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Niti Singh

| Updated On - Jan 12, 2026

The JEE Main 2025 4 April Shift 1 Question Paper with Solution Pdf is available here for free download. The JEE Main April 4 Shift 1 Exam was scheduled from 9:00 am to 12:00 pm. Students who will be appearing for the upcoming JEE Main shifts can check the JEE Main April 4 Shift 1 Question Paper and Solution PDF to understand the difficulty level of the exam.

The JEE Main April 4 Shift 1 was conducted by NTA in CBT mode. The JEE Main B.E/B.Tech exam includes Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics. In JEE Main April 4 Shift 1, students were required to attempt 75 questions following a marking scheme of +4 for correct answers and -1 for incorrect ones. You will be able to find the JEE Main April 4 Shift 1 Solution here.

The Question Paper for JEE Main April 4 Shift 1 for B.E/B. Tech Paper is available for download. The second shift of JEE Main April 4 Shift 2 was scheduled from 3:00 pm to 6:00 pm.

JEE Main 2025 Question Paper April 4 Shift 1 with Solution PDF

JEE Main 2025 April 4 Shift 1 Question Paper Download PDF Check Solutions
JEE Main 2025 Question Paper 4 Apr Shift 1 with Solution Pdf

Question 1:

Let \(f, g : (1, \infty) \to \mathbb{R}\) be defined as \(f(x) = \frac{2x+3}{5x+2}\) and \(g(x) = \frac{2-3x}{1-x}\). If the range of the function \(f \circ g : [2, 4] \to \mathbb{R}\) is \([\alpha, \beta]\), then \(\frac{1}{\beta - \alpha}\) is equal to

  • (1) 68
  • (2) 29
  • (3) 2
  • (4) 56
Correct Answer: (4) 56
View Solution



First, find the range of the inner function \(g(x) = \frac{3x-2}{x-1}\) for \(x \in [2, 4]\).

\(g(x) = \frac{3(x-1)+1}{x-1} = 3 + \frac{1}{x-1}\).


Since \(x-1\) increases from 1 to 3, \(\frac{1}{x-1}\) decreases from 1 to \(1/3\).


Thus, the range of \(g(x)\) is \([3+1/3, 3+1] = [\frac{10}{3}, 4]\). Let \(u = g(x)\).


Now consider \(f(u) = \frac{2u+3}{5u+2}\) for \(u \in [\frac{10}{3}, 4]\).


Differentiate \(f(u)\): \(f'(u) = \frac{2(5u+2) - 5(2u+3)}{(5u+2)^2} = \frac{-11}{(5u+2)^2} < 0\).


Since \(f(u)\) is decreasing, the range \([\alpha, \beta]\) is \([f(4), f(\frac{10}{3})]\).

\(\alpha = f(4) = \frac{2(4)+3}{5(4)+2} = \frac{11}{22} = \frac{1}{2}\).

\(\beta = f(\frac{10}{3}) = \frac{2(10/3)+3}{5(10/3)+2} = \frac{29/3}{56/3} = \frac{29}{56}\).

\(\beta - \alpha = \frac{29}{56} - \frac{28}{56} = \frac{1}{56}\).

\(\frac{1}{\beta - \alpha} = 56\).
Quick Tip: To find the range of composite functions, map the domain through the inner function first, then use that image as the domain for the outer function.


Question 2:

Consider the sets \(A = \{(x, y) \in \mathbb{R} \times \mathbb{R} : x^2 + y^2 = 25\}\), \(B = \{(x, y) \in \mathbb{R} \times \mathbb{R} : x^2 + 9y^2 = 144\}\), \(C = \{(x, y) \in \mathbb{Z} \times \mathbb{Z} : x^2 + y^2 \leq 4\}\), and \(D = A \cap B\). The total number of one-one functions from the set \(D\) to the set \(C\) is:

  • (1) 15120
  • (2) 19320
  • (3) 17160
  • (4) 18290
Correct Answer: (3) 17160
View Solution



Intersection \(D = A \cap B\): Solve \(x^2 + y^2 = 25\) and \(x^2 + 9y^2 = 144\).


Subtracting the first from the second: \(8y^2 = 119 \implies y = \pm \sqrt{119/8}\).


Then \(x^2 = 25 - 119/8 = 81/8 \implies x = \pm \sqrt{81/8}\).


There are 4 distinct points of intersection, so \(n(D) = 4\).


Set \(C\): Integer points satisfying \(x^2 + y^2 \leq 4\).


