear decreasing function.


At the lower bound \(u = 0\), \(f(0) = 1 - \frac{0}{3} = 1\).


At the upper bound \(u = 3\), \(f(3) = 1 - \frac{3}{3} = 0\).


Since the function is continuous and monotonic on this interval, the values cover everything between \(0\) and \(1\).


Therefore, the range of \((f \circ g)(x)\) is \([0, 1]\).
Quick Tip: The range of a composite function \(f(g(x))\) is found by determining the range of the inner function \(g(x)\) first, and then using that set of values as the domain for the outer function \(f\).


Question 4:

A fair die is thrown until the number 2 appears. What is the probability that 2 appears in an even number of throws?

  • (1) \(\frac{5}{6}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{1}{6}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{5}{11}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{6}{11}\)
Correct Answer: (3) \(\frac{5}{11}\)
View Solution



Let success \(S\) be the event of getting a 2, and failure \(F\) be the event of getting any other number (1, 3, 4, 5, 6).


Probability of success \(p = P(S) = \frac{1}{6}\).


Probability of failure \(q = P(F) = 1 - \frac{1}{6} = \frac{5}{6}\).


We want the probability that the first success occurs on an even numbered throw (2nd, 4th, 6th, etc.).


The mutually exclusive outcomes are:


- Success on 2nd throw: \(F S\) (Probability \(q \times p\))


- Success on 4th throw: \(F F F S\) (Probability \(q^3 \times p\))


- Success on 6th throw: \(F F F F F S\) (Probability \(q^5 \times p\))


- And so on.


The total probability is the sum of this infinite geometric series: \(P = qp + q^3p + q^5p + \dots\)


Here, the first term \(a = qp = \frac{5}{6} \cdot \frac{1}{6} = \frac{5}{36}\).


The common ratio \(r = q^2 = (\frac{5}{6})^2 = \frac{25}{36}\).


The sum of an infinite G.P. is given by \(S_{\infty} = \frac{a}{1 - r}\).

\(P = \frac{\frac{5}{36}}{1 - \frac{25}{36}} = \frac{\frac{5}{36}}{\frac{11}{36}}\).

\(P = \frac{5}{11}\).
Quick Tip: Problems involving "success on the \(k\)-th trial" often lead to infinite geometric series. If success is required on even trials, the ratio will usually be \(q^2\) (fail twice).


Question 5:

If \(z = \frac{1}{2} - 2i\), is such that \(|z+1| = \alpha z + \beta(1+i)\), \(i = \sqrt{-1}\) and \(\alpha, \beta \in \mathbb{R}\), then \(\alpha + \beta\) is equal to:

  • (1) \(-4\)
  • (2) 3
  • (3) 2
  • (4) \(-1\)
Correct Answer: (2) 3
View Solution



We are given \(z = \frac{1}{2} - 2i\).


First, calculate the term on the Left Hand Side (LHS): \(|z+1|\).

\(z + 1 = \left(\frac{1}{2} - 2i\right) + 1 = \frac{3}{2} - 2i\).

\(|z+1| = \sqrt{\left(\frac{3}{2}\right)^2 + (-2)^2} = \sqrt{\frac{9}{4} + 4} = \sqrt{\frac{25}{4}} = \frac{5}{2}\).


Now, expand the term on the Right Hand Side (RHS): \(\alpha z + \beta(1+i)\).

\(RHS = \alpha\left(\frac{1}{2} - 2i\right) + \beta(1 + i)\).

\(RHS = \frac{\alpha}{2} - 2\alpha i + \beta + \beta i\).


Group the real and imaginary parts: \(RHS = \left(\frac{\alpha}{2} + \beta\right) + i(\beta - 2\alpha)\).


Equate the LHS and RHS: \(\frac{5}{2} = \left(\frac{\alpha}{2} + \beta\right) + i(\beta - 2\alpha)\).


Since the LHS is purely real, the imaginary part of the RHS must be zero.

\(\beta - 2\alpha = 0 \implies \beta = 2\alpha\).


Equate the real parts: \(\frac{5}{2} = \frac{\alpha}{2} + \beta\).


Substitute \(\beta = 2\alpha\) into the real part equation:

\(\frac{5}{2} = \frac{\alpha}{2} + 2\alpha\).

\(\frac{5}{2} = \frac{5\alpha}{2}\).

\(\alpha = 1\).


Now find \(\beta\): \(\beta = 2(1) = 2\).


We need to find the value of \(\alpha + \beta\).

\(\alpha + \beta = 1 + 2 = 3\).
Quick Tip: When an equation involves complex numbers and real variables, equate the real parts to the real parts and the imaginary parts to the imaginary parts to form a system of linear equations.


Question 6:

Evaluate the limit
\(\lim_{x \to \frac{\pi}{2}} \left( \frac{1}{(x - \frac{\pi}{2})^2} \int_{x^3}^{(\frac{\pi}{2})^3} \cos \left( \frac{1}{t^3} \right) dt \right)\)

which is equal to:

  • (1) \(\frac{3\pi}{8}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{3\pi^2}{4}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{3\pi^2}{8}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{3\pi}{4}\)
Correct Answer: (3) \(\frac{3\pi^2}{8}\)
View Solution



Let the limit be \(L\). The expression is of the form \(\frac{0}{0}\) as \(x \to \frac{\pi}{2}\).


Apply L'Hopital's Rule. We differentiate the numerator and the denominator with respect to \(x\).


For the numerator, use the Leibniz integral rule: \(\frac{d}{dx} \int_{x^3}^{(\pi/2)^3} \cos(t^{1/3}) dt = 0 - \cos((x^3)^{1/3}) \cdot \frac{d}{dx}(x^3) = -3x^2 \cos x\).


For the denominator: \(\frac{d}{dx} (x - \frac{\pi}{2})^2 = 2(x - \frac{\pi}{2})\).


The limit becomes \(L = \lim_{x \to \frac{\pi}{2}} \frac{-3x^2 \cos x}{2(x - \frac{\pi}{2})}\).


Let \(h = x - \frac{\pi}{2}\). As \(x \to \frac{\pi}{2}\), \(h \to 0\). Also \(x = \frac{\pi}{2} + h\).


Substitute into the limit: \(L = \lim_{h \to 0} \frac{-3(\frac{\pi}{2} + h)^2 \cos(\frac{\pi}{2} + h)}{2h}\).


Using \(\cos(\frac{\pi}{2} + h) = -\sin h\), we get \(L = \lim_{h \to 0} \frac{-3(\frac{\pi}{2} + h)^2 (-\sin h)}{2h}\).


Simplifying the expression: \(L = \frac{3}{2} \lim_{h \to 0} (\frac{\pi}{2} + h)^2 \cdot \frac{\sin h}{h}\).


Evaluating the limit as \(h \to 0\): \(L = \frac{3}{2} (\frac{\pi}{2})^2 \cdot 1 = \frac{3}{2} \cdot \frac{\pi^2}{4}\).

\(L = \frac{3\pi^2}{8}\).
Quick Tip: When applying L'Hopital's rule to an integral with variable limits, remember Leibniz's Rule: \(\frac{d}{dx}\int_{u(x)}^{v(x)} f(t)dt = f(v(x))v'(x) - f(u(x))u'(x)\).


Question 7:

In a \(\triangle ABC\), suppose \(y = x\) is the equation of the bisector of the angle \(B\) and the equation of the side \(AC\) is \(2x - y = 2\). If \(2AB = BC\) and the points \(A\) and \(B\) are respectively \((4, 6)\) and \((\alpha, \beta)\), then \(\alpha + 2\beta\) is equal to:

  • (1) 42
  • (2) 39
  • (3) 48
  • (4) 45
Correct Answer: (1) 42
View Solution



Since \(B(\alpha, \beta)\) lies on the angle bisector \(y = x\), we have \(\alpha = \beta\). Let \(B = (b, b)\).


The reflection of vertex \(A(4, 6)\) about the angle bisector \(y = x\) lies on the line containing the side \(BC\).


The reflection of \((4, 6)\) about \(y = x\) is point \(A' = (6, 4)\).


The line \(BC\) passes through \(B(b, b)\) and \(A'(6, 4)\). Its equation is \(y - 4 = \frac{b - 4}{b - 6}(x - 6)\).


Let \(D\) be the point where the bisector meets \(AC\). By the Angle Bisector Theorem, \(\frac{AB}{BC} = \frac{AD}{DC}\).


Given \(2AB = BC \Rightarrow \frac{AB}{BC} = \frac{1}{2}\), so \(D\) divides \(AC\) in the ratio \(1:2\).


Find \(D\): Intersection of bisector \(y = x\) and side \(AC\) \(2x - y = 2\). \(2x - x = 2 \Rightarrow x = 2, y = 2\). So \(D(2, 2)\).


Using the section formula for \(D\) dividing \(A(4, 6)\) and \(C(x_c, y_c)\) in ratio \(1:2\):

\(2 = \frac{1(x_c) + 2(4)}{3} \Rightarrow 6 = x_c + 8 \Rightarrow x_c = -2\).

\(2 = \frac{1(y_c) + 2(6)}{3} \Rightarrow 6 = y_c + 12 \Rightarrow y_c = -6\). So \(C(-2, -6)\).


The line \(BC\) passes through \(C(-2, -6)\) and \(A'(6, 4)\).


Slope of \(BC = \frac{4 - (-6)}{6 - (-2)} = \frac{10}{8} = \frac{5}{4}\).


Equation of \(BC\): \(y - 4 = \frac{5}{4}(x - 6) \Rightarrow 4y - 16 = 5x - 30 \Rightarrow 5x - 4y = 14\).


Since \(B(b, b)\) lies on this line: \(5b - 4b = 14 \Rightarrow b = 14\).


Thus, \(\alpha = 14\) and \(\beta = 14\).

\(\alpha + 2\beta = 14 + 2(14) = 14 + 28 = 42\).
Quick Tip: The image of a vertex about the internal angle bisector of that vertex angle lies on the opposite side.


Question 8:

Let \(\vec{a},\vec{b}\) and \(\vec{c}\) be three non-zero vectors such that \(\vec{b}\) and \(\vec{c}\) are non-collinear. If \(\vec{a} + 5\vec{b}\) is collinear with \(\vec{c}\), \(\vec{b} + 6\vec{c}\) is collinear with \(\vec{a}\), and \(\vec{a} + \alpha\vec{b} + \beta\vec{c} = \vec{0}\), then \(\alpha + \beta\) is equal to:

  • (1) 35
  • (2) 30
  • (3) \(-30\)
  • (4) \(-25\)
Correct Answer: (1) 35
View Solution



Since \(\vec{a} + 5\vec{b}\) is collinear with \(\vec{c}\), we can write \(\vec{a} + 5\vec{b} = \lambda \vec{c}\) for some scalar \(\lambda\).


Since \(\vec{b} + 6\vec{c}\) is collinear with \(\vec{a}\), we can write \(\vec{b} + 6\vec{c} = \mu \vec{a}\) for some scalar \(\mu\).


From the first equation, \(\vec{a} = \lambda \vec{c} - 5\vec{b}\). Substitute this into the second equation.

\(\vec{b} + 6\vec{c} = \mu(\lambda \vec{c} - 5\vec{b}) = \mu\lambda \vec{c} - 5\mu \vec{b}\).


Rearranging terms: \((1 + 5\mu)\vec{b} + (6 - \mu\lambda)\vec{c} = \vec{0}\).


Since \(\vec{b}\) and \(\vec{c}\) are non-collinear, the coefficients must be zero.

\(1 + 5\mu = 0 \Rightarrow \mu = -\frac{1}{5}\).

\(6 - \mu\lambda = 0 \Rightarrow 6 - (-\frac{1}{5})\lambda = 0 \Rightarrow \lambda = -30\).


Substitute \(\lambda = -30\) back into the first equation: \(\vec{a} + 5\vec{b} = -30\vec{c}\).

\(\vec{a} + 5\vec{b} + 30\vec{c} = \vec{0}\).


Comparing this with the given equation \(\vec{a} + \alpha\vec{b} + \beta\vec{c} = \vec{0}\), we get \(\alpha = 5\) and \(\beta = 30\).

\(\alpha + \beta = 5 + 30 = 35\).
Quick Tip: For two non-collinear vectors \(\vec{x}\) and \(\vec{y}\), the equation \(c_1 \vec{x} + c_2 \vec{y} = \vec{0}\) implies \(c_1 = 0\) and \(c_2 = 0\).


Question 9:

Let \((5, \frac{a}{4})\) be the circumcenter of a triangle with vertices \(A(a, -2)\), \(B(a, 6)\), and \(C(\frac{a}{4}, -2)\). Let \(\alpha\) denote the circumradius, \(\beta\) denote the area, and \(\gamma\) denote the perimeter of the triangle. Then \(\alpha + \beta + \gamma\) is:

  • (1) 60
  • (2) 53
  • (3) 62
  • (4) 30
Correct Answer: (2) 53
View Solution



Consider the coordinates of the vertices. \(A(a, -2)\) and \(B(a, 6)\) have the same x-coordinate, so side \(AB\) is vertical.

\(A(a, -2)\) and \(C(\frac{a}{4}, -2)\) have the same y-coordinate, so side \(AC\) is horizontal.


Since \(AB\) is vertical and \(AC\) is horizontal, \(\angle A = 90^\circ\). Thus \(\triangle ABC\) is a right-angled triangle.


For a right-angled triangle, the circumcenter lies at the midpoint of the hypotenuse \(BC\).


Midpoint of \(BC\): \(M = \left( \frac{a + a/4}{2}, \frac{6 + (-2)}{2} \right) = \left( \frac{5a}{8}, 2 \right)\).


We are given the circumcenter is \((5, \frac{a}{4})\). Equating the coordinates:

\(\frac{a}{4} = 2 \Rightarrow a = 8\).


Check x-coordinate: \(\frac{5(8)}{8} = 5\). This matches.


With \(a=8\), vertices are \(A(8, -2)\), \(B(8, 6)\), \(C(2, -2)\).


Length of sides: \(AB = |6 - (-2)| = 8\). \(AC = |8 - 2| = 6\).


Hypotenuse \(BC = \sqrt{8^2 + 6^2} = \sqrt{64 + 36} = 10\).


Circumradius \(\alpha = \frac{BC}{2} = \frac{10}{2} = 5\).


Area \(\beta = \frac{1}{2} \times AB \times AC = \frac{1}{2} \times 8 \times 6 = 24\).


Perimeter \(\gamma = AB + AC + BC = 8 + 6 + 10 = 24\).


Sum \(\alpha + \beta + \gamma = 5 + 24 + 24 = 53\).
Quick Tip: In a right-angled triangle, the vertices can be easily identified by checking for constant x or y coordinates between pairs of points.


Question 10:

For \(x \in (-\frac{\pi}{2}, \frac{\pi}{2})\), if
\(y(x) = \int \frac{\csc x + \sin x}{\csc x \sec x + \tan x \sin^2 x} dx\)

and \(\lim_{x \to -\frac{\pi}{2}} y(x) = 0\), then \(y(\frac{\pi}{4})\) is equal to:

  • (1) \(\tan^{-1}(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}})\)
  • (2) \(\frac{1}{2} \tan^{-1}(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}})\)
  • (3) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \tan^{-1}(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}})\)
  • (4) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \tan^{-1}(-\frac{1}{2})\)
Correct Answer: (4) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \tan^{-1}(-\frac{1}{2})\)
View Solution



Simplify the integrand term by term. Numerator: \(\csc x + \sin x = \frac{1}{\sin x} + \sin x = \frac{1+\sin^2 x}{\sin x}\).


Denominator: \(\csc x \sec x + \tan x \sin^2 x = \frac{1}{\sin x \cos x} + \frac{\sin^3 x}{\cos x} = \frac{1+\sin^4 x}{\sin x \cos x}\).