Points: \((0,0)\), \((\pm 1, 0)\), \((0, \pm 1)\), \((\pm 2, 0)\), \((0, \pm 2)\), \((\pm 1, \pm 1)\).


Count: \(1\) (center) + \(4\) (axis dist 1) + \(4\) (axis dist 2) + \(4\) (diagonals) = 13.


Number of one-one functions is \(P(13, 4) = 13 \times 12 \times 11 \times 10\).

\(156 \times 110 = 17160\).
Quick Tip: The number of injections from a set of size \(r\) to a set of size \(n\) is \(^nP_r\).


Question 3:

Let \(A = \{1, 6, 11, 16, \dots\}\) and \(B = \{9, 16, 23, 30, \dots\}\) be the sets consisting of the first 2025 terms of two arithmetic progressions. Then \(n(A \cup B)\) is

  • (1) 3814
  • (2) 4027
  • (3) 3761
  • (4) 4003
Correct Answer: (3) 3761
View Solution


\(A\): \(a=1, d=5\). \(T_{2025} = 1 + 2024(5) = 10121\).

\(B\): \(a=9, d=7\). \(T_{2025} = 9 + 2024(7) = 14177\).


Intersection \(A \cap B\): First common term is 16. Common difference \(LCM(5, 7) = 35\).

\(16 + (k-1)35 \leq 10121\) (smaller of the last terms).

\(35(k-1) \leq 10105 \implies k-1 \leq 288.7 \implies k = 289\).

\(n(A \cap B) = 289\).

\(n(A \cup B) = n(A) + n(B) - n(A \cap B) = 2025 + 2025 - 289 = 3761\).
Quick Tip: \(n(A \cup B) = n(A) + n(B) - n(A \cap B)\).


Question 4:

For an integer \(n \geq 2\), if the arithmetic mean of all coefficients in the binomial expansion of \((x + y)^{2n-3}\) is 16, then the distance of the point \(P(2n - 1, n^2 - 4n)\) from the line \(x + y = 8\) is:

  • (1) \(\sqrt{2}\)
  • (2) \(2\sqrt{2}\)
  • (3) \(5\sqrt{2}\)
  • (4) \(3\sqrt{2}\)
Correct Answer: (4) \(3\sqrt{2}\)
View Solution



Number of terms in \((x+y)^{2n-3}\) is \(2n-2\). Sum of coefficients is \(2^{2n-3}\).


Mean \(= \frac{2^{2n-3}}{2n-2} = 16 = 2^4\).

\(2^{2n-3} = 2^5(n-1) \implies 2^{2n-8} = n-1\).


For \(n=5\), \(2^2 = 4\), satisfying the equation.


Point \(P(2(5)-1, 25-20) = P(9, 5)\).


Distance to \(x+y-8=0\) is \(\frac{|9+5-8|}{\sqrt{1+1}} = \frac{6}{\sqrt{2}} = 3\sqrt{2}\).
Quick Tip: Sum of binomial coefficients is \(2^N\). Number of terms is \(N+1\).


Question 5:

The probability of forming a 12 persons committee from 4 engineers, 2 doctors, and 10 professors containing at least 3 engineers and at least 1 doctor is:

  • (1) \(\frac{129}{182}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{103}{182}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{17}{26}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{19}{26}\)
Correct Answer: (1) \(\frac{129}{182}\)
View Solution



Total ways \(\binom{16}{12} = \binom{16}{4} = 1820\).


Cases \((E, D, P)\):


1) \((3, 1, 8): \binom{4}{3}\binom{2}{1}\binom{10}{8} = 4 \times 2 \times 45 = 360\).


2) \((3, 2, 7): \binom{4}{3}\binom{2}{2}\binom{10}{7} = 4 \times 1 \times 120 = 480\).


3) \((4, 1, 7): \binom{4}{4}\binom{2}{1}\binom{10}{7} = 1 \times 2 \times 120 = 240\).


4) \((4, 2, 6): \binom{4}{4}\binom{2}{2}\binom{10}{6} = 1 \times 1 \times 210 = 210\).


Sum \(= 360+480+240+210 = 1290\). Prob \(= \frac{1290}{1820} = \frac{129}{182}\).
Quick Tip: List mutually exclusive favorable cases and sum them up.


Question 6:

Let the shortest distance between the lines \(\frac{x-3}{3} = \frac{y-\alpha}{-1} = \frac{z-3}{1}\) and \(\frac{x+3}{-3} = \frac{y+7}{2} = \frac{z-\beta}{4}\) be \(3\sqrt{30}\). Then the positive value of \(5\alpha + \beta\) is

  • (1) 42
  • (2) 46
  • (3) 48
  • (4) 40
Correct Answer: (2) 46
View Solution



Direction vectors are \(\mathbf{b_1} = (3, -1, 1)\) and \(\mathbf{b_2} = (-3, 2, 4)\).


Normal \(\mathbf{n} = \mathbf{b_1} \times \mathbf{b_2} = (-6, -15, 3)\). Magnitude \(|\mathbf{n}| = \sqrt{36+225+9} = \sqrt{270} = 3\sqrt{30}\).


Vector connecting points \(A(3, \alpha, 3)\) and \(B(-3, -7, \beta)\) is \(\mathbf{AB} = (-6, -7-\alpha, \beta-3)\).


Distance \(d = \frac{|\mathbf{AB} \cdot \mathbf{n}|}{|\mathbf{n}|} = 3\sqrt{30} \implies |\mathbf{AB} \cdot \mathbf{n}| = 270\).

\(\mathbf{AB} \cdot \mathbf{n} = -6(-6) + (-15)(-7-\alpha) + 3(\beta-3) = 36 + 105 + 15\alpha + 3\beta - 9 = 132 + 15\alpha + 3\beta\).

\(|132 + 15\alpha + 3\beta| = 270\).


Case 1: \(132 + 15\alpha + 3\beta = 270 \implies 15\alpha + 3\beta = 138 \implies 5\alpha + \beta = 46\).


Case 2: \(132 + 15\alpha + 3\beta = -270\) gives negative value.
Quick Tip: Shortest distance between skew lines is the projection of the connecting vector onto the cross product of the direction vectors.


Question 7:

If \(\lim_{x\to 1} \frac{(x-1)(6+\lambda \cos(x-1))+\mu \sin(1-x)}{(x-1)^3} = -1\), where \(\lambda, \mu \in \mathbb{R}\), then \(\lambda + \mu\) is equal to

  • (1) 18
  • (2) 20
  • (3) 19
  • (4) 17
Correct Answer: (1) 18
View Solution



Let \(x-1 = h\). As \(x \to 1, h \to 0\).


Limit becomes \(\lim_{h \to 0} \frac{h(6+\lambda \cos h) - \mu \sin h}{h^3}\).


Using expansions: \(h(6 + \lambda(1 - h^2/2)) - \mu(h - h^3/6) \approx (6+\lambda-\mu)h + (\frac{\mu}{6} - \frac{\lambda}{2})h^3\).


For finite limit, coefficient of \(h\) must be 0: \(6 + \lambda - \mu = 0 \implies \mu - \lambda = 6\).


The limit is the coefficient of \(h^3\): \(\frac{\mu}{6} - \frac{\lambda}{2} = -1 \implies \mu - 3\lambda = -6\).


Solving the system: subtracting gives \(2\lambda = 12 \implies \lambda = 6\).


Then \(\mu = 6 + 6 = 12\).

\(\lambda + \mu = 6 + 12 = 18\).
Quick Tip: Use Taylor series expansions for limits of the form \(0/0\) involving trig functions.


Question 8:

Let \(f : [0, \infty) \to \mathbb{R}\) be a differentiable function such that \(f(x) = 1 - 2x + \int_0^x e^{x-t}f(t) dt\) for all \(x \in [0, \infty)\). Then the area of the region bounded by \(y = f(x)\) and the coordinate axes is

  • (1) \(\sqrt{5}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
  • (3) \(\sqrt{2}\)
  • (4) 2
Correct Answer: (2) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
View Solution


\(f(x) = 1 - 2x + e^x \int_0^x e^{-t}f(t) dt\).


Differentiate: \(f'(x) = -2 + e^x(e^{-x}f(x)) + e^x \int_0^x e^{-t}f(t) dt\).


Substitute back integral term: \(e^x \int_0^x e^{-t}f(t) dt = f(x) - (1-2x)\).

\(f'(x) = -2 + f(x) + f(x) - 1 + 2x = 2f(x) + 2x - 3\).

\(f'(x) - 2f(x) = 2x - 3\). IF is \(e^{-2x}\).


Solution: \(f(x)e^{-2x} = \int (2x-3)e^{-2x} dx = 1 - x + Ce^{2x}\).

\(f(0) = 1\) from integral eq. \(1 = 1 - 0 + C \implies C=0\).

\(f(x) = 1-x\).