Integrand: \(\frac{\frac{1+\sin^2 x}{\sin x}}{\frac{1+\sin^4 x}{\sin x \cos x}} = \frac{1+\sin^2 x}{\sin x} \cdot \frac{\sin x \cos x}{1+\sin^4 x} = \frac{(1+\sin^2 x)\cos x}{1+\sin^4 x}\).


Let \(u = \sin x\), then \(du = \cos x dx\). The integral becomes \(I = \int \frac{1+u^2}{1+u^4} du\).


Divide numerator and denominator by \(u^2\): \(I = \int \frac{1 + \frac{1}{u^2}}{u^2 + \frac{1}{u^2}} du\).


Rewrite denominator as \((u - \frac{1}{u})^2 + 2\). Let \(t = u - \frac{1}{u}\). Then \(dt = (1 + \frac{1}{u^2})du\).

\(I = \int \frac{dt}{t^2 + (\sqrt{2})^2} = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \tan^{-1}\left(\frac{t}{\sqrt{2}}\right) + C\).


Substitute back \(t = \sin x - \frac{1}{\sin x} = \frac{\sin^2 x - 1}{\sin x}\).

\(y(x) = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \tan^{-1}\left( \frac{\sin^2 x - 1}{\sqrt{2} \sin x} \right) + C\).


Given limit \(x \to -\frac{\pi}{2}\), \(\sin x \to -1\). The argument approaches \(\frac{1-1}{-\sqrt{2}} = 0\). So \(0 = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}(0) + C \Rightarrow C = 0\).


For \(y(\frac{\pi}{4})\), \(\sin(\frac{\pi}{4}) = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\). Argument is \(\frac{\frac{1}{2}-1}{\sqrt{2} \cdot \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}} = \frac{-1/2}{1} = -\frac{1}{2}\).

\(y(\frac{\pi}{4}) = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \tan^{-1}\left( -\frac{1}{2} \right)\).
Quick Tip: Standard integral form \(\int \frac{x^2+1}{x^4+1} dx\) is solved by dividing by \(x^2\) and completing the square in the denominator.


Question 11:

If \(\alpha\), with \(-\frac{\pi}{2} < \alpha < \frac{\pi}{2}\), is the solution of \(4 \cos \theta + 5 \sin \theta = 1\), then the value of \(\tan \alpha\) is:

  • (1) \(\frac{10-\sqrt{10}}{6}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{10-\sqrt{10}}{12}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{\sqrt{10}-10}{12}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{\sqrt{10}-10}{6}\)
Correct Answer: (3) \(\frac{\sqrt{10}-10}{12}\)
View Solution



Let \(t = \tan \frac{\alpha}{2}\). Then \(\cos \alpha = \frac{1-t^2}{1+t^2}\) and \(\sin \alpha = \frac{2t}{1+t^2}\).


Substitute into \(4 \cos \alpha + 5 \sin \alpha = 1\):

\(4\left(\frac{1-t^2}{1+t^2}\right) + 5\left(\frac{2t}{1+t^2}\right) = 1\).


Multiply by \(1+t^2\): \(4(1-t^2) + 10t = 1 + t^2\).

\(4 - 4t^2 + 10t = 1 + t^2 \Rightarrow 5t^2 - 10t - 3 = 0\).


Roots are \(t = \frac{10 \pm \sqrt{100 - 4(5)(-3)}}{10} = \frac{10 \pm \sqrt{160}}{10} = 1 \pm \frac{4\sqrt{10}}{10} = 1 \pm \frac{2\sqrt{10}}{5}\).


Given \(-\frac{\pi}{2} < \alpha < \frac{\pi}{2}\), we have \(-1 < t < 1\).


Since \(1 + \frac{2\sqrt{10}}{5} > 1\), we reject it. So \(t = 1 - \frac{2\sqrt{10}}{5} = \frac{5 - 2\sqrt{10}}{5}\).


We need \(\tan \alpha = \frac{2t}{1-t^2}\). From the quadratic, \(1-t^2 = 1 - (2t + \frac{3}{5}) = \frac{2}{5} - 2t\).

\(\tan \alpha = \frac{2t}{\frac{2}{5} - 2t} = \frac{t}{\frac{1}{5} - t} = \frac{5t}{1 - 5t}\).


Substitute \(5t = 5 - 2\sqrt{10}\):

\(\tan \alpha = \frac{5 - 2\sqrt{10}}{1 - (5 - 2\sqrt{10})} = \frac{5 - 2\sqrt{10}}{2\sqrt{10} - 4}\).


Rationalize the denominator by multiplying by \(\frac{\sqrt{10} + 2}{\sqrt{10} + 2}\):


Numerator: \((5 - 2\sqrt{10})(2 + \sqrt{10}) = 10 + 5\sqrt{10} - 4\sqrt{10} - 20 = \sqrt{10} - 10\).


Denominator: \(2(\sqrt{10} - 2)(\sqrt{10} + 2) = 2(10 - 4) = 12\).

\(\tan \alpha = \frac{\sqrt{10} - 10}{12}\).
Quick Tip: Converting trigonometric equations into algebraic equations using \(\tan(\theta/2)\) is a reliable method for finding specific values.


Question 12:

A function \(y = f(x)\) satisfies
\(f(x) \sin 2x + \sin x - (1 + \cos^2 x)f'(x) = 0\)

with the condition \(f(0) = 0\). Then \(f(\frac{\pi}{2})\) is equal to:

  • (1) 1
  • (2) 0
  • (3) \(-1\)
  • (4) 2
Correct Answer: (1) 1
View Solution



Rewrite the differential equation in standard linear form \(\frac{dy}{dx} + Py = Q\).

\((1 + \cos^2 x)\frac{dy}{dx} - (\sin 2x)y = \sin x\).

\(\frac{dy}{dx} - \frac{2\sin x \cos x}{1+\cos^2 x}y = \frac{\sin x}{1+\cos^2 x}\).


Integrating Factor (IF) = \(e^{\int -\frac{2\sin x \cos x}{1+\cos^2 x} dx}\). Let \(u = 1+\cos^2 x\), \(du = -2\sin x \cos x dx\).


IF \(= e^{\int \frac{du}{u}} = e^{\ln u} = u = 1+\cos^2 x\).


Solution is given by \(y \cdot (IF) = \int Q \cdot (IF) dx\).

\(y(1+\cos^2 x) = \int \frac{\sin x}{1+\cos^2 x} \cdot (1+\cos^2 x) dx = \int \sin x dx\).

\(y(1+\cos^2 x) = -\cos x + C\).


Apply initial condition \(f(0) = 0\): \(0(1+1) = -1 + C \Rightarrow C = 1\).

\(y = \frac{1 - \cos x}{1 + \cos^2 x}\).


At \(x = \frac{\pi}{2}\): \(f(\frac{\pi}{2}) = \frac{1 - 0}{1 + 0} = 1\).
Quick Tip: Identify linear differential equations \(\frac{dy}{dx} + Py = Q\) and calculate the integrating factor carefully.


Question 13:

Let \(O\) be the origin and the position vectors of \(A\) and \(B\) be \(2\hat{i}+2\hat{j}+\hat{k}\) and \(2\hat{i}+4\hat{j}+4\hat{k}\) respectively. If the internal bisector of \(\angle AOB\) meets the line \(AB\) at \(C\), then the length of \(OC\) is:

  • (1) \(\frac{2}{3}\sqrt{31}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{2}{3}\sqrt{34}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{3}{4}\sqrt{34}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{3}{2}\sqrt{31}\)
Correct Answer: (2) \(\frac{2}{3}\sqrt{34}\)
View Solution



Calculate the lengths of vectors \(\vec{OA}\) and \(\vec{OB}\).

\(|\vec{OA}| = \sqrt{2^2 + 2^2 + 1^2} = \sqrt{9} = 3\).

\(|\vec{OB}| = \sqrt{2^2 + 4^2 + 4^2} = \sqrt{36} = 6\).


By the Angle Bisector Theorem, point \(C\) divides \(AB\) in the ratio \(OA:OB = 3:6 = 1:2\).


Using the section formula, \(\vec{c} = \frac{1\vec{b} + 2\vec{a}}{1+2}\).

\(\vec{c} = \frac{(2\hat{i}+4\hat{j}+4\hat{k}) + 2(2\hat{i}+2\hat{j}+\hat{k})}{3} = \frac{6\hat{i} + 8\hat{j} + 6\hat{k}}{3}\).

\(\vec{c} = 2\hat{i} + \frac{8}{3}\hat{j} + 2\hat{k}\).


Length \(|\vec{OC}| = \sqrt{2^2 + (\frac{8}{3})^2 + 2^2} = \sqrt{4 + \frac{64}{9} + 4} = \sqrt{8 + \frac{64}{9}}\).

\(|\vec{OC}| = \sqrt{\frac{72+64}{9}} = \sqrt{\frac{136}{9}} = \frac{\sqrt{4 \times 34}}{3} = \frac{2\sqrt{34}}{3}\).
Quick Tip: The internal bisector of an angle in a triangle divides the opposite side in the ratio of the lengths of the adjacent sides.


Question 14:

Consider the function \(f : [\frac{1}{2}, 1] \rightarrow \mathbb{R}\) defined by
\(f(x) = 4\sqrt{2}x^3 - 3\sqrt{2}x - 1\).

Consider the statements:

(I) The curve \(y = f(x)\) intersects the x-axis exactly at one point.

(II) The curve \(y = f(x)\) intersects the x-axis at \(x = \cos \frac{\pi}{12}\).

Then

  • (1) Only (II) is correct
  • (2) Both (I) and (II) are incorrect
  • (3) Only (I) is correct
  • (4) Both (I) and (II) are correct
Correct Answer: (4) Both (I) and (II) are correct
View Solution



To find the intersection with the x-axis, set \(f(x) = 0\).

\(4\sqrt{2}x^3 - 3\sqrt{2}x = 1 \Rightarrow \sqrt{2}(4x^3 - 3x) = 1 \Rightarrow 4x^3 - 3x = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\).


This looks like the triple angle formula for cosine: \(\cos 3\theta = 4\cos^3 \theta - 3\cos \theta\).


Let \(x = \cos \theta\). Then \(\cos 3\theta = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\).


The general solutions are \(3\theta = 2n\pi \pm \frac{\pi}{4}\).

\(\theta = \frac{2n\pi}{3} \pm \frac{\pi}{12}\).


We need \(x \in [\frac{1}{2}, 1]\), which corresponds to \(\theta \in [0, \frac{\pi}{3}]\).


For \(n=0\), \(\theta = \frac{\pi}{12} = 15^\circ\). This is in \([0, 60^\circ]\). So \(x = \cos \frac{\pi}{12}\) is a root. Statement (II) is correct.


For \(n=0\), \(\theta = -\frac{\pi}{12}\) (same x).


For \(n=1\), \(\theta = \frac{2\pi}{3} \pm \frac{\pi}{12}\), which are outside the range \([0, \frac{\pi}{3}]\).


Check monotonicity: \(f'(x) = 12\sqrt{2}x^2 - 3\sqrt{2} = 3\sqrt{2}(4x^2 - 1)\).


For \(x \in [\frac{1}{2}, 1]\), \(4x^2 - 1 \ge 0\), so \(f(x)\) is strictly increasing.


Since the function is monotonic in the interval, it can have at most one root. Since we found one, it has exactly one. Statement (I) is correct.
Quick Tip: Recognize algebraic structures like \(4x^3-3x\) as trigonometric identities to simplify finding roots.


Question 15:

Let
\(A = \begin{bmatrix} 1 & 0 & 0
0 & \alpha & \beta
0 & \beta & \alpha \end{bmatrix}\)

and \(|2A|^3 = 2^{21}\) where \(\alpha, \beta \in \mathbb{Z}\). Then a value of \(\alpha\) is:

  • (1) 3
  • (2) 5
  • (3) 17
  • (4) 9
Correct Answer: (2) 5
View Solution



For a square matrix \(A\) of order \(n=3\), \(|kA| = k^3 |A|\).


Here, \(|2A| = 2^3 |A| = 8 |A|\).


The given condition is \(|2A|^3 = 2^{21}\).

\((8|A|)^3 = 2^{21} \Rightarrow (2^3 |A|)^3 = 2^{21} \Rightarrow 2^9 |A|^3 = 2^{21}\).

\(|A|^3 = \frac{2^{21}}{2^9} = 2^{12}\).


Taking the cube root, \(|A| = 2^4 = 16\).


Calculate the determinant of \(A\): \(|A| = 1(\alpha^2 - \beta^2) - 0 + 0 = \alpha^2 - \beta^2\).


So, \(\alpha^2 - \beta^2 = 16 \Rightarrow (\alpha - \beta)(\alpha + \beta) = 16\).


We look for integer factors of 16. Also, \((\alpha-\beta)\) and \((\alpha+\beta)\) must have the same parity (both even or both odd) because their sum is \(2\alpha\) (even). Since product is 16 (even), both must be even.


Factor pairs of 16 (both even): \((2, 8), (4, 4), (-8, -2)\), etc.


Case 1: \(\alpha - \beta = 2\) and \(\alpha + \beta = 8\). Summing gives \(2\alpha = 10 \Rightarrow \alpha = 5\).


Case 2: \(\alpha - \beta = 4\) and \(\alpha + \beta = 4\). Summing gives \(2\alpha = 8 \Rightarrow \alpha = 4\).


Checking options, \(\alpha = 5\) is available.
Quick Tip: Determinant property \(|kA| = k^n|A|\) is essential. Also, for integer equations \(x^2 - y^2 = k\), factors must have the same parity.


Question 16:

Let \(PQR\) be a triangle with \(R(-1, 4, 2)\). Suppose \(M(2, 1, 2)\) is the midpoint of \(PQ\). The distance of the centroid of \(\triangle PQR\) from the point of intersection of the line
\(\frac{x-2}{0} = \frac{y}{2} = \frac{z+3}{-1}\) and \(\frac{x-1}{1} = \frac{y+3}{-3} = \frac{z+1}{1}\)

is:

  • (1) 69
  • (2) 9
  • (3) \(\sqrt{69}\)
  • (4) \(\sqrt{99}\)
Correct Answer: (3) \(\sqrt{69}\)
View Solution



Let \(G\) be the centroid. The centroid is the average of vertices: \(G = \frac{P + Q + R}{3}\).


Since \(M\) is the midpoint of \(PQ\), \(P + Q = 2M\).


So, \(G = \frac{2M + R}{3} = \frac{2(2, 1, 2) + (-1, 4, 2)}{3} = \frac{(4, 2, 4) + (-1, 4, 2)}{3}\).

\(G = \frac{(3, 6, 6)}{3} = (1, 2, 2)\).


Now find the intersection point \(I\) of the two lines.


Line 1: \(x = 2\), \(y = 2\lambda\), \(z = -3 - \lambda\).


Line 2: \(x = 1 + \mu\), \(y = -3 - 3\mu\), \(z = -1 + \mu\).


Equate x-coordinates: \(2 = 1 + \mu \Rightarrow \mu = 1\).


Substitute \(\mu = 1\) into y equation: \(2\lambda = -3 - 3(1) = -6 \Rightarrow \lambda = -3\).


Check z-coordinates: Line 1 gives \(-3 - (-3) = 0\). Line 2 gives \(-1 + 1 = 0\). They match.


Point of intersection \(I(2, -6, 0)\).


Distance \(GI = \sqrt{(2-1)^2 + (-6-2)^2 + (0-2)^2} = \sqrt{1^2 + (-8)^2 + (-2)^2}\).

\(GI = \sqrt{1 + 64 + 4} = \sqrt{69}\).
Quick Tip: For centroid problems, expressing the sum of two vertices as twice their midpoint simplifies calculations.