Area bounded by \(y=1-x, x=0, y=0\) is \(\frac{1}{2} \times 1 \times 1 = \frac{1}{2}\).
Quick Tip: Convert integral equations to differential equations by differentiating using Leibniz rule.


Question 9:

Let \(A\) and \(B\) be two distinct points on the line \(L : \frac{x-6}{3} = \frac{y-7}{2} = \frac{z-7}{-2}\). Both \(A\) and \(B\) are at a distance \(2\sqrt{17}\) from the foot of perpendicular drawn from the point \((1, 2, 3)\) on the line \(L\). If \(O\) is the origin, then \(\vec{OA} \cdot \vec{OB}\) is equal to:

  • (1) 49
  • (2) 47
  • (3) 21
  • (4) 62
Correct Answer: (2) 47
View Solution



Let \(P(1, 2, 3)\). Foot of perpendicular \(M\) on \(L\).


Any point on \(L\): \((3\lambda+6, 2\lambda+7, -2\lambda+7)\). \(\vec{PM} \cdot \vec{d} = 0\).

\(3(3\lambda+5) + 2(2\lambda+5) - 2(-2\lambda+4) = 0 \implies 17\lambda + 17 = 0 \implies \lambda = -1\).

\(M(3, 5, 9)\). Direction \(\vec{d} = (3, 2, -2)\), \(|\vec{d}| = \sqrt{17}\).


Points \(A, B\) are \(M \pm 2\sqrt{17} \hat{d} = M \pm 2\vec{d} = M \pm (6, 4, -4)\).

\(A = (9, 9, 5)\), \(B = (-3, 1, 13)\).

\(\vec{OA} \cdot \vec{OB} = 9(-3) + 9(1) + 5(13) = -27 + 9 + 65 = 47\).
Quick Tip: Points at distance \(k\) from a point on a line are given by \(\vec{r} \pm k \hat{u}\).


Question 10:

Let \(f : \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R}\) be a continuous function satisfying \(f(0) = 1\) and \(f(2x) - f(x) = x\) for all \(x \in \mathbb{R}\). If \(\lim_{n \to \infty} \{f(x) - f(\frac{x}{2^n})\} = G(x)\), then \(\sum_{r=1}^{10} G(r^2)\) is equal to

  • (1) 540
  • (2) 385
  • (3) 420
  • (4) 215
Correct Answer: (2) 385
View Solution


\(f(x) - f(x/2) = x/2\). Replace \(x\) with \(x/2^k\).


Summing: \(\sum_{k=0}^{n-1} (f(x/2^k) - f(x/2^{k+1})) = \sum x/2^{k+1}\).

\(f(x) - f(x/2^n) = x(1 - 1/2^n)\).


Limit \(n \to \infty\): \(f(x) - f(0) = x\). Thus \(G(x) = x\).


Sum \(\sum_{r=1}^{10} r^2 = \frac{10(11)(21)}{6} = 385\).
Quick Tip: Telescoping sums are useful for functional equations involving scaling of arguments.


Question 11:

1 + 3 + 5\(^2\) + 7 + 9\(^2\) + \dots upto 40 terms is equal to

  • (1) 43890
  • (2) 41880
  • (3) 33980
  • (4) 40870
Correct Answer: (2) 41880
View Solution



Series has 20 terms of type \((4k-3)^2\) (odd positions \(1, 3, \dots\)) and 20 terms of type \(4k-1\) (even positions).

\(S = \sum_{k=1}^{20} (16k^2 - 24k + 9) + \sum_{k=1}^{20} (4k-1)\).

\(S = 16\sum k^2 - 20\sum k + 8(20)\).

\(S = 16(2870) - 20(210) + 160 = 45920 - 4200 + 160 = 41880\).
Quick Tip: Split the series into two sub-series based on the pattern of terms.


Question 12:

In the expansion of \((\sqrt{5} + \frac{1}{\sqrt{5}})^n\), \(n \in \mathbb{N}\), if the ratio of 15th term from the beginning to the 15th term from the end is \(\frac{1}{6}\), then the value of \(^nC_3\) is:

  • (1) 4060
  • (2) 1040
  • (3) 2300
  • (4) 4960
Correct Answer: (1) 4060
View Solution




The general term in the expansion of \[ \left(\sqrt{5} + \frac{1}{\sqrt{5}}\right)^n \]
is \[ T_{r+1} = {^nC_r} (\sqrt{5})^{\,n-r}\left(\frac{1}{\sqrt{5}}\right)^r = {^nC_r} \, 5^{\frac{n-2r}{2}} \]

15th term from the beginning:
\[ T_{15} = {^nC_{14}}\,5^{\frac{n-28}{2}} \]

15th term from the end:
\[ T_{n-14} = {^nC_{14}}\,5^{\frac{-(n-28)}{2}} \]

Ratio: \[ \frac{T_{15}}{T_{15 from end}} = 5^{\,n-28} \]

Given: \[ \frac{T_{15}}{T_{15 from end}} = \frac{1}{6} \]

This equation does not yield an integral value of \(n\), indicating a numerical
inconsistency in the question.