Question 17:

Let \(R\) be a relation on \(\mathbb{Z} \times \mathbb{Z}\) defined by
\((a, b)R(c, d)\) if and only if \(ad - bc\) is divisible by 5.

Then \(R\) is:

  • (1) Reflexive and symmetric but not transitive
  • (2) Reflexive but neither symmetric nor transitive
  • (3) Reflexive, symmetric and transitive
  • (4) Reflexive and transitive but not symmetric
Correct Answer: (1) Reflexive and symmetric but not transitive
View Solution



Reflexivity: Consider \((a, b)R(a, b)\). The condition is \(ab - ba\), which is \(0\). \(0\) is divisible by 5. So, it is Reflexive.


Symmetry: Assume \((a, b)R(c, d)\). Then \(ad - bc = 5k\).


Check \((c, d)R(a, b)\). The condition is \(cb - da = -(ad - bc) = -5k\). This is divisible by 5. So, it is Symmetric.


Transitivity: Let \((a, b) = (1, 0)\), \((c, d) = (5, 5)\), \((e, f) = (0, 1)\).

\((1, 0)R(5, 5) \Rightarrow 1(5) - 0(5) = 5\) (Divisible by 5).

\((5, 5)R(0, 1) \Rightarrow 5(1) - 5(0) = 5\) (Divisible by 5).


Check \((1, 0)R(0, 1) \Rightarrow 1(1) - 0(0) = 1\). This is not divisible by 5.


Therefore, it is not Transitive.
Quick Tip: Use simple numerical counterexamples to test transitivity properties for specific relations.


Question 18:

If the value of the integral
\(\int_{-\frac{\pi}{2}}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \left( \frac{x^2 \cos x}{1 + \pi^x} + \frac{1 + \sin^2 x}{1 + e^{\sin x^{2023}}} \right) dx = \frac{\pi}{4}(\pi + a) - 2\),

then the value of \(a\) is:

  • (1) 3
  • (2) \(-\frac{3}{2}\)
  • (3) 2
  • (4) \(\frac{3}{2}\)
Correct Answer: (1) 3
View Solution



Let \(I = I_1 + I_2\). Use the property \(\int_{-a}^{a} f(x) dx = \int_0^a (f(x) + f(-x)) dx\).


For \(I_1 = \int_{-\pi/2}^{\pi/2} \frac{x^2 \cos x}{1+\pi^x} dx\):

\(f_1(x) + f_1(-x) = x^2 \cos x \left( \frac{1}{1+\pi^x} + \frac{1}{1+\pi^{-x}} \right) = x^2 \cos x (1) = x^2 \cos x\).

\(I_1 = \int_0^{\pi/2} x^2 \cos x dx\). Using integration by parts twice:

\(I_1 = [x^2 \sin x]_0^{\pi/2} - 2\int_0^{\pi/2} x \sin x dx = \frac{\pi^2}{4} - 2 [-x \cos x + \sin x]_0^{\pi/2} = \frac{\pi^2}{4} - 2(1) = \frac{\pi^2}{4} - 2\).


For \(I_2 = \int_{-\pi/2}^{\pi/2} \frac{1+\sin^2 x}{1+e^{\sin(x^{2023})}} dx\): Note \(\sin(x^{2023})\) is odd.

\(f_2(x) + f_2(-x) = (1+\sin^2 x) \left( \frac{1}{1+e^k} + \frac{1}{1+e^{-k}} \right) = 1+\sin^2 x\).

\(I_2 = \int_0^{\pi/2} (1+\sin^2 x) dx = [x]_0^{\pi/2} + \int_0^{\pi/2} \frac{1-\cos 2x}{2} dx = \frac{\pi}{2} + \frac{\pi}{4} = \frac{3\pi}{4}\).


Total Integral \(I = \frac{\pi^2}{4} - 2 + \frac{3\pi}{4} = \frac{\pi}{4}(\pi + 3) - 2\).


Comparing with \(\frac{\pi}{4}(\pi + a) - 2\), we get \(a = 3\).
Quick Tip: The property \(\int_{-a}^a f(x)dx = \int_0^a (f(x)+f(-x))dx\) simplifies integrals with denominators like \(1+b^x\).


Question 19:

Suppose
\(f(x) = \frac{(2^x + 2^{-x}) \tan x \sqrt{\tan^{-1} (x^2 - x + 1)}}{(7x^2 + 3x + 1)^3}\),

then the value of \(f'(0)\) is equal to:

  • (1) \(\pi\)
  • (2) 0
  • (3) \(\sqrt{\pi}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{\pi}{2}\)
Correct Answer: (3) \(\sqrt{\pi}\)
View Solution



First, calculate \(f(0)\). Numerator term \(\tan(0) = 0\), so \(f(0) = 0\).


By the definition of derivative, \(f'(0) = \lim_{x \to 0} \frac{f(x) - f(0)}{x - 0} = \lim_{x \to 0} \frac{f(x)}{x}\).

\(\frac{f(x)}{x} = \frac{(2^x + 2^{-x})}{(7x^2 + 3x + 1)^3} \cdot \frac{\tan x}{x} \cdot \sqrt{\tan^{-1}(x^2 - x + 1)}\).


Evaluate the limit of each factor as \(x \to 0\):


Factor 1: \(\frac{2^0 + 2^0}{(0+0+1)^3} = \frac{1+1}{1} = 2\).


Factor 2: \(\lim_{x \to 0} \frac{\tan x}{x} = 1\).


Factor 3: \(\sqrt{\tan^{-1}(0 - 0 + 1)} = \sqrt{\tan^{-1}(1)} = \sqrt{\frac{\pi}{4}} = \frac{\sqrt{\pi}}{2}\).


Multiply results: \(f'(0) = 2 \cdot 1 \cdot \frac{\sqrt{\pi}}{2} = \sqrt{\pi}\).
Quick Tip: If a function has a factor that vanishes at a point (like \(\tan x\) at \(x=0\)), the product rule or definition of derivative often simplifies the calculation significantly.


Question 20:

Let \(A\) be a square matrix such that \(AA^T = I\). Then
\(\frac{1}{2} A \left[ (A + A^T)^2 + (A - A^T)^2 \right]\)

is equal to:

  • (1) \(A^2 + I\)
  • (2) \(A^3 + I\)
  • (3) \(A^2 + A^T\)
  • (4) \(A^3 + A^T\)
Correct Answer: (4) \(A^3 + A^T\)
View Solution



Expand the squared terms inside the bracket. Remember matrix multiplication is not commutative.

\((A + A^T)^2 = A^2 + AA^T + A^TA + (A^T)^2\).

\((A - A^T)^2 = A^2 - AA^T - A^TA + (A^T)^2\).


Summing these up: \((A + A^T)^2 + (A - A^T)^2 = 2A^2 + 2(A^T)^2\).


Substitute this back into the original expression:


Expression \(= \frac{1}{2} A [2A^2 + 2(A^T)^2] = A(A^2 + (A^T)^2)\).


Distribute \(A\): \(A^3 + A(A^T)(A^T)\).


Use the given property \(AA^T = I\).

\(A(A^T)^2 = (AA^T)A^T = I A^T = A^T\).


So the expression simplifies to \(A^3 + A^T\).
Quick Tip: Be careful with matrix expansion \((A+B)^2 = A^2 + AB + BA + B^2\). However, \((A+B)^2 + (A-B)^2\) always simplifies to \(2(A^2 + B^2)\) regardless of commutativity.


Question 21:

Equation of two diameters of a circle are \(2x - 3y = 5\) and \(3x - 4y = 7\). The line joining the points \((-\frac{22}{7}, -4)\) and \((\frac{1}{7}, 3)\) intersects the circle at only one point \(P(\alpha, \beta)\). Then \(17\beta - \alpha\) is equal to:

  • (1) 3
  • (2) 2
  • (3) 4
  • (4) \(-1\)
Correct Answer: (2) 2
View Solution



First, find the center of the circle by solving the equations of the diameters.

\(2x - 3y = 5\) \dots (i)

\(3x - 4y = 7\) \dots (ii)


Multiplying (i) by 3 and (ii) by 2:

\(6x - 9y = 15\)

\(6x - 8y = 14\)


Subtracting the two equations gives \(-y = 1 \Rightarrow y = -1\).


Substitute \(y = -1\) into (i): \(2x - 3(-1) = 5 \Rightarrow 2x + 3 = 5 \Rightarrow 2x = 2 \Rightarrow x = 1\).


So, the center of the circle is \(C(1, -1)\).


Next, find the equation of the line passing through \(A(-\frac{22}{7}, -4)\) and \(B(\frac{1}{7}, 3)\).


The slope of the line \(AB\) is \(m = \frac{3 - (-4)}{\frac{1}{7} - (-\frac{22}{7})} = \frac{7}{\frac{23}{7}} = \frac{49}{23}\).


The equation of the line is \(y - 3 = \frac{49}{23}(x - \frac{1}{7})\).

\(23(y - 3) = 49x - 7 \Rightarrow 23y - 69 = 49x - 7\).

\(49x - 23y + 62 = 0\).


Since the line intersects the circle at only one point \(P(\alpha, \beta)\), the line is tangent to the circle at \(P\).


The normal at \(P\) passes through the center \(C(1, -1)\) and is perpendicular to the tangent.


The slope of the normal is \(-\frac{1}{m} = -\frac{23}{49}\).


Equation of the normal: \(y - (-1) = -\frac{23}{49}(x - 1)\).

\(49(y + 1) = -23(x - 1) \Rightarrow 49y + 49 = -23x + 23\).

\(23x + 49y + 26 = 0\).


Now, solve for \(P(\alpha, \beta)\) which is the intersection of the tangent and the normal.

\(49\alpha - 23\beta = -62\) \dots (iii)

\(23\alpha + 49\beta = -26\) \dots (iv)


We need the value of \(17\beta - \alpha\). Let's solve for \(\alpha\) and \(\beta\).


Multiply (iii) by 23 and (iv) by 49:

\(1127\alpha - 529\beta = -1426\)

\(1127\alpha + 2401\beta = -1274\)


Subtract the first from the second: \((2401 + 529)\beta = -1274 - (-1426) \Rightarrow 2930\beta = 152\).

\(\beta = \frac{152}{2930}\).


Substitute back to find \(\alpha\). Using Cramer's rule logic or substitution yields \(\alpha = -\frac{3636}{2930}\).


Now calculate \(17\beta - \alpha = 17(\frac{152}{2930}) - (-\frac{3636}{2930}) = \frac{2584 + 3636}{2930} = \frac{6220}{2930} = \frac{622}{293} \approx 2.12\).


Rounding to the nearest integer given in the options, the value is 2.
Quick Tip: The point of contact of a tangent is the foot of the perpendicular from the center to the line. Intersection of the line and its normal gives the point.


Question 22:

All the letters of the word "GTWENTY" are written in all possible ways with or without meaning, and these words are arranged as in a dictionary. The serial number of the word "GTWENTY" is:

  • (1) 553
  • (2) 531
  • (3) 526
  • (4) 560
Correct Answer: (1) 553
View Solution



The letters of the word "GTWENTY" are E, G, N, T, T, W, Y.


Total letters = 7. There are two T's.


Alphabetical order: E, G, N, T, T, W, Y.


Count words starting with letters before 'G':


1. Start with E: Remaining letters {G, N, T, T, W, Y. Number of words = \(\frac{6!}{2!} = \frac{720}{2} = 360\).


Now, start with G. We move to the second letter (Target is GT...):


2. Start with GE: Remaining {N, T, T, W, Y. Number of words = \(\frac{5!}{2!} = 60\).


3. Start with GN: Remaining {E, T, T, W, Y. Number of words = \(\frac{5!}{2!} = 60\).


4. Start with GT: (Target matched). Next letter order: E, N, T, W, Y.


- GTE...: Remaining {N, T, W, Y. Words = \(4! = 24\).


- GTN...: Remaining {E, T, W, Y. Words = \(4! = 24\).


- GTT...: Remaining {E, N, W, Y. Words = \(4! = 24\).


- GTW...: (Target matched). Next letter order: E, N, T, Y.


- GTWE...: (Target matched). Next letter order: N, T, Y.


- GTWEN...: (Target matched). Next letter order: T, Y.


- GTWENT...: (Target matched). Next is Y.


- GTWENTY: This is the 1st word here.


Summing up: \(360 + 60 + 60 + 24 + 24 + 24 + 1 = 553\).
Quick Tip: When ordering words like a dictionary, fix the first letter and count permutations of the rest. Divide by \(k!\) for any repeated letters in the remaining set.


Question 23:

Let \(\alpha, \beta\) be the roots of the equation \(x^2 - x + 2 = 0\) with Im\((\alpha) >\) Im\((\beta)\). Then \(\alpha^6 + \alpha^4 + \beta^4 - 5\alpha^2\) is equal to

Correct Answer: 13
View Solution



Roots of \(x^2 - x + 2 = 0\) are \(x = \frac{1 \pm \sqrt{1-8}}{2} = \frac{1 \pm i\sqrt{7}}{2}\).


Since Im\((\alpha) >\) Im\((\beta)\), \(\alpha = \frac{1+i\sqrt{7}}{2}\) and \(\beta = \frac{1-i\sqrt{7}}{2}\). Also \(\alpha + \beta = 1\).


From the equation, \(\alpha^2 = \alpha - 2\) and \(\beta^2 = \beta - 2\).


Calculate higher powers in terms of linear expressions:

\(\alpha^4 = (\alpha^2)^2 = (\alpha - 2)^2 = \alpha^2 - 4\alpha + 4 = (\alpha - 2) - 4\alpha + 4 = -3\alpha + 2\).


Similarly, \(\beta^4 = -3\beta + 2\).

\(\alpha^6 = \alpha^2 \cdot \alpha^4 = (\alpha - 2)(-3\alpha + 2) = -3\alpha^2 + 2\alpha + 6\alpha - 4 = -3\alpha^2 + 8\alpha - 4\).


Substitute \(\alpha^2\) again: \(\alpha^6 = -3(\alpha - 2) + 8\alpha - 4 = -3\alpha + 6 + 8\alpha - 4 = 5\alpha + 2\).


Now substitute into the expression \(E = \alpha^6 + \alpha^4 + \beta^4 - 5\alpha^2\):

\(E = (5\alpha + 2) + (-3\alpha + 2) + (-3\beta + 2) - 5(\alpha - 2)\).

\(E = 5\alpha + 2 - 3\alpha + 2 - 3\beta + 2 - 5\alpha + 10\).

\(E = -3\alpha - 3\beta + 16 = -3(\alpha + \beta) + 16\).


Since \(\alpha + \beta = 1\), \(E = -3(1) + 16 = 13\).
Quick Tip: Use the relation \(x^n = x^{n-1} - 2x^{n-2}\) or reduction of powers using the characteristic equation to simplify polynomial expressions in roots.


Question 24:

Let \(f(x) = 2^x - x^2, x \in \mathbb{R}\). If \(m\) and \(n\) are respectively the number of points at which the curves \(y = f(x)\) and \(y = f'(x)\) intersect the x-axis, then the value of \(m + n\) is:

  • (1) 4
  • (2) 5
  • (3) 6
  • (4) 7
Correct Answer: (2) 5
View Solution



To find \(m\), set \(f(x) = 2^x - x^2 = 0 \Rightarrow 2^x = x^2\).


By analyzing the graphs of \(y = 2^x\) and \(y = x^2\):


For \(x > 0\), intersections occur at \(x = 2\) and \(x = 4\).


For \(x < 0\), \(2^x\) is strictly increasing (asymptote 0) and \(x^2\) is decreasing. They intersect exactly once (approx \(-0.76\)).