Using the correct option, \[ {^nC_3} = 4060 \]
\[ \frac{n(n-1)(n-2)}{6} = 4060 \Rightarrow n(n-1)(n-2) = 24360 \]
\[ 30 \times 29 \times 28 = 24360 \Rightarrow n = 30 \]
\[ {^{30}C_3} = 4060 \] Quick Tip: In multiple choice questions involving \(^nC_r\), checking which option yields an integer \(n\) can be faster than solving the condition if the condition seems ambiguous.


Question 13:

Considering the principal values of the inverse trigonometric functions, \[ \sin^{-1}\left(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}x+\frac{1}{2}\sqrt{1-x^2}\right), \quad -\frac{1}{2}is equal to

  • (1) \(\frac{\pi}{4} + \sin^{-1} x\)
  • (2) \(\frac{\pi}{6} + \sin^{-1} x\)
  • (3) \(\frac{-5\pi}{6} - \sin^{-1} x\)
  • (4) \(\frac{5\pi}{6} - \sin^{-1} x\)
Correct Answer: (2) \(\frac{\pi}{6} + \sin^{-1} x\)
View Solution



Let \(x = \sin \theta\). Since \(-1/2 < x < 1/\sqrt{2}\), \(-\pi/6 < \theta < \pi/4\).


Expression \(= \sin^{-1}(\sin(\pi/3)\sin \theta + \cos(\pi/3)\cos \theta) = \sin^{-1}(\cos(\theta - \pi/3))\).

\(= \sin^{-1}(\sin(\pi/2 - (\theta - \pi/3))) = \sin^{-1}(\sin(5\pi/6 - \theta))\).


The argument \(5\pi/6 - \theta\) lies in \((7\pi/12, \pi)\).


For \(\alpha \in (\pi/2, \pi)\), \(\sin^{-1}(\sin \alpha) = \pi - \alpha\).


Result \(= \pi - (5\pi/6 - \theta) = \pi/6 + \theta = \pi/6 + \sin^{-1} x\).
Quick Tip: Check the range of the argument inside \(\sin^{-1}(\sin \phi)\) carefully.


Question 14:

Consider two vectors \(\vec{u} = 3\hat{i} - \hat{j}\) and \(\vec{v} = 2\hat{i} + \hat{j} - \lambda\hat{k}, \lambda > 0\). The angle between them is given by \(\cos^{-1} \left(\frac{\sqrt{5}}{2\sqrt{7}}\right)\). Let \(\vec{v} = \vec{v_1} + \vec{v_2}\), where \(\vec{v_1}\) is parallel to \(\vec{u}\) and \(\vec{v_2}\) is perpendicular to \(\vec{u}\). Then the value \(|\vec{v_1}|^2 + |\vec{v_2}|^2\) is equal to

  • (1) \(\frac{23}{2}\)
  • (2) 14
  • (3) \(\frac{25}{2}\)
  • (4) 10
Correct Answer: (2) 14
View Solution



Using \(\cos \theta\) formula, solve for \(\lambda\): \(\frac{5}{\sqrt{10}\sqrt{5+\lambda^2}} = \frac{\sqrt{5}}{2\sqrt{7}} \implies \lambda = 3\).

\(|\vec{v}|^2 = 4 + 1 + 9 = 14\).


Since \(\vec{v_1} \perp \vec{v_2}\), \(|\vec{v}|^2 = |\vec{v_1} + \vec{v_2}|^2 = |\vec{v_1}|^2 + |\vec{v_2}|^2\).


Sum is 14.
Quick Tip: For orthogonal decomposition \(\vec{v} = \vec{v}_{\parallel} + \vec{v}_{\perp}\), \(|\vec{v}|^2 = |\vec{v}_{\parallel}|^2 + |\vec{v}_{\perp}|^2\).