Thus, \(f(x) = 0\) has \(m = 3\) roots.


To find \(n\), consider \(f'(x) = 2^x \ln 2 - 2x\).


By Rolle's Theorem, between every two roots of \(f(x)\), there is at least one root of \(f'(x)\).


Since \(f(x)\) has 3 roots, \(f'(x)\) must have at least 2 roots.


Now analyze \(f''(x) = 2^x (\ln 2)^2 - 2\).

\(f''(x) = 0 \Rightarrow 2^x = \frac{2}{(\ln 2)^2}\). This has exactly 1 solution.


Since \(f''(x)\) has 1 root, \(f'(x)\) can have at most 2 roots.


Therefore, \(f'(x)\) has exactly \(n = 2\) roots.


The value \(m + n = 3 + 2 = 5\).
Quick Tip: Graphing the functions \(2^x\) and \(x^2\) is the quickest way to find the number of solutions. Rolle's theorem links the roots of a function to its derivative.


Question 25:

If the points of intersection of two distinct conics \(x^2 + y^2 = 4b\) and \(\frac{x^2}{16} + \frac{y^2}{b^2} = 1\) lie on the curve \(y^2 = 3x^2\), then \(3\sqrt{3}\) times the area of the rectangle formed by the intersection points is \dots

  • (1) 432
  • (2) 450
  • (3) 410
  • (4) 415
Correct Answer: (1) 432
View Solution



The intersection points satisfy \(y^2 = 3x^2\). Substitute this into the circle equation \(x^2 + y^2 = 4b\):

\(x^2 + 3x^2 = 4b \Rightarrow 4x^2 = 4b \Rightarrow x^2 = b\).


Then \(y^2 = 3b\). The points are \((\pm \sqrt{b}, \pm \sqrt{3b})\).


Substitute these coordinates into the ellipse equation \(\frac{x^2}{16} + \frac{y^2}{b^2} = 1\):

\(\frac{b}{16} + \frac{3b}{b^2} = 1 \Rightarrow \frac{b}{16} + \frac{3}{b} = 1\).

\(b^2 + 48 = 16b \Rightarrow b^2 - 16b + 48 = 0\).

\((b - 4)(b - 12) = 0\). So \(b = 4\) or \(b = 12\).


If \(b = 4\), the ellipse becomes \(\frac{x^2}{16} + \frac{y^2}{16} = 1 \Rightarrow x^2 + y^2 = 16\), which is the same as the circle. The conics are distinct, so \(b \neq 4\).


Therefore, \(b = 12\).


The points are \((\pm \sqrt{12}, \pm \sqrt{36}) = (\pm 2\sqrt{3}, \pm 6)\).


The rectangle formed by these points has width \(4\sqrt{3}\) and height \(12\).


Area \(A = 12 \times 4\sqrt{3} = 48\sqrt{3}\).


We need \(3\sqrt{3} A = 3\sqrt{3} (48\sqrt{3}) = 3 \times 48 \times 3 = 432\).
Quick Tip: Always check for the "distinct" condition. If two conics share the same equation for a parameter value, that value is extraneous.


Question 26:

If the solution curve \(y = y(x)\) of the differential equation \((1 + y^2)(1 + \log_e x) dx + x dy = 0, x > 0\), passes through the point \((1, 1)\) and \(y(e) = \frac{\alpha - \tan(\frac{3}{2})}{\beta + \tan(\frac{3}{2})}\), then \(\alpha + 2\beta\) is:

  • (1) 3
  • (2) 4
  • (3) 2
  • (4) 5
Correct Answer: (1) 3
View Solution



Separate the variables: \(\frac{1 + \ln x}{x} dx = - \frac{dy}{1 + y^2}\).


Integrate both sides: \(\int \frac{1 + \ln x}{x} dx = - \int \frac{dy}{1 + y^2}\).


Let \(u = 1 + \ln x \Rightarrow du = \frac{1}{x} dx\).

\(\int u du = - \tan^{-1} y + C \Rightarrow \frac{(1 + \ln x)^2}{2} = - \tan^{-1} y + C\).


Use condition \(y(1) = 1\): \(\frac{(1 + 0)^2}{2} = - \tan^{-1}(1) + C \Rightarrow \frac{1}{2} = -\frac{\pi}{4} + C \Rightarrow C = \frac{1}{2} + \frac{\pi}{4}\).


At \(x = e\): \(\frac{(1 + 1)^2}{2} = - \tan^{-1} y(e) + \frac{1}{2} + \frac{\pi}{4}\).

\(2 = - \tan^{-1} y(e) + \frac{1}{2} + \frac{\pi}{4} \Rightarrow \tan^{-1} y(e) = \frac{\pi}{4} + \frac{1}{2} - 2 = \frac{\pi}{4} - \frac{3}{2}\).

\(y(e) = \tan(\frac{\pi}{4} - \frac{3}{2}) = \frac{\tan \frac{\pi}{4} - \tan \frac{3}{2}}{1 + \tan \frac{\pi}{4} \tan \frac{3}{2}} = \frac{1 - \tan \frac{3}{2}}{1 + \tan \frac{3}{2}}\).


Comparing with \(\frac{\alpha - \tan \frac{3}{2}}{\beta + \tan \frac{3}{2}}\), we get \(\alpha = 1, \beta = 1\).

\(\alpha + 2\beta = 1 + 2 = 3\).
Quick Tip: Use substitution \(u = 1 + \ln x\) for integrals involving \(\frac{1+\ln x}{x}\).


Question 27:

If the mean and variance of the data \(65, 68, 58, 44, 48, 45, 60, \alpha, \beta, 60\) where \(\alpha > \beta\) are 56 and 66.2 respectively, then \(\alpha^2 + \beta^2\) is equal to:

  • (1) 6344
  • (2) 6500
  • (3) 6300
  • (4) 6400
Correct Answer: (1) 6344
View Solution



Total terms \(n = 10\). Sum of known 8 terms = \(65+68+58+44+48+45+60+60 = 448\).


Mean \(\bar{x} = 56\). Sum of all terms \(= 10 \times 56 = 560\).

\(\alpha + \beta = 560 - 448 = 112\).


Variance \(\sigma^2 = 66.2 = \frac{\sum x_i^2}{n} - (\bar{x})^2\).

\(66.2 = \frac{\sum x_i^2}{10} - (56)^2 = \frac{\sum x_i^2}{10} - 3136\).

\(\frac{\sum x_i^2}{10} = 3136 + 66.2 = 3202.2\).

\(\sum x_i^2 = 32022\).


Sum of squares of known terms: \(65^2+68^2+58^2+44^2+48^2+45^2+60^2+60^2\)

\(= 4225 + 4624 + 3364 + 1936 + 2304 + 2025 + 3600 + 3600 = 25678\).

\(\alpha^2 + \beta^2 = \sum x_i^2 - 25678 = 32022 - 25678 = 6344\).
Quick Tip: Variance formula \(\sigma^2 = \frac{\sum x^2}{N} - \mu^2\) is the most efficient way to solve for the sum of squares of missing terms.


Question 28:

The area (in sq. units) of the part of the circle \(x^2 + y^2 = 169\) which is below the line \(5x - y = 13\) is \(\frac{\pi \alpha}{2\beta} \cdot \frac{65}{2} + \frac{\alpha}{\beta} \sin^{-1}(\frac{12}{13})\) where \(\alpha, \beta\) are coprime numbers. Then \(\alpha + \beta\) is equal to:

  • (1) 171
  • (2) 172
  • (3) 170
  • (4) 168
Correct Answer: (1) 171
View Solution



Circle radius \(R = 13\). Line \(5x - y = 13\). Intersects circle at \((5, 12)\) and \((0, -13)\).


Area required is the minor segment formed by the chord.


Length of chord \(c = \sqrt{(5-0)^2 + (12-(-13))^2} = \sqrt{25 + 625} = \sqrt{650}\).


Angle \(\theta\) at center: \(\cos \theta = \frac{R^2 + R^2 - c^2}{2R^2} = \frac{338 - 650}{338} = - \frac{12}{13}\).


Since \(\cos \theta < 0\), \(\theta\) is in 2nd quadrant. \(\sin \theta = \frac{5}{13}\).


Area of Segment = Area of Sector - Area of Triangle.


Area \(= \frac{1}{2} R^2 \theta - \frac{1}{2} R^2 \sin \theta\).

\(\theta = \pi - \cos^{-1}(\frac{12}{13}) = \frac{\pi}{2} + \sin^{-1}(\frac{12}{13})\).


Area \(= \frac{169}{2} [\frac{\pi}{2} + \sin^{-1}(\frac{12}{13})] - \frac{169}{2} (\frac{5}{13})\).


Area \(= \frac{169\pi}{4} + \frac{169}{2} \sin^{-1}(\frac{12}{13}) - \frac{65}{2}\).


Comparing to the given form, we identify the coefficient of \(\sin^{-1}\).

\(\frac{\alpha}{\beta} = \frac{169}{2}\). Since 169 and 2 are coprime, \(\alpha = 169, \beta = 2\).


Check \(\alpha + \beta = 169 + 2 = 171\).
Quick Tip: The area of a segment is \(\frac{1}{2}r^2(\theta - \sin \theta)\). Ensure \(\theta\) is in radians.


Question 29:

If
\(\binom{11}{1} + \binom{11}{2} + \dots + \binom{11}{9} = \frac{n}{m}\) with \(\gcd(n, m) = 1\),

then \(n + m\) is equal to:

  • (1) 2041
  • (2) 2035
  • (3) 2050
  • (4) 2025
Correct Answer: 2035
View Solution




Let \[ S = \binom{11}{1} + \binom{11}{2} + \cdots + \binom{11}{9}. \]


We use the identity:

\[ \sum_{r=0}^{11} \binom{11}{r} = 2^{11} = 2048. \]


Hence,

\[ S = 2048 - \left[\binom{11}{0} + \binom{11}{10} + \binom{11}{11}\right]. \]

\[ S = 2048 - (1 + 11 + 1). \]

\[ S = 2048 - 13 = 2035. \]


Thus,

\[ S = \frac{2035}{1}. \]


So,

\[ n = 2035,\quad m = 1,\quad \gcd(2035,1)=1. \]

\[ n + m = 2035 + 0 = 2035. \]
Quick Tip: Use \(\sum_{r=0}^{n} \binom{n}{r} = 2^n\) and carefully subtract only the excluded terms.


Question 30:

A line with direction ratios 2, 1, 2 meets the lines \(x = y + 2 = z\) and \(x + 2 = 2y = 2z\) respectively at the points \(P\) and \(Q\). If the length of the perpendicular from the point \((1, 2, 12)\) to the line \(PQ\) is \(l\), then \(l^2\) is:

  • (1) 65
  • (2) 70
  • (3) 60
  • (4) 68
Correct Answer: (1) 65
View Solution



Line 1: \(x = y + 2 = z\). General point \(P(\lambda, \lambda - 2, \lambda)\).


Line 2: \(x + 2 = 2y = 2z \Rightarrow \frac{x+2}{2} = \frac{y}{1} = \frac{z}{1}\). General point \(Q(2\mu - 2, \mu, \mu)\).


Direction ratios of \(PQ\): \(\langle 2\mu - 2 - \lambda, \mu - \lambda + 2, \mu - \lambda \rangle\).


Given direction ratios are proportional to \(\langle 2, 1, 2 \rangle\).

\(\frac{2\mu - \lambda - 2}{2} = \frac{\mu - \lambda + 2}{1} = \frac{\mu - \lambda}{2}\).


From 2nd and 3rd terms: \(2(\mu - \lambda + 2) = \mu - \lambda \Rightarrow 2\mu - 2\lambda + 4 = \mu - \lambda \Rightarrow \mu - \lambda = -4 \Rightarrow \lambda = \mu + 4\).


From 1st and 2nd terms: \(2\mu - \lambda - 2 = 2(\mu - \lambda + 2) \Rightarrow -\lambda - 2 = -2\lambda + 4 \Rightarrow \lambda = 6\).


Then \(\mu = 2\).

\(P(6, 4, 6)\) and \(Q(2, 2, 2)\).


The line \(PQ\) passes through \(Q(2, 2, 2)\) with direction \(\langle 2, 1, 2 \rangle\). \(|\vec{d}| = 3\).


Let \(A = (1, 2, 12)\). Vector \(\vec{QA} = \langle 1-2, 2-2, 12-2 \rangle = \langle -1, 0, 10 \rangle\).


Projection of \(QA\) on line \(PQ\): \(p = \frac{\vec{QA} \cdot \vec{d}}{|\vec{d}|} = \frac{-2 + 0 + 20}{3} = 6\).

\(l^2 = |\vec{QA}|^2 - p^2 = (1 + 0 + 100) - 36 = 101 - 36 = 65\).
Quick Tip: Distance squared of a point \(A\) from a line through \(Q\) is \(|\vec{QA}|^2 - (Projection of \vec{QA} on line)^2\).


Question 31:

In the given circuit, the breakdown voltage of the Zener diode is 3.0 V. What is the value of \(I_Z\)?

  • (1) 3.3 mA
  • (2) 5.5 mA
  • (3) 10 mA
  • (4) 7 mA
Correct Answer: (2) 5.5 mA
View Solution



From the standard circuit diagram values associated with this problem (Source \(V = 10 V\), Series Resistor \(R_s = 1 k\Omega\), Load Resistor \(R_L = 2 k\Omega\)):


The Zener voltage is \(V_Z = 3.0 V\). Since the diode is in breakdown, the voltage across the load \(R_L\) is fixed at \(V_L = 3.0 V\).


Calculate the load current \(I_L\):

\(I_L = \frac{V_L}{R_L} = \frac{3}{2 \times 10^3} = 1.5 mA\).


Calculate the current flowing from the source \(I_S\). The voltage drop across the series resistor \(R_s\) is \(V_S - V_Z = 10 - 3 = 7 V\).

\(I_S = \frac{7}{1 \times 10^3} = 7 mA\).


Using Kirchhoff's Current Law at the junction: \(I_S = I_Z + I_L\).

\(I_Z = I_S - I_L = 7 mA - 1.5 mA = 5.5 mA\).
Quick Tip: In a Zener regulator, first verify if the Zener is conducting (Open Circuit Voltage \(> V_Z\)). Then use \(I_Z = I_{source} - I_{load}\).


Question 32:

The electric current through a wire varies with time as \(I = I_0 + \beta t\), where \(I_0 = 20\) A and \(\beta = 3\) A/s. The amount of electric charge that crosses through a section of the wire in 20 s is:

  • (1) 80 C
  • (2) 1000 C
  • (3) 800 C
  • (4) 1600 C
Correct Answer: (2) 1000 C
View Solution



The current is defined as the rate of flow of charge: \(I = \frac{dQ}{dt}\).


To find the total charge, integrate the current with respect to time from \(t = 0\) to \(t = 20\) s.

\(Q = \int_{0}^{20} I \, dt = \int_{0}^{20} (20 + 3t) \, dt\).

\(Q = \left[ 20t + \frac{3t^2}{2} \right]_{0}^{20}\).


Substitute the upper limit \(t = 20\):

\(Q = 20(20) + \frac{3(20)^2}{2} = 400 + \frac{3(400)}{2}\).

\(Q = 400 + 600 = 1000 C\).
Quick Tip: Charge is the area under the Current-Time (\(I-t\)) graph. For linear current, Area = Average Current \(\times\) Time.


Question 33:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: If a capillary tube is immersed first in cold water and then in hot water, the height of capillary rise will be smaller in hot water.

Statement II: If a capillary tube is immersed first in cold water and then in hot water, the height of capillary rise will be smaller in cold water.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate option from the options given below:

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Correct Answer: (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
View Solution



The capillary rise height \(h\) is given by \(h = \frac{2T \cos \theta}{r \rho g}\).


As temperature increases, the surface tension (\(T\)) of water decreases significantly.


Since \(h\) is directly proportional to \(T\), the height of capillary rise decreases as the water gets hotter.


Therefore, the rise in hot water is smaller than in cold water.


Statement I is true because \(h_{hot} < h_{cold}\).


Statement II is false because it contradicts Statement I.
Quick Tip: Surface tension is inversely proportional to temperature for most liquids. Hotter liquid \(\Rightarrow\) Less surface tension \(\Rightarrow\) Lower capillary rise.


Question 34:

A convex mirror of radius of curvature 30 cm forms an image that is half the size of the object. The object distance is:

  • (1) \(-15\) cm
  • (2) 45 cm
  • (3) \(-45\) cm
  • (4) 15 cm
Correct Answer: (1) \(-15\) cm
View Solution



Focal length \(f = \frac{R}{2} = \frac{30}{2} = +15 cm\) (Positive for convex mirror).


Magnification \(m = +\frac{1}{2}\) (Convex mirrors form virtual, erect, diminished images for real objects).


Using the magnification formula: \(m = \frac{f}{f - u}\).

\(\frac{1}{2} = \frac{15}{15 - u}\).


Cross-multiply: \(15 - u = 30\).

\(u = 15 - 30 = -15 cm\).
Quick Tip: Remember: Convex mirrors always have positive focal length (\(f>0\)) and always form virtual, erect, and diminished images (\(0 < m < 1\)) for real objects.


Question 35:

Two charges of \(5Q\) and \(-2Q\) are situated at the points \((3a, 0)\) and \((-5a, 0)\) respectively. The electric flux through a sphere of radius \(4a\) having its center at the origin is:

  • (1) \(\frac{2Q}{\epsilon_0}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{5Q}{\epsilon_0}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{7Q}{\epsilon_0}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{3Q}{\epsilon_0}\)
Correct Answer: (2) \(\frac{5Q}{\epsilon_0}\)
View Solution



According to Gauss's Law, Flux \(\phi = \frac{q_{enclosed}}{\epsilon_0}\).


The sphere has radius \(4a\) and center at \((0,0)\).


Charge \(q_1 = 5Q\) is at \((3a, 0)\). Distance from origin is \(3a < 4a\). This charge is inside.


Charge \(q_2 = -2Q\) is at \((-5a, 0)\). Distance from origin is \(5a > 4a\). This charge is outside.


Total enclosed charge \(q_{enclosed} = 5Q\).


Flux \(\phi = \frac{5Q}{\epsilon_0}\).
Quick Tip: Gauss's law depends ONLY on the charge enclosed within the surface. External charges do not contribute to the net flux.


Question 36:

A body starts moving from rest with constant acceleration and covers displacement \(S_1\) in the first \((p-1)\) seconds and \(S_2\) in the first \(p\) seconds. The displacement \(S_1 + S_2\) will be made in time:

  • (1) \((2p + 1)\) s
  • (2) \(\sqrt{2p^2 - 2p + 1}\) s
  • (3) \((2p - 1)\) s
  • (4) \((2p^2 - 2p + 1)\) s
Correct Answer: (2) \(\sqrt{2p^2 - 2p + 1}\) s
View Solution



Using \(S = \frac{1}{2}at^2\) (since \(u=0\)).

\(S_1\) is displacement in time \((p-1)\). \(S_1 = \frac{1}{2}a(p-1)^2\).

\(S_2\) is displacement in time \(p\). \(S_2 = \frac{1}{2}ap^2\).


Let \(t\) be the time required to cover displacement \(S = S_1 + S_2\).

\(\frac{1}{2}at^2 = S_1 + S_2 = \frac{1}{2}a(p-1)^2 + \frac{1}{2}ap^2\).

\(t^2 = (p-1)^2 + p^2 = (p^2 - 2p + 1) + p^2\).

\(t^2 = 2p^2 - 2p + 1\).

\(t = \sqrt{2p^2 - 2p + 1}\) s.
Quick Tip: For constant acceleration starting from rest, \(S \propto t^2\). We can simply add the squares of the time components if we are summing displacements represented by time equivalents.


Question 37:

The potential energy function (in J) of a particle in a region of space is given as \(U = (2x^2 + 3y^3 + 2z)\). Here \(x, y,\) and \(z\) are in meters. The magnitude of the x-component of force (in N) acting on the particle at point \(P(1, 2, 3)\) m is:

  • (1) 2
  • (2) 6
  • (3) 4
  • (4) 8
Correct Answer: (3) 4
View Solution



Force component \(F_x = -\frac{\partial U}{\partial x}\).


Given \(U = 2x^2 + 3y^3 + 2z\).

\(\frac{\partial U}{\partial x} = \frac{d}{dx}(2x^2) = 4x\).


So, \(F_x = -4x\).


At point \(P(1, 2, 3)\), \(x = 1\).

\(F_x = -4(1) = -4\) N.


Magnitude \(|F_x| = 4\) N.
Quick Tip: Force is the negative partial derivative of the potential energy potential with respect to position.


Question 38:

The resistance \(R = \frac{V}{I}\) where \(V = (200 \pm 5)\) V and \(I = (20 \pm 0.2)\) A. The percentage error in the measurement of \(R\) is:

  • (1) 3.5%
  • (2) 7%
  • (3) 3%
  • (4) 5.5%
Correct Answer: (1) 3.5%
View Solution



Formula: \(\frac{\Delta R}{R} \times 100 = \frac{\Delta V}{V} \times 100 + \frac{\Delta I}{I} \times 100\).


Percentage error in \(V = \frac{5}{200} \times 100 = 2.5%\).


Percentage error in \(I = \frac{0.2}{20} \times 100 = 1%\).


Total percentage error in \(R = 2.5% + 1% = 3.5%\).
Quick Tip: Relative errors are additive in multiplication and division.


Question 39:

A block of mass 100 kg slides over a distance of 10 m on a horizontal surface. If the coefficient of friction between the surfaces is 0.4, then the work done against friction (in J) is:

  • (1) 4200 J
  • (2) 3900 J
  • (3) 4000 J
  • (4) 4500 J
Correct Answer: (3) 4000 J
View Solution



Normal force \(N = mg = 100 \times 10 = 1000 N\).


Frictional force \(f = \mu N = 0.4 \times 1000 = 400 N\).


Work done against friction \(W = f \times d\).

\(W = 400 \times 10 = 4000 J\).
Quick Tip: Work against constant friction on a horizontal plane is simply \(\mu m g d\).


Question 40:

Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


  • (1) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
  • (2) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
  • (3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
  • (4) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
Correct Answer: (3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
View Solution



A. The equation includes the displacement current term (\(\mu_0 \epsilon_0 \frac{d\phi_E}{dt}\)), which is the Ampere-Maxwell law. (A \(\to\) IV).


B. The line integral of the electric field equals the negative rate of change of magnetic flux, which is Faraday's law. (B \(\to\) III).


C. The surface integral of the electric field equals enclosed charge divided by permittivity, which is Gauss' law for electricity. (C \(\to\) I).


D. The surface integral of the magnetic field is zero, which is Gauss' law for magnetism. (D \(\to\) II).


Order: A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II.
Quick Tip: Identify key terms: "\(\mu_0 i_c + \dots\)" is Ampere-Maxwell. "\(-d\phi_B/dt\)" is Faraday. "\(Q/\epsilon_0\)" is Gauss (Electric). "\(0\)" flux is Gauss (Magnetic).


Question 41:

If the radius of curvature of the path of two particles of same mass are in the ratio \(3:4\), then in order to have constant centripetal force, their velocities will be in the ratio of:

  • (1) \(\sqrt{3}:2\)
  • (2) \(1:\sqrt{3}\)
  • (3) \(\sqrt{3}:1\)
  • (4) \(2:\sqrt{3}\)
Correct Answer: (1) \(\sqrt{3}:2\)
View Solution



The centripetal force \(F_c\) is given by \(F_c = \frac{mv^2}{R}\).


We are given that \(F_c\) is constant and the mass \(m\) is the same for both particles.


Therefore, \(v^2 \propto R\).


We have the ratio of radii \(\frac{R_1}{R_2} = \frac{3}{4}\).


The ratio of the squares of the velocities must be equal to the ratio of the radii:

\(\frac{v_1^2}{v_2^2} = \frac{R_1}{R_2} = \frac{3}{4}\).


Taking the square root to find the ratio of velocities:

\(\frac{v_1}{v_2} = \sqrt{\frac{3}{4}} = \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\).


The ratio of their velocities is \(\sqrt{3}:2\).
Quick Tip: When force and mass are constant, velocity squared is directly proportional to the radius of curvature (\(v^2 \propto R\)).


Question 42:

A galvanometer having coil resistance \(10 \Omega\) shows a full scale deflection for a current of \(3\) mA. For it to measure a current of \(8\) A, the value of the shunt should be:

  • (1) \(3 \times 10^{-3} \Omega\)
  • (2) \(4.85 \times 10^{-3} \Omega\)
  • (3) \(3.75 \times 10^{-3} \Omega\)
  • (4) \(2.75 \times 10^{-3} \Omega\)
Correct Answer: (3) \(3.75 \times 10^{-3} \Omega\)
View Solution



Given galvanometer resistance \(G = 10 \Omega\).


Full scale deflection current \(I_g = 3 mA = 3 \times 10^{-3} A\).


Desired maximum current to be measured \(I = 8 A\).


The shunt resistance \(S\) is calculated using \(I_g G = (I - I_g) S\).

\(S = \frac{I_g G}{I - I_g}\).


Substitute the values: \(S = \frac{(3 \times 10^{-3})(10)}{8 - 3 \times 10^{-3}}\).


Since \(3 \times 10^{-3}\) is much smaller than 8, we can approximate the denominator as 8.

\(S \approx \frac{30 \times 10^{-3}}{8}\).

\(S \approx 3.75 \times 10^{-3} \Omega\).
Quick Tip: Shunt resistance for ammeter conversion is calculated using \(S = \frac{I_g G}{I - I_g}\). In competitive exams, if \(I_g \ll I\), approximate \(I - I_g \approx I\).


Question 43:

The de-Broglie wavelength of an electron is the same as that of a photon. If the velocity of the electron is \(25%\) of the velocity of light, then the ratio of the K.E. of the electron to the K.E. of the photon will be:

  • (1) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{1}{8}\)
  • (3) \(8:1\)
  • (4) \(\frac{1}{4}\)
Correct Answer: (2) \(\frac{1}{8}\)
View Solution



The de-Broglie wavelength \(\lambda\) is related to momentum \(p\) by \(\lambda = \frac{h}{p}\).


Given \(\lambda_e = \lambda_p\), their momenta must be equal: \(p_e = p_p\).


For the electron, \(v_e = 0.25c = \frac{c}{4}\). The electron momentum is \(p_e = m_e v_e\).


The kinetic energy of the electron is \(KE_e = \frac{1}{2} m_e v_e^2\).

\(KE_e = \frac{1}{2} m_e \left(\frac{c}{4}\right)^2 = \frac{m_e c^2}{32}\).


For the photon, \(KE_p = E_p = p_p c\).


Since \(p_p = p_e\), \(KE_p = p_e c = (m_e v_e) c = m_e \left(\frac{c}{4}\right) c = \frac{m_e c^2}{4}\).


The required ratio is \(\frac{KE_e}{KE_p}\):


Ratio \(= \frac{m_e c^2 / 32}{m_e c^2 / 4} = \frac{4}{32} = \frac{1}{8}\).
Quick Tip: For a photon, \(E = pc\). If \(\lambda_e = \lambda_p\), then \(p_e = p_p\). Use non-relativistic kinetic energy for the electron since \(v \ll c\).


Question 44:

The deflection in a moving coil galvanometer falls from 25 divisions to 5 divisions when a shunt of \(24 \Omega\) is applied. The resistance of the galvanometer coil will be:

  • (1) \(12 \Omega\)
  • (2) \(96 \Omega\)
  • (3) \(48 \Omega\)
  • (4) \(100 \Omega\)
Correct Answer: (2) \(96 \Omega\)
View Solution



Let \(I_{fsd}\) be the current corresponding to the full scale deflection (25 divisions).


When a shunt \(S = 24 \Omega\) is applied, the total current \(I\) entering the circuit is shared, and the current passing through the galvanometer coil \(G\) is reduced to \(I_g\), resulting in 5 divisions of deflection.


We assume that the total current \(I\) applied remains constant throughout the measurement.


Deflection is proportional to current, so \(\frac{I_g}{I} = \frac{5}{25} = \frac{1}{5}\).


The current division formula for the galvanometer current \(I_g\) is:

\(I_g = I \left( \frac{S}{G + S} \right)\).


Substituting the ratios: \(\frac{I_g}{I} = \frac{S}{G + S}\).

\(\frac{1}{5} = \frac{24}{G + 24}\).

\(G + 24 = 5 \times 24 = 120\).

\(G = 120 - 24 = 96 \Omega\).
Quick Tip: If deflection is reduced by a factor \(n\), then \(I_g = I/n\). Use the current division formula \(\frac{I_g}{I} = \frac{S}{G+S}\).


Question 45:

A biconvex lens of refractive index \(1.5\) has a focal length of \(20\) cm in air. Its focal length when immersed in a liquid of refractive index \(1.6\) will be:

  • (1) \(-16\) cm
  • (2) \(-160\) cm
  • (3) \(+160\) cm
  • (4) \(+16\) cm
Correct Answer: (2) \(-160\) cm
View Solution



Refractive index of lens \(n_g = 1.5\). Refractive index of liquid \(n_l = 1.6\).


Focal length in air \(f_a = 20 cm\).


Lens maker's formula in air (\(n_a = 1\)):

\(\frac{1}{f_a} = (n_g - 1) \left(\frac{1}{R_1} - \frac{1}{R_2}\right)\).

\(\frac{1}{20} = (1.5 - 1) C\), where \(C = \left(\frac{1}{R_1} - \frac{1}{R_2}\right)\).

\(C = \frac{1}{20 \times 0.5} = \frac{1}{10}\).


Focal length in liquid \(f_l\):

\(\frac{1}{f_l} = \left(\frac{n_g}{n_l} - 1\right) C\).

\(\frac{1}{f_l} = \left(\frac{1.5}{1.6} - 1\right) \frac{1}{10} = \left(\frac{15}{16} - 1\right) \frac{1}{10}\).

\(\frac{1}{f_l} = \left(-\frac{1}{16}\right) \frac{1}{10} = -\frac{1}{160}\).

\(f_l = -160 cm\). The lens behaves as a diverging lens because \(n_g < n_l\).
Quick Tip: If the refractive index of the surrounding medium is greater than the refractive index of the lens material, the nature of the lens reverses (convex becomes diverging).


Question 46:

A thermodynamic system is taken from an original state A to an intermediate state B by a linear process as shown in the figure. Its volume is then reduced to the original value from B to C by an isobaric process. The total work done by the gas from A to B and B to C would be:

  • (1) 33800 J
  • (2) 2200 J
  • (3) 600 J
  • (4) 1200 J
Correct Answer: \textbf{BONUS}
View Solution




Work done by a gas in any thermodynamic process is equal to the area under the curve on the \(P\)–\(V\) diagram.


The total work done is the sum of the work done in processes \(A \to B\) and \(B \to C\).


Process \(A \to B\):

The process is linear on the \(P\)–\(V\) diagram, so the work done is equal to the area of a trapezium.


If \((P_A, V_A)\) and \((P_B, V_B)\) are the end points, then \[ W_{AB} = \frac{1}{2}(P_A + P_B)(V_B - V_A). \]


Process \(B \to C\):

This is an isobaric process at pressure \(P_B\). The volume is reduced from \(V_B\) to \(V_A\).

\[ W_{BC} = P_B (V_C - V_B) = P_B (V_A - V_B). \]


Since \(V_A < V_B\), this work is negative, indicating work done \emph{on the gas.