Question 15:

Let the three sides of a triangle are on the lines \(4x - 7y + 10 = 0\), \(x + y = 5\), and \(7x + 4y = 15\). Then the distance of its orthocenter from the orthocenter of the triangle formed by the lines \(x = 0\), \(y = 0\), and \(x + y = 1\) is




  • (1) 5
  • (2) \(\sqrt{5}\)
  • (3) \(\sqrt{20}\)
  • (4) 20
Correct Answer: (2) \(\sqrt{5}\)
View Solution



Triangle 1 is right-angled (slopes \(4/7\) and \(-7/4\)). Orthocenter is intersection of perp lines: \((1, 2)\).


Triangle 2 is right-angled at origin. Orthocenter is \((0, 0)\).


Distance is \(\sqrt{1^2 + 2^2} = \sqrt{5}\).
Quick Tip: The orthocenter of a right-angled triangle is the vertex at the right angle.


Question 16:

The value of \(\int_{-1}^{1} \frac{(1+\sqrt{|x|-x})e^x + (\sqrt{|x|-x})e^{-x}}{e^x + e^{-x}} dx\) is equal to

  • (1) \(3 - \frac{2\sqrt{2}}{3}\)
  • (2) \(2 + \frac{2\sqrt{2}}{3}\)
  • (3) \(1 - \frac{2\sqrt{2}}{3}\)
  • (4) \(1 + \frac{2\sqrt{2}}{3}\)
Correct Answer: (4) \(1 + \frac{2\sqrt{2}}{3}\)
View Solution



Split into \(\int_{-1}^0 + \int_0^1\).


For \(x>0\), integrand is \(\frac{e^x}{e^x+e^{-x}}\). Integral is \(\ln(e^x+e^{-x})\) logic... Result is \(\frac{1}{2}\ln(e^2+1) - \dots\)


Actually, using substitution \(x = -t\) in first part simplifies sum to \(\int_0^1 1 dt + \int_0^1 \sqrt{2t} dt\).

\(= 1 + [\frac{2\sqrt{2}}{3} t^{3/2}]_0^1 = 1 + \frac{2\sqrt{2}}{3}\).
Quick Tip: Split definite integrals involving modulus or \(|x|-x\) at \(x=0\).


Question 17:

The length of the latus-rectum of the ellipse, whose foci are \((2, 5)\) and \((2, -3)\) and eccentricity is \(\frac{4}{5}\), is

  • (1) \(\frac{6}{5}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{50}{3}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{10}{3}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{18}{5}\)
Correct Answer: (4) \(\frac{18}{5}\)
View Solution



Distance between foci \(2ae = 8 \implies ae = 4\).


With \(e = 4/5\), \(a = 5\).

\(b^2 = a^2(1-e^2) = 25(1 - 16/25) = 9\).

\(LR = \frac{2b^2}{a} = \frac{18}{5}\).
Quick Tip: \(LR = 2b^2/a\).


Question 18:

Consider the equation \(x^2 + 4x - n = 0\), where \(n \in [20, 100]\) is a natural number. Then the number of all distinct values of \(n\), for which the given equation has integral roots, is equal to

  • (1) 7
  • (2) 8
  • (3) 6
  • (4) 9
Correct Answer: (3) 6
View Solution



Discriminant \(D = 16 + 4n = 4(4+n)\) must be a perfect square.

\(4+n = k^2\).

\(24 \leq k^2 \leq 104\).


Squares: 25, 36, 49, 64, 81, 100. (6 values).
Quick Tip: For quadratic equations to have integral roots, the discriminant must be a perfect square.


Question 19:

A box contains 10 pens of which 3 are defective. A sample of 2 pens is drawn at random and let \(X\) denote the number of defective pens. Then the variance of \(X\) is

  • (1) \(\frac{11}{15}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{28}{75}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{2}{15}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{3}{5}\)
Correct Answer: (2) \(\frac{28}{75}\)
View Solution



Hypergeometric distribution variance \(V = n \frac{M}{N} (1 - \frac{M}{N}) \frac{N-n}{N-1}\).

\(N=10, M=3, n=2\).

\(V = 2 \times 0.3 \times 0.7 \times \frac{8}{9} = 0.42 \times \frac{8}{9} = \frac{28}{75}\).
Quick Tip: For sampling without replacement, use the Hypergeometric variance formula.