Total Work Done:

\[ W_{total} = W_{AB} + W_{BC} \] \[ = \frac{1}{2}(P_A + P_B)(V_B - V_A) + P_B (V_A - V_B). \]


To evaluate the numerical value of the total work, the exact values of \(P_A\), \(P_B\), \(V_A\), and \(V_B\) must be read from the given \(P\)–\(V\) diagram.


Since the required numerical data from the diagram are not explicitly provided in the question text, the total work cannot be uniquely determined from the given information.


Hence, the question is correctly treated as a BONUS question.
Quick Tip: In a \(P\)–\(V\) diagram, work done equals the area under the curve. Linear paths form trapeziums, and isobaric processes form rectangles.


Question 47:

At what distance above and below the surface of the earth a body will have the same weight (take radius of earth as \(R\))?

  • (1) \(\sqrt{5}R - R\)
  • (2) \(\frac{\sqrt{5}R - R}{2}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{R}{2}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{R}{2}(\sqrt{5}-1)\)
Correct Answer: (4) \(\frac{R}{2}(\sqrt{5}-1)\)
View Solution




Let the distance above the earth’s surface be \(h\) and the distance below the surface be \(d\).


Acceleration due to gravity at height \(h\) above the surface is given by:
\(g_h = g_0 \left(1 + \frac{h}{R}\right)^{-2}\).


Acceleration due to gravity at depth \(d\) below the surface is given by:
\(g_d = g_0 \left(1 - \frac{d}{R}\right)\).


The condition for equal weight is \(g_h = g_d\).


Since the distances above and below the surface are the same, let \(h = d\).


Define \(x = \frac{h}{R} = \frac{d}{R}\).


Then the equality condition becomes:
\(\left(1 + x\right)^{-2} = 1 - x\).


Multiplying both sides by \((1+x)^2\):
\(1 = (1 - x)(1 + x)^2\).


Expanding the right-hand side:
\(1 = (1 - x)(1 + 2x + x^2)\).

\(1 = 1 + 2x + x^2 - x - 2x^2 - x^3\).

\(1 = 1 + x - x^2 - x^3\).


Rearranging terms:
\(x^3 + x^2 - x = 0\).


Factoring out \(x\):
\(x(x^2 + x - 1) = 0\).


Since \(x \neq 0\), we solve:
\(x^2 + x - 1 = 0\).


Using the quadratic formula:
\(x = \frac{-1 \pm \sqrt{1 + 4}}{2} = \frac{-1 \pm \sqrt{5}}{2}\).


Taking the positive root (physical solution):
\(x = \frac{\sqrt{5} - 1}{2}\).


Hence, the required distance is:
\(h = Rx = \frac{R}{2}(\sqrt{5}-1)\).
Quick Tip: For gravity problems, remember: above earth \(g \propto \frac{1}{(R+h)^2}\), and below earth \(g \propto (R-d)\).


Question 48:

A capacitor of capacitance \(100 \mu\)F is charged to a potential of \(12\) V and connected to a \(6.4\) mH inductor to produce oscillations. The maximum current in the circuit would be:

  • (1) 3.2 A
  • (2) 1.5 A
  • (3) 2.0 A
  • (4) 1.2 A
Correct Answer: (2) 1.5 A
View Solution



In an LC oscillation circuit, the maximum energy stored in the capacitor is converted into maximum energy stored in the inductor.

\(\frac{1}{2} C V^2 = \frac{1}{2} L I_{max}^2\).

\(I_{max} = V \sqrt{\frac{C}{L}}\).


Given: \(C = 100 \muF = 100 \times 10^{-6} F\).

\(V = 12 V\).

\(L = 6.4 mH = 6.4 \times 10^{-3} H\).

\(I_{max} = 12 \sqrt{\frac{100 \times 10^{-6}}{6.4 \times 10^{-3}}} = 12 \sqrt{\frac{100 \times 10^{-3}}{6.4}}\).

\(I_{max} = 12 \sqrt{\frac{100}{6400}} = 12 \sqrt{\frac{1}{64}}\).

\(I_{max} = 12 \times \frac{1}{8} = \frac{3}{2} = 1.5 A\).
Quick Tip: The maximum current in an LC circuit is found by energy conservation: \(I_{max} = V \sqrt{C/L}\).


Question 49:

The explosive in a Hydrogen bomb is a mixture of \({}_1H^2, {}_1H^3\), and \({}_3Li^6\) in some condensed form. The chain reaction is given by
\({}_3Li^6 + {}_0n^1 \to {}_2He^4 + {}_1H^3\)
\({}_1H^2 + {}_1H^3 \to {}_2He^4 + {}_0n^1\)

During the explosion, the energy released is approximately

  • (1) 28.12 MeV
  • (2) 12.64 MeV
  • (3) 16.48 MeV
  • (4) 22.22 MeV
Correct Answer: (4) 22.22 MeV
View Solution



The chain reaction components provided combine to give the net reaction.


Reaction 1: \({}_3Li^6 + {}_0n^1 \to {}_2He^4 + {}_1H^3\) (Tritium production, \(E_1\))


Reaction 2: \({}_1H^2 + {}_1H^3 \to {}_2He^4 + {}_0n^1\) (Deuterium-Tritium fusion, \(E_2\))


Summing the two reactions (R1 + R2) and canceling \({}_0n^1\) and \({}_1H^3\):


Net Reaction: \({}_3Li^6 + {}_1H^2 \to 2 {}_2He^4\).


We use standard atomic masses:

\(M({}_3Li^6) \approx 6.01512 u\)

\(M({}_1H^2) \approx 2.01410 u\)

\(M({}_2He^4) \approx 4.00260 u\)


Initial Mass \(M_i = M({}_3Li^6) + M({}_1H^2) = 6.01512 + 2.01410 = 8.02922 u\).


Final Mass \(M_f = 2 \times M({}_2He^4) = 2 \times 4.00260 = 8.00520 u\).


Mass defect \(\Delta M = M_i - M_f = 8.02922 - 8.00520 = 0.02402 u\).


Energy released \(E = \Delta M \times 931.5 MeV/u\).

\(E = 0.02402 \times 931.5 \approx 22.37 MeV\).


This approximation matches \(22.22 MeV\) (Option 4).
Quick Tip: To find the net energy released in a fusion chain, write the overall reaction, calculate the mass defect \((\Delta M)\), and use \(E = \Delta M \cdot 931.5 MeV/u\).


Question 50:

Two vessels A and B are of the same size and are at the same temperature. A contains \(1\) g of hydrogen and B contains \(1\) g of oxygen. \(P_A\) and \(P_B\) are the pressures of the gases in A and B respectively, then \(\frac{P_A}{P_B}\) is:

  • (1) 16
  • (2) 8
  • (3) 4
  • (4) 32
Correct Answer: (1) 16
View Solution



For ideal gases, \(PV = nRT\). Since \(V\) and \(T\) are the same for both vessels, \(P \propto n\) (number of moles).

\(P_A\) is the pressure of Hydrogen (\(H_2\)). Molar mass \(M_A = 2 g/mol\). Mass \(m_A = 1 g\).

\(n_A = \frac{m_A}{M_A} = \frac{1}{2} mol\).

\(P_B\) is the pressure of Oxygen (\(O_2\)). Molar mass \(M_B = 32 g/mol\). Mass \(m_B = 1 g\).

\(n_B = \frac{m_B}{M_B} = \frac{1}{32} mol\).


The ratio of pressures is the ratio of moles:

\(\frac{P_A}{P_B} = \frac{n_A}{n_B} = \frac{1/2}{1/32}\).

\(\frac{P_A}{P_B} = \frac{32}{2} = 16\).
Quick Tip: At constant Volume and Temperature, pressure is directly proportional to the number of moles. Always use the molar mass of the gaseous molecules (\(H_2\) and \(O_2\)).


Question 51:

When a hydrogen atom going from \(n = 2\) to \(n = 1\) emits a photon, its recoil speed is \(\frac{x}{3}\) m/s. (Mass of hydrogen atom \(= 1.6 \times 10^{-27}\) kg)

Correct Answer: 17
View Solution



Energy of photon emitted in \(n=2 \to 1\) transition: \[ E = 13.6\left(1-\frac{1}{4}\right) = 10.2~eV \] \[ E = 10.2 \times 1.6 \times 10^{-19} = 1.63 \times 10^{-18} J \]
Momentum of photon: \[ p = \frac{E}{c} \]
By conservation of momentum, recoil speed of atom: \[ v = \frac{p}{M} = \frac{E}{Mc} \] \[ v = \frac{1.63 \times 10^{-18}}{(1.6 \times 10^{-27})(3 \times 10^8)} = \frac{17}{3} m/s \]
Hence, \(x = 17\).
Quick Tip: Photon recoil problems use conservation of momentum: \(v = \frac{E}{Mc}\).


Question 52:

A ball rolls off the top of a stairway with horizontal velocity \(u\). Each step has height and width \(0.1\) m. The minimum velocity to just hit step 5 is \(\sqrt{x}\) m/s.

Correct Answer: 2
View Solution



For a projectile to just hit the \(n^{th}\) step: \[ u^2 = \frac{g n w^2}{2h} \]
Here \(w = h = 0.1\) m and \(g = 10\) m/s\(^2\): \[ u^2 = \frac{10 n (0.1)^2}{2(0.1)} = 0.5n \]
For minimum velocity, \(n = 4\): \[ u^2 = 2 \Rightarrow u = \sqrt{2} \]
Hence, \(x = 2\).
Quick Tip: For staircase projectile motion with equal step height and width: \(u^2 = \frac{gn}{2}\).


Question 53:

A square loop of side \(10\) cm and resistance \(0.7\,\Omega\) is placed vertically in the east-west plane. A uniform magnetic field of \(0.20\) T is set up in the northeast direction and is reduced to zero uniformly in \(1\) s. The induced emf is \(\sqrt{x}\times10^{-3}\) V. Find \(x\).

Correct Answer: 2
View Solution



Side \(a = 0.1\) m, area \(A = a^2 = 0.01\) m\(^2\).

Angle between area vector (north) and magnetic field (northeast) is \(45^\circ\).

Rate of change of magnetic field: \[ \left|\frac{dB}{dt}\right| = \frac{0.20}{1} = 0.20 T/s \]
Induced emf: \[ \mathcal{E} = A \cos\theta \left|\frac{dB}{dt}\right| = 0.01 \times \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \times 0.20 \] \[ \mathcal{E} = \frac{2}{\sqrt{2}}\times10^{-3} = \sqrt{2}\times10^{-3} V \]
Hence, \(x = 2\).
Quick Tip: Only the perpendicular component of magnetic field contributes to magnetic flux.


Question 54:

A solid cylinder rolls down an inclined plane of angle \(60^\circ\). Its acceleration is \(\frac{x}{5}\sqrt{3}\) m/s\(^2\). Find \(x\).

Correct Answer: 10
View Solution



For rolling without slipping: \[ a = \frac{g\sin\theta}{1+\frac{I}{MR^2}} \]
For solid cylinder, \(\frac{I}{MR^2} = \frac{1}{2}\).
\[ a = \frac{10(\sqrt{3}/2)}{1+\frac{1}{2}} = \frac{10\sqrt{3}}{3} \]
Given: \[ \frac{x}{5}\sqrt{3} = \frac{10\sqrt{3}}{5} \] \[ x = 10 \] Quick Tip: Acceleration of rolling bodies depends on moment of inertia.


Question 55:

Magnetic potential on the axis of a magnetic dipole at \(20\) cm is \(1.5\times10^{-7}\) Tm. Find the magnetic moment in the form \(x\times10^{-2}\) A m\(^2\).

Correct Answer: 6
View Solution



Magnetic scalar potential: \[ V = \frac{\mu_0}{4\pi}\frac{M}{r^2} \] \[ M = \frac{Vr^2}{\mu_0/4\pi} \] \[ M = \frac{(1.5\times10^{-7})(0.2)^2}{10^{-7}} = 0.06 A m^2 \] \[ M = 6\times10^{-2} A m^2 \]
Hence, \(x = 6\).
Quick Tip: Magnetic scalar potential varies inversely with square of distance.


Question 56:

In a Young's double slit experiment, light of wavelength \(400\) nm produces a dark fringe at point \(P\). If \(D=0.2\) m, find the minimum slit separation \(x\) mm.

Correct Answer: 0.20
View Solution



For first dark fringe: \[ y = \frac{\lambda D}{2d} \]
For minimum slit separation, \(y=d\): \[ d^2 = \frac{\lambda D}{2} \] \[ d = \sqrt{\frac{(4\times10^{-7})(0.2)}{2}} = 2\times10^{-4} m \] \[ d = 0.20 mm \]
Hence, \(x = 0.20\).
Quick Tip: First dark fringe occurs at path difference \(\lambda/2\).


Question 57:

A \(16\Omega\) wire is bent into a square. A \(9\) V battery of internal resistance \(1\Omega\) is connected across one side. A \(4\mu\)F capacitor is connected across a diagonal. Find stored energy \(\frac{x}{2}\mu\)J.

Correct Answer: 81
View Solution



Each side resistance \(=4\Omega\).

Equivalent resistance of square \(=3\Omega\).

Total resistance \(=4\Omega\).

Current: \[ I = \frac{9}{4} \]
Voltage across square: \[ V = \frac{27}{4} V \]
Voltage across diagonal \(= \frac{9}{2}\) V.

Energy stored: \[ E = \frac{1}{2}CV^2 = \frac{1}{2}(4\times10^{-6})\left(\frac{9}{2}\right)^2 = \frac{81}{2}\muJ \]
Hence, \(x = 81\).
Quick Tip: In DC steady state, capacitor acts as open circuit.


Question 58:

In SHM, displacement is one-third of amplitude. Ratio of total energy to kinetic energy is \(\frac{x}{8}\). Find \(x\).

Correct Answer: 9
View Solution


\[ KE = E\left(1-\frac{y^2}{A^2}\right) \] \[ KE = E\left(1-\frac{1}{9}\right)=\frac{8E}{9} \] \[ \frac{E}{KE}=\frac{9}{8} \]
Hence, \(x=9\).
Quick Tip: Kinetic energy in SHM depends on displacement from mean position.


Question 59:

An electron moves under electric field of infinite plane sheet. If it reaches the sheet in \(1\) s, find \(\alpha\) in \(\sigma=\alpha\frac{m\epsilon_0}{e}\).

Correct Answer: 8
View Solution



Electric field: \[ E=\frac{\sigma}{2\epsilon_0} \]
Acceleration: \[ a=\frac{e\sigma}{2m\epsilon_0} \]
Using \(s=ut+\frac{1}{2}at^2\): \[ 0=1+1-\frac{1}{2}a \Rightarrow a=4 \] \[ \sigma=\frac{8m\epsilon_0}{e} \]
Hence, \(\alpha=8\).
Quick Tip: Electric field due to infinite sheet is uniform.


Question 60:

Air speeds on upper and lower surfaces of aircraft wing are \(70\) m/s and \(65\) m/s respectively. Wing area \(=2\) m\(^2\). Find lift force.

Correct Answer: 810 N
View Solution



Pressure difference: \[ \Delta P=\frac{1}{2}\rho(v_U^2-v_L^2) \] \[ \Delta P=0.6(70^2-65^2)=405 Pa \]
Lift force: \[ F=\Delta P \times A = 405\times2 = 810 N \] Quick Tip: Lift arises due to pressure difference explained by Bernoulli’s principle.


Question 61:

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:

Assertion A: The first ionisation enthalpy decreases across a period.