Question 20:

If \(10 \sin^4 \theta + 15 \cos^4 \theta = 6\), then the value of \(\frac{27 \csc^6 \theta + 8 \sec^6 \theta}{16 \sec^8 \theta}\) is:

  • (1) \(\frac{2}{5}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{3}{4}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{3}{5}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{1}{5}\)
Correct Answer: (1) \(\frac{2}{5}\)
View Solution



Equation implies \(\tan^2 \theta = 3/2\), so \(\sin^2 \theta = 3/5, \cos^2 \theta = 2/5\).


Numerator \(27(5/3)^3 + 8(5/2)^3 = 250\).


Denominator \(16(5/2)^4 = 625\).


Ratio \(250/625 = 2/5\).
Quick Tip: Find \(\sin^2\) and \(\cos^2\) values first, then substitute.


Question 21:

If the area of the region \(\{(x, y) : |x - 5| \leq y \leq 4\sqrt{x}\}\) is \(A\), then \(3A\) is equal to

  • (1) 368
  • (2) 360
  • (3) 370
  • (4) 380
Correct Answer: (1) 368
View Solution



The region is bounded by the lower curve \(y = |x-5|\) and the upper curve \(y = 4\sqrt{x}\).


First, find the points of intersection between \(y = |x-5|\) and \(y = 4\sqrt{x}\).


Case 1: \(x \ge 5 \implies x-5 = 4\sqrt{x}\). Let \(\sqrt{x}=t\). \(t^2 - 4t - 5 = 0 \implies (t-5)(t+1)=0\). \(t=5 \implies x=25\).


Case 2: \(x < 5 \implies 5-x = 4\sqrt{x}\). \(x + 4\sqrt{x} - 5 = 0 \implies t^2 + 4t - 5 = 0 \implies (t+5)(t-1)=0\). \(t=1 \implies x=1\).


The area \(A\) is given by the integral from \(x=1\) to \(x=25\):

\(A = \int_{1}^{25} (4\sqrt{x} - |x-5|) dx\).

\(A = \int_{1}^{25} 4x^{1/2} dx - \int_{1}^{25} |x-5| dx\).


First integral: \([ \frac{8}{3} x^{3/2} ]_{1}^{25} = \frac{8}{3} (125 - 1) = \frac{8}{3}(124) = \frac{992}{3}\).


Second integral represents the area of triangles under \(|x-5|\):

\(\int_{1}^{5} (5-x) dx + \int_{5}^{25} (x-5) dx\).


Area = Area(\(\triangle_1\)) + Area(\(\triangle_2\)) = \(\frac{1}{2}(4)(4) + \frac{1}{2}(20)(20) = 8 + 200 = 208\).


So, \(A = \frac{992}{3} - 208 = \frac{992 - 624}{3} = \frac{368}{3}\).


Thus, \(3A = 368\).
Quick Tip: For integrals involving absolute values like \(|x-a|\), it is often faster to calculate the area geometrically (as triangles) rather than integrating.


Question 22:

Let \(A = \begin{bmatrix} \cos \theta & 0 & -\sin \theta
0 & 1 & 0
\sin \theta & 0 & \cos \theta \end{bmatrix}\). If for some \(\theta \in (0, \pi)\), \(A^2 = A^T\), then the sum of the diagonal elements of the matrix \((A + I)^3 + (A - I)^3 - 6A\) is equal to

  • (1) 6
  • (2) 12
  • (3) 10
  • (4) 8
Correct Answer: (1) 6
View Solution



Matrix \(A\) is an orthogonal rotation matrix, so \(A^T = A^{-1}\).


Given \(A^2 = A^T\), we have \(A^2 = A^{-1}\). Multiplying by \(A\) gives \(A^3 = I\).


We need to compute the trace of \(M = (A+I)^3 + (A-I)^3 - 6A\).


Expand the terms:

\((A+I)^3 = A^3 + 3A^2 + 3A + I\).

\((A-I)^3 = A^3 - 3A^2 + 3A - I\).


Adding these gives \(2A^3 + 6A\).


So \(M = (2A^3 + 6A) - 6A = 2A^3\).


Since \(A^3 = I\), \(M = 2I\).

\(2I = \begin{bmatrix} 2 & 0 & 0
0 & 2 & 0
0 & 0 & 2 \end{bmatrix}\).


The sum of diagonal elements is \(2 + 2 + 2 = 6\).


Check existence of \(\theta\): \(A^3 = I\) implies rotation by \(3\theta = 2k\pi\). \(\theta = 2\pi/3 \in (0, \pi)\).
Quick Tip: Recognize standard rotation matrices. For orthogonal matrices \(A\), \(A^T = A^{-1}\).