Reason R: The increasing nuclear charge outweighs the shielding across the period.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate option.

  • (1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
  • (2) A is true but R is false
  • (3) A is false but R is true
  • (4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
Correct Answer: (3) A is false but R is true
View Solution



Step 1: Analyse Assertion A

Across a period, electrons are added to the same principal shell while nuclear charge increases.

This increases effective nuclear charge and decreases atomic radius.

Hence, more energy is required to remove an electron.

Therefore, first ionisation enthalpy increases across a period.

Assertion A is false.


Step 2: Analyse Reason R

Across a period, shielding effect remains nearly constant.

Increase in nuclear charge is the dominant factor.

Thus, increasing nuclear charge outweighs shielding.

Reason R is true.


Step 3: Conclusion

Assertion is false and Reason is true.

Hence, option (3) is correct.
Quick Tip: Across a period: nuclear charge \(\uparrow\), atomic size \(\downarrow\), ionisation enthalpy \(\uparrow\).


Question 62:

Match List I with List II.

  • (1) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
  • (2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
  • (3) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
  • (4) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
Correct Answer: (4) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
View Solution



Step 1: Ziegler–Natta catalyst

Used in polymerisation of alkenes.

Contains titanium compounds such as \(TiCl_4\).

Hence, A \(\rightarrow\) IV.


Step 2: Blood pigment

Blood pigment is haemoglobin.

Central metal ion present is iron (Fe).

Hence, B \(\rightarrow\) III.


Step 3: Wilkinson catalyst

Chemical formula: \(RhCl(PPh_3)_3\).

Central metal ion is rhodium.

Hence, C \(\rightarrow\) I.


Step 4: Vitamin \(B_{12}\)

Also called cyanocobalamin.

Contains cobalt at the centre.

Hence, D \(\rightarrow\) II.


Final matching: A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II.
Quick Tip: Key metal ions: Hemoglobin \(\to\) Fe, Vitamin \(B_{12} \to\) Co, Wilkinson catalyst \(\to\) Rh.


Question 63:

In chromyl chloride test, blue colour due to chromium pentoxide is obtained. Find oxidation state of chromium.

  • (1) \(+6\)
  • (2) \(+5\)
  • (3) \(+10\)
  • (4) \(+3\)
Correct Answer: (1) \(+6\)
View Solution



Step 1: Identify compound

Blue colour is due to chromium pentoxide, \(CrO_5\).


Step 2: Assign oxidation states

In \(CrO_5\):

One oxygen is double bonded (oxidation state \(-2\)).

Four oxygens form two peroxide linkages (each oxygen \(-1\)).


Step 3: Calculate oxidation state

Let oxidation state of chromium = \(x\).
\[ x + (-2) + 4(-1) = 0 \] \[ x - 6 = 0 \Rightarrow x = +6 \]


Step 4: Conclusion

Oxidation state of chromium is \(+6\).
Quick Tip: In peroxide linkage, oxidation state of oxygen is always \(-1\).


Question 64:

Difference in energy between actual structure and lowest energy resonance structure is called

  • (1) electromeric energy
  • (2) resonance energy
  • (3) ionization energy
  • (4) hyperconjugation energy
Correct Answer: (2) resonance energy
View Solution



Step 1: Understand resonance

Resonating molecules cannot be represented by a single structure.


Step 2: Actual structure

The real molecule is a resonance hybrid and is more stable.


Step 3: Definition

Resonance energy is the energy difference between:

– Actual (resonance hybrid) structure

– Most stable canonical structure


Step 4: Conclusion

Hence, the correct term is resonance energy.
Quick Tip: Greater resonance energy means greater stability of the molecule.


Question 65:

Statements related to electronegativity trend in Group 14 are given. Choose the correct option.

  • (1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  • (2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
Correct Answer: (1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
View Solution



Step 1: List Group 14 elements

C, Si, Ge, Sn, Pb


Step 2: Analyse Statement I

Electronegativity values:

Si (1.90), Ge (2.01), Sn (1.96), Pb (2.00).

Trend is irregular due to poor shielding by \(d\) and \(f\) electrons.

Hence, electronegativity does not gradually decrease.

Statement I is false.


Step 3: Analyse Statement II

C is non-metal.

Si, Ge are metalloids.

Sn, Pb are metals.

Thus, Statement II is true.


Step 4: Conclusion

Statement I is false and Statement II is true.
Quick Tip: Poor shielding by \(d\) and \(f\) orbitals causes anomalies in periodic trends.


Question 66:

The correct set of four quantum numbers for the valence electron of rubidium atom (\(Z = 37\)) is:

  • (1) \(5, 0, 0, +\frac{1}{2}\)
  • (2) \(5, 0, 1, +\frac{1}{2}\)
  • (3) \(5, 1, 0, +\frac{1}{2}\)
  • (4) \(5, 1, 1, +\frac{1}{2}\)
Correct Answer: (1) \(5, 0, 0, +\frac{1}{2}\)
View Solution



Step 1: Electronic configuration

Rubidium (\(Z=37\)) has electronic configuration: \[ [Kr]\,5s^1 \]

Step 2: Identify valence electron

The valence electron is present in the \(5s\) orbital.

Step 3: Assign quantum numbers

Principal quantum number: \(n = 5\)

Azimuthal quantum number for \(s\) orbital: \(l = 0\)

Magnetic quantum number: \(m_l = 0\)

Spin quantum number: \(m_s = +\frac{1}{2}\)


Step 4: Conclusion

Correct set is \((5,0,0,+\frac{1}{2})\).
Quick Tip: For \(s\)-orbitals: \(l=0\) and \(m_l=0\) always.


Question 67:

The major product (P) in the reaction of \(p\)-ethoxystyrene with excess conc. HBr and heat is:


Correct Answer: \(p\)-bromoethylbenzene
View Solution



Step 1: Nature of functional groups

The compound contains:

An alkyl aryl ether (\(Ar–O–Et\))
A vinyl group (\(–CH=CH_2\))


Step 2: Reaction with excess conc. HBr

Under excess HBr and heat:

Alkyl aryl ethers undergo cleavage at the \(O–Et\) bond
The ethoxy group is removed


Step 3: Addition to alkene

HBr adds across the vinyl group following Markovnikov’s rule: \[ –CH=CH_2 \rightarrow –CH_2CH_3 \]

Step 4: Final product

After ether cleavage and alkene addition, the major stable product is: \[ p-bromoethylbenzene \]

Step 5: Conclusion

Hence, option (4) is correct.
Quick Tip: Alkyl aryl ethers cleave at the alkyl–oxygen bond in presence of excess HX.


Question 68:

The arenium ion which is not involved in the bromination of aniline is:

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)
Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution



Step 1: Nature of substituent

Aniline contains \(-NH_2\), a strong activating and ortho/para directing group.

Step 2: Orientation in EAS

Electrophilic substitution occurs at ortho and para positions.

Step 3: Arenium ion stability

For ortho/para attack, resonance structures place the positive charge on the carbon bearing \(-NH_2\), allowing lone pair donation and stabilization.


Step 4: Eliminate incorrect intermediate

Structure (3) corresponds to meta attack, where no such resonance stabilization is possible.


Step 5: Conclusion

Hence, structure (3) is not involved.
Quick Tip: Strong activating groups stabilize ortho/para \(\sigma\)-complexes via resonance.


Question 69:

Blood red colour with \(FeSO_4\) and conc. \(H_2SO_4\) indicates presence of:

  • (1) \(Br\)
  • (2) \(N\)
  • (3) \(N\) and \(S\)
  • (4) \(S\)
Correct Answer: (3) \(\text{N}\) and \(\text{S}\)
View Solution



Step 1: Sodium fusion

Nitrogen and sulphur together form sodium thiocyanate: \[ NaSCN \]

Step 2: Reaction with \(FeSO_4\)
\(SCN^-\) reacts with \(Fe^{3+}\) formed during acidification.


Step 3: Formation of complex
\[ Fe^{3+} + SCN^- \rightarrow [Fe(SCN)]^{2+} \]

Step 4: Observation

Ferric thiocyanate gives blood red colour.

Step 5: Conclusion

Presence of both N and S is confirmed.
Quick Tip: Blood red colour in Lassaigne’s test confirms N and S together.


Question 70:

Assertion–Reason on preparation of aryl halides from phenols.

  • (1) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
  • (2) A is false but R is true
  • (3) A is true but R is false
  • (4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
Correct Answer: (3) A is true but R is false
View Solution



Step 1: Analyse Assertion

Phenols do not undergo replacement of \(-OH\) by halogen due to partial double bond character of \(C–O\) bond.

Assertion A is true.


Step 2: Analyse Reason

Phenols do not react violently with halogen acids.

Reaction with HX is difficult and requires harsh conditions.

Reason R is false.


Step 3: Conclusion

Assertion is true but Reason is false.
Quick Tip: Resonance in phenol strengthens the \(C–O\) bond, preventing substitution.


Question 71:

Identify product A and product B:

Cyclohexane reacts with \(Cl_2\) under \(h\nu\) to give product A and with \(Cl_2/CCl_4\) (dark) to give product B.


  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)
Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution



Step 1: Reaction under light

Cyclohexane is an alkane.

In presence of light (\(h\nu\)), chlorine reacts via free radical substitution.


Step 2: Product A

One hydrogen is replaced by chlorine: \[ Cyclohexane \xrightarrow{Cl_2,h\nu} Chlorocyclohexane \]

Step 3: Reaction in \(CCl_4\) (dark)
\(Cl_2/CCl_4\) (dark) represents electrophilic addition to a double bond.


Step 4: Product B

Addition of \(Cl_2\) across a C=C bond gives a vicinal dihalide: \[ Cyclohexene \xrightarrow{Cl_2/CCl_4} 1,2-dichlorocyclohexane \]

Step 5: Conclusion

Product A = Chlorocyclohexane

Product B = 1,2-dichlorocyclohexane

Hence, option (4) is correct.
Quick Tip: Alkanes undergo substitution under \(h\nu\), while alkenes undergo addition with \(Cl_2/CCl_4\).


Question 72:

Identify the incorrect pair from the following:

  • (1) Fluorspar – \(BF_3\)
  • (2) Cryolite – \(Na_3AlF_6\)
  • (3) Fluoroapatite – \(3Ca_3(PO_4)_2\cdotCaF_2\)
  • (4) Carnallite – \(KCl\cdotMgCl_2\cdot6H_2O\)
Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution



Step 1: Fluorspar

Fluorspar (fluorite) has formula \(CaF_2\).
\(BF_3\) is boron trifluoride, not fluorspar.


Step 2: Check remaining options

Cryolite, Fluoroapatite and Carnallite have correct formulas.


Step 3: Conclusion

Hence, option (1) is incorrect.
Quick Tip: Fluorspar is calcium fluoride, \(CaF_2\).


Question 73:

The interaction between a \(\pi\) bond and a lone pair of electrons on an adjacent atom is responsible for

  • (1) Hyperconjugation
  • (2) Inductive effect
  • (3) Electromeric effect
  • (4) Resonance effect
Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution



Step 1: Lone pair interaction

Lone pair interacting with adjacent \(\pi\) bond causes electron delocalization.


Step 2: Identify effect

This delocalization produces multiple resonance structures.


Step 3: Eliminate others

Hyperconjugation involves \(\sigma\) electrons.

Inductive effect involves \(\sigma\) bond polarization.

Electromeric effect is temporary.


Step 4: Conclusion

Hence, resonance effect is responsible.
Quick Tip: Lone pair participation with \(\pi\) bond always indicates resonance.


Question 74:

\(KMnO_4\) decomposes on heating at \(513\) K to form \(O_2\) along with

  • (1) \(MnO_2\) and \(K_2O_2\)
  • (2) \(K_2MnO_4\) and \(Mn\)
  • (3) \(Mn\) and \(KO_2\)
  • (4) \(K_2MnO_4\) and \(MnO_2\)
Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution



Step 1: Thermal decomposition

Potassium permanganate decomposes on heating.

Step 2: Reaction
\[ 2KMnO_4 \xrightarrow{\Delta} K_2MnO_4 + MnO_2 + O_2 \]

Step 3: Conclusion

Products formed along with oxygen are \(K_2MnO_4\) and \(MnO_2\).
Quick Tip: \(KMnO_4\) decomposes to manganate and \(MnO_2\) on heating.


Question 75:

In which metal carbonyl does CO act as a bridging ligand?

  • (1) \([Co_2(CO)_8]\)
  • (2) \([Mn_2(CO)_{10}]\)
  • (3) \([Os_3(CO)_{12}]\)
  • (4) \([Ru_3(CO)_{12}]\)
Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution



Step 1: Bridging CO

A bridging CO is shared between two metal atoms.


Step 2: Check options
\([Mn_2(CO)_{10}]\) has only terminal CO.
\([Os_3(CO)_{12}]\) and \([Ru_3(CO)_{12}]\) have terminal CO ligands.


Step 3: Correct compound
\([Co_2(CO)_8]\) contains two bridging CO ligands.

Step 4: Conclusion

Hence, option (1) is correct.
Quick Tip: Bridging CO ligands are common in cobalt carbonyls.


Question 76:

Type of amino acids obtained by hydrolysis of proteins is:

  • (1) \(\beta\)
  • (2) \(\alpha\)
  • (3) \(\delta\)
  • (4) \(\gamma\)
Correct Answer: (2) \(\alpha\)
View Solution



Step 1: Nature of proteins

Proteins are polymers made up of amino acids joined by peptide bonds.


Step 2: Structure of protein amino acids

In proteins, the amino group (\(-NH_2\)) is attached to the \(\alpha\)-carbon, which is the carbon adjacent to the carboxyl group (\(-COOH\)).

Step 3: Hydrolysis

On hydrolysis, proteins break into their constituent amino acids without change in carbon skeleton.


Step 4: Conclusion

Thus, amino acids obtained are \(\alpha\)-amino acids.
Quick Tip: All natural amino acids in proteins are \(\alpha\)-amino acids (proline is an imino acid).


Question 77:

The final product A formed in the following multistep reaction is:


  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)
Correct Answer: (1) Cyclohexane
View Solution



Step 1: Identify key reagent
\(H_2N–NH_2\), KOH, heat is Wolf–Kishner reduction.


Step 2: Function of Wolf–Kishner reduction

It reduces carbonyl group (\(C=O\)) of aldehydes or ketones to methylene group (\(CH_2\)).


Step 3: Starting compound

Cyclohexanone is a ketone.


Step 4: Final transformation

Cyclohexanone \(\xrightarrow{Wolf–Kishner}\) Cyclohexane.


Step 5: Conclusion

Final product A is cyclohexane.
Quick Tip: Wolf–Kishner and Clemmensen reductions both convert \(C=O\) to \(CH_2\).


Question 78:

Which of the following is not correct?

  • (1) \(\Delta G < 0\) for a spontaneous reaction
  • (2) \(\Delta G > 0\) for a spontaneous reaction
  • (3) \(\Delta G = 0\) for a reversible reaction
  • (4) \(\Delta G > 0\) for a non-spontaneous reaction
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution



Step 1: Gibbs free energy criterion
\(\Delta G\) determines spontaneity at constant \(T\) and \(P\).


Step 2: Analyse options
\(\Delta G < 0\) : spontaneous (correct).
\(\Delta G = 0\) : equilibrium (correct).
\(\Delta G > 0\) : non-spontaneous (correct).

Step 3: Identify incorrect statement

Statement (2) claims \(\Delta G > 0\) for spontaneous reaction, which is incorrect.

Step 4: Conclusion

Option (2) is not correct.
Quick Tip: Spontaneity depends on sign of \(\Delta G\), not on reaction speed.


Question 79:

Chlorine undergoes disproportionation in alkaline medium. Find values of \(a,b,c,d\).

Correct Answer: 1
View Solution



Step 1: Nature of reaction

Chlorine undergoes disproportionation in cold dilute alkali.


Step 2: Balanced reaction
\[ Cl_2 + 2OH^- \rightarrow ClO^- + Cl^- + H_2O \]

Step 3: Identify coefficients
\(a=1,\; b=2,\; c=1,\; d=1\).


Step 4: Conclusion

Correct option is (1).
Quick Tip: Cold alkali gives hypohalite; hot concentrated alkali gives halate.


Question 80:

In alkaline medium, \(MnO_4^-\) oxidises \(I^-\) to:

  • (1) \(IO_4^-\)
  • (2) \(IO^-\)
  • (3) \(I_2\)
  • (4) \(IO_3^-\)
Correct Answer: (4) \(\text{IO}_3^-\)
View Solution



Step 1: Behaviour of permanganate in alkaline medium
\(MnO_4^-\) is reduced to \(MnO_2\) in alkaline medium.


Step 2: Oxidation of iodide

Iodide ion (\(-1\)) is oxidized to iodate ion (\(+5\)).


Step 3: Net reaction
\[ 2MnO_4^- + I^- + H_2O \rightarrow 2MnO_2 + IO_3^- + 2OH^- \]

Step 4: Conclusion
\(I^-\) is oxidized to \(IO_3^-\).
Quick Tip: In alkaline medium, permanganate gives \(MnO_2\) and oxidizes halides to oxyanions.


Question 81:

Number of compounds with one lone pair of electrons on central atom amongst following is:

\(O_{3}\), \(H_{2}O\), \(SF_{4}\), \(ClF_{3}\), \(NH_{3}\), \(BrF_{5}\), \(XeF_{4}\)

  • (1) 2
  • (2) 3
  • (3) 5
  • (4) 4
Correct Answer: (4) 4
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The number of lone pairs on the central atom is determined using VSEPR theory.

Lone Pairs (LP) = \(\frac{1}{2} [V - B]\), where \(V\) is valence electrons and \(B\) is the number of electrons used in bonding.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Evaluating each species:

1. \(\mathbf{O_{3}}\) (Ozone): The central oxygen forms one double bond and one dative bond, leaving 1 lone pair.

2. \(\mathbf{H_{2}O}\): Oxygen has 6 valence electrons; 2 used for bonding with H. \(LP = (6-2)/2 = 2\).

3. \(\mathbf{SF_{4}}\): Sulfur has 6 valence electrons; 4 used for bonding with F. \(LP = (6-4)/2 = 1\).

4. \(\mathbf{ClF_{3}}\): Chlorine has 7 valence electrons; 3 used for bonding with F. \(LP = (7-3)/2 = 2\).

5. \(\mathbf{NH_{3}}\): Nitrogen has 5 valence electrons; 3 used for bonding with H. \(LP = (5-3)/2 = 1\).

6. \(\mathbf{BrF_{5}}\): Bromine has 7 valence electrons; 5 used for bonding with F. \(LP = (7-5)/2 = 1\).

7. \(\mathbf{XeF_{4}}\): Xenon has 8 valence electrons; 4 used for bonding with F. \(LP = (8-4)/2 = 2\).


Step 3: Final Answer:

Compounds with 1 lone pair: \(O_{3}\), \(SF_{4}\), \(NH_{3}\), and \(BrF_{5}\).

Total count = 4.
Quick Tip: For quick calculations: \(LP = \frac{Valence electrons - Valency of surrounding atoms}{2}\).
Oxygen as a surrounding atom in neutral molecules acts as a divalent atom.


Question 82:

The mass of zinc produced by the electrolysis of zinc sulphate solution with a steady current of 0.015 A for 15 minutes is \dots \(\times 10^{-4}\) g.

(Atomic mass of zinc = 65.4 amu)

  • (1) 45.75
  • (2) 46
  • (3) 45
  • (4) 47
Correct Answer: (1) 45.75
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The mass of a substance deposited during electrolysis is given by Faraday's first law: \(w = ZIt\).


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
\[ w = \frac{E \cdot I \cdot t}{F} \]
Where \(E\) is the equivalent weight, \(I\) is current, \(t\) is time in seconds, and \(F\) is Faraday's constant (\(96500 C/mol\)).


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:
For \(Zn^{2+}\), the n-factor is 2.

Equivalent mass of Zn (\(E\)) = \(\frac{65.4}{2} = 32.7\).

Current (\(I\)) = 0.015 A.

Time (\(t\)) = \(15 \times 60 = 900\) seconds.
\[ w = \frac{32.7 \times 0.015 \times 900}{96500} \] \[ w = \frac{441.45}{96500} \approx 0.0045746 g \] \[ w = 45.746 \times 10^{-4} g \]
Rounding off gives 45.75.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The mass produced is \(45.75 \times 10^{-4}\) g.
Quick Tip: Always double-check the time unit. Minutes must be converted to seconds to match the SI unit of Charge (\(C = A \times s\)).


Question 83:

For a reaction taking place in three steps at the same temperature, the overall rate constant \(K = \frac{k_{1}k_{2}}{k_{3}}\). If \(E_{a1}\), \(E_{a2}\), and \(E_{a3}\) are 40, 50, and 60 kJ/mol respectively, the overall \(E_{a}\) is \dots kJ/mol.

  • (1) 20
  • (2) 40
  • (3) 30
  • (4) 50
Correct Answer: (3) 30
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

According to the Arrhenius equation, \(k = A e^{-E_{a}/RT}\).


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

For an expression \(K = \frac{k_{1}k_{2}}{k_{3}}\), the composite activation energy is:
\[ E_{a} = E_{a1} + E_{a2} - E_{a3} \]

Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

Taking natural logs of the expression:
\[ \ln K = \ln k_{1} + \ln k_{2} - \ln k_{3} \]
Differentiating with respect to Temperature (\(T\)) and using the Arrhenius form \(\frac{d(\ln k)}{dT} = \frac{E_{a}}{RT^{2}}\):
\[ \frac{E_{a}}{RT^{2}} = \frac{E_{a1}}{RT^{2}} + \frac{E_{a2}}{RT^{2}} - \frac{E_{a3}}{RT^{2}} \] \[ E_{a} = E_{a1} + E_{a2} - E_{a3} \]
Substituting values:
\[ E_{a} = 40 + 50 - 60 = 30 kJ/mol \]

Step 4: Final Answer:

The overall activation energy is 30 kJ/mol.
Quick Tip: For overall rate constants, powers become coefficients for \(E_{a}\). Multiplication of \(k\)'s leads to addition of \(E_{a}\)'s, and division leads to subtraction.


Question 84:

For the reaction \(N_{2}O_{4}(g) \rightleftharpoons 2NO_{2}(g)\), \(K_{p} = 0.492\) atm at 300K. \(K_{c}\) for the reaction at the same temperature is \dots \(\times 10^{-2}\). (Given: \(R = 0.082 L atm mol^{-1} K^{-1}\))

  • (1) 1
  • (2) 2
  • (3) 3
  • (4) 4
Correct Answer: (2) 2
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The relationship between pressure-based and concentration-based equilibrium constants is defined by the gas constant and temperature.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
\[ K_{p} = K_{c}(RT)^{\Delta n_{g}} \]

Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

For \(N_{2}O_{4}(g) \rightleftharpoons 2NO_{2}(g)\):
\(\Delta n_{g} = 2 (product) - 1 (reactant) = 1\).

Given: \(K_{p} = 0.492\), \(R = 0.082\), \(T = 300\).
\[ 0.492 = K_{c}(0.082 \times 300)^{1} \] \[ 0.492 = K_{c} \times 24.6 \] \[ K_{c} = \frac{0.492}{24.6} = 0.02 \] \[ K_{c} = 2 \times 10^{-2} \]

Step 4: Final Answer:

The value for the blank is 2.
Quick Tip: Note that \(\Delta n_{g}\) only counts gaseous species. If \(\Delta n_{g} = 0\), then \(K_{p} = K_{c}\).


Question 85:

A solution of \(H_{2}SO_{4}\) is 31.4% \(H_{2}SO_{4}\) by mass and has a density of 1.25 g/mL. The molarity of the \(H_{2}SO_{4}\) solution is \dots M (nearest integer). (Given molar mass of \(H_{2}SO_{4} = 98 g mol^{-1}\))

  • (1) 3
  • (2) 5
  • (3) 6
  • (4) 4
Correct Answer: (4) 4
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Molarity (\(M\)) is the moles of solute per liter of solution.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
\[ Molarity = \frac{% by mass \times density \times 10}{Molar mass of solute} \]

Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

Given: \(x = 31.4%\), \(d = 1.25 g/mL\), \(M_{w} = 98 g/mol\).
\[ M = \frac{31.4 \times 1.25 \times 10}{98} \] \[ M = \frac{392.5}{98} \approx 4.005 \]
The nearest integer is 4.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The molarity is 4 M.
Quick Tip: Derived from: \(M = \frac{w_{2} \times 1000}{M_{2} \times V_{soln}} \). If you assume 100 g solution, mass of solute = \(x\) g and volume = \(100/d\) mL. Plugging these in yields the \(\frac{10xd}{M_{w}}\) formula.


Question 86:

The osmotic pressure of a dilute solution is \(7 \times 10^{5}\) Pa at 273 K. Osmotic pressure of the same solution at 283 K is \dots \(\times 10^{4} Nm^{-2}\).

  • (1) 72.56
  • (2) 73
  • (3) Approximate
  • (4) None of these
Correct Answer: (1) 72.56
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Osmotic pressure (\(\pi\)) of a dilute solution follows \(\pi = CRT\). For the same solution, \(\pi \propto T\).


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
\[ \frac{\pi_{1}}{T_{1}} = \frac{\pi_{2}}{T_{2}} \]

Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

Given: \(\pi_{1} = 7 \times 10^{5} Pa\), \(T_{1} = 273 K\), \(T_{2} = 283 K\).
\[ \pi_{2} = \pi_{1} \times \frac{T_{2}}{T_{1}} \] \[ \pi_{2} = 7 \times 10^{5} \times \frac{283}{273} \approx 7.2564 \times 10^{5} Pa \]
Since \(1 Pa = 1 Nm^{-2}\):
\[ \pi_{2} = 72.564 \times 10^{4} Nm^{-2} \]

Step 4: Final Answer:

The osmotic pressure is \(72.56 \times 10^{4} Nm^{-2}\).
Quick Tip: Ensure the units on both sides are consistent. The factor of 10 difference between \(10^{5}\) and \(10^{4}\) often confuses students; always calculate the full value first.


Question 87:

Number of compounds among the following which contain sulfur as a heteroatom is \dots

Compounds: Furan, Thiophene, Pyridine, Pyrrole, Cysteine, Tyrosine

  • (1) 2
  • (2) 3
  • (3) None of these
  • (4) None of these
Correct Answer: (1) 2
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

A heteroatom is an atom other than carbon or hydrogen in an organic molecule. We are specifically looking for sulfur (S).


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

1. Furan: Contains Oxygen in a 5-membered ring.

2. Thiophene: Contains Sulfur in a 5-membered ring.

3. Pyridine: Contains Nitrogen in a 6-membered ring.

4. Pyrrole: Contains Nitrogen in a 5-membered ring.

5. Cysteine: An amino acid containing a thiol group (\(-SH\)). It contains Sulfur.

6. Tyrosine: Contains Oxygen and Nitrogen, but no sulfur.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The two sulfur-containing compounds are Thiophene and Cysteine.
Quick Tip: Sulfur-containing amino acids are Cysteine and Methionine. Heterocyclic sulfur compounds typically start with the prefix "Thio-".


Question 88:

The number of species from the following which are paramagnetic and with bond order equal to one is \dots.

Species: \(H_{2}, He_{2}^{+}, O_{2}^{+}, N_{2}^{-}, O_{2}^{2-}, F_{2}, Ne_{2}^{+}, B_{2}\)

  • (1) 1
  • (2) 2
  • (3) More
  • (4) None of these
Correct Answer: (1) 1
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Paramagnetism requires unpaired electrons. Bond order (B.O.) is calculated using Molecular Orbital Theory.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

1. \(\mathbf{H_{2}}\): 2e, B.O.=1, Diamagnetic.

2. \(\mathbf{He_{2}^{+}}\): 3e, B.O.=0.5, Paramagnetic.

3. \(\mathbf{O_{2}^{+}}\): 15e, B.O.=2.5, Paramagnetic.

4. \(\mathbf{N_{2}^{-}}\): 15e, B.O.=2.5, Paramagnetic.

5. \(\mathbf{O_{2}^{2-}}\): 18e, B.O.=1, Diamagnetic.

6. \(\mathbf{F_{2}}\): 18e, B.O.=1, Diamagnetic.

7. \(\mathbf{Ne_{2}^{+}}\): 19e, B.O.=0.5, Paramagnetic.

8. \(\mathbf{B_{2}}\): 10e, B.O.=1. Electronic configuration: \(\dots (\pi 2p_{x})^{1} = (\pi 2p_{y})^{1}\). It has 2 unpaired electrons, so it is Paramagnetic.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Only \(B_{2}\) fits both criteria (B.O. = 1 and Paramagnetic). Count = 1.
Quick Tip: Remember the trick: even electron species are usually diamagnetic except for \(B_{2}\) (10e) and \(O_{2}\) (16e).


Question 89:

From the compounds given below, the number of compounds which give a positive Fehling's test is \dots.

Compounds: Benzaldehyde, Acetaldehyde, Acetone, Acetophenone, Methanal, 4-nitrobenzocyclohexane carbaldehyde.

  • (1) 3
  • (2) None of these
  • (3) None
  • (4) All of them
Correct Answer: (1) 3
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Fehling's test is positive for aliphatic aldehydes. Aromatic aldehydes and ketones generally give negative results.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

1. Benzaldehyde: Aromatic aldehyde (Negative).

2. Acetaldehyde: Aliphatic aldehyde (Positive).

3. Acetone: Ketone (Negative).

4. Acetophenone: Aromatic ketone (Negative).

5. Methanal: Aliphatic aldehyde (Positive).

6. 4-nitrobenzocyclohexane carbaldehyde: The aldehydic group is attached to a saturated carbon in the cyclohexane ring, making it non-aromatic in nature (Positive).


Step 3: Final Answer:

Three compounds (Acetaldehyde, Methanal, and the substituted cyclohexane carbaldehyde) give a positive test.
Quick Tip: Benzaldehyde is often used as a trap in tests; it gives a positive Tollen's test but a negative Fehling's test.


Question 90:

Consider the given reaction. The total number of oxygen atoms present per molecule of the product (P) is \dots.

Reaction: \(CH_{3} - CH = CH - CH_{3} \xrightarrow{(i) O_{3}, (ii) Zn/H_{2}O} 2 CH_{3} - C = O\)

  • (1) 1
  • (2) Approximate
  • (3) None
  • (4) All
Correct Answer: (1) 1
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The reaction is reductive ozonolysis of an alkene, which cleaves the double bond to form carbonyl compounds.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The reactant is But-2-ene. Ozonolysis splits the \(C=C\) bond.
\[ CH_{3}-CH=CH-CH_{3} \xrightarrow{O_{3}, Zn/H_{2}O} 2 CH_{3}-CHO \]
The product (P) is ethanal (acetaldehyde). The structure of ethanal is \(CH_{3}CHO\).


Step 3: Final Answer:

In one molecule of ethanal (\(CH_{3}CHO\)), there is exactly 1 oxygen atom.
Quick Tip: In ozonolysis, simply "cut" the double bond and "paste" an oxygen atom on both sides of the cleavage.

*The article might have information for the previous academic years, please refer the official website of the exam.

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