Question 23:

Let \(A = \{z \in C : |z - 2 - i| = 3\}\), \(B = \{z \in C : Re(z - iz) = 2\}\), and \(S = A \cap B\). Then \(\sum_{z \in S} |z|^2\) is equal to

  • (1) 22
  • (2) 20
  • (3) 24
  • (4) 18
Correct Answer: (1) 22
View Solution



Set \(A\) is a circle: \(|z - (2+i)| = 3 \implies (x-2)^2 + (y-1)^2 = 9\).


Set \(B\): Let \(z = x+iy\). \(z - iz = (x+iy) - i(x+iy) = (x+y) + i(y-x)\).

\(Re(z - iz) = x+y = 2 \implies y = 2-x\).


Intersection \(S\): Substitute \(y=2-x\) into the circle equation.

\((x-2)^2 + (2-x-1)^2 = 9 \implies (x-2)^2 + (1-x)^2 = 9\).

\(x^2 - 4x + 4 + x^2 - 2x + 1 = 9\).

\(2x^2 - 6x - 4 = 0 \implies x^2 - 3x - 2 = 0\).


Let roots be \(x_1, x_2\). Then \(x_1+x_2 = 3\), \(x_1x_2 = -2\).


For each \(x\), \(|z|^2 = x^2 + y^2 = x^2 + (2-x)^2 = 2x^2 - 4x + 4\).


We need sum \(\sum |z|^2 = (2x_1^2 - 4x_1 + 4) + (2x_2^2 - 4x_2 + 4)\).

\(= 2(x_1^2+x_2^2) - 4(x_1+x_2) + 8\).

\(x_1^2+x_2^2 = (x_1+x_2)^2 - 2x_1x_2 = 9 - 2(-2) = 13\).


Sum \(= 2(13) - 4(3) + 8 = 26 - 12 + 8 = 22\).
Quick Tip: Use the relationship between roots and coefficients (\(\alpha+\beta, \alpha\beta\)) to evaluate symmetric expressions of roots without solving for the roots explicitly.


Question 24:

Let \(C\) be the circle \(x^2 + (y - 1)^2 = 2\), \(E_1\) and \(E_2\) be two ellipses whose centres lie at the origin and major axes lie on the \(x\)-axis and \(y\)-axis respectively. Let the straight line \(x + y = 3\) touch the curves \(C, E_1\), and \(E_2\) at \(P(x_1, y_1), Q(x_2, y_2)\), and \(R(x_3, y_3)\) respectively. Given that \(P\) is the mid-point of the line segment \(QR\) and \(PQ = \frac{2\sqrt{2}}{3}\), the value of \(9(x_1y_1 + x_2y_2 + x_3y_3)\) is equal to

  • (1) 46
  • (2) 48
  • (3) 44
  • (4) 50
Correct Answer: (1) 46
View Solution



Line \(x+y=3\) has normal vector \((1,1)\). Perpendicular from center \((0,1)\) of circle \(C\) to line is \(P\).


Equation of normal: \(y-1 = 1(x-0) \implies y=x+1\).


Intersection with \(x+y=3\): \(x+(x+1)=3 \implies 2x=2 \implies x=1, y=2\).


So \(P(x_1, y_1) = (1, 2)\). \(x_1y_1 = 2\).


For ellipse \(E_1 (x^2/a^2 + y^2/b^2 = 1)\), tangency condition \(a^2m^2+b^2 = c^2\). Here \(m=-1, c=3\). \(a^2+b^2=9\).


Contact point \(Q(x_2, y_2) = (a^2/3, b^2/3)\).


For ellipse \(E_2 (x^2/A^2 + y^2/B^2 = 1)\), \(A^2+B^2=9\). Contact point \(R(x_3, y_3) = (A^2/3, B^2/3)\).

\(P\) is midpoint of \(QR\): \(1 = (x_2+x_3)/2 \implies x_2+x_3=2\). Also \(y_2+y_3=4\).


Distance \(PQ^2 = (x_2-1)^2 + (y_2-2)^2 = (2\sqrt{2}/3)^2 = 8/9\).


Substitute \(Q\) in terms of parameter \(a^2\): \((a^2/3 - 1)^2 + (b^2/3 - 2)^2 = 8/9\).


Using \(b^2 = 9-a^2\): \((a^2/3 - 1)^2 + (3 - a^2/3 - 2)^2 = 8/9 \implies 2(a^2/3 - 1)^2 = 8/9\).

\((a^2/3 - 1)^2 = 4/9 \implies a^2/3 - 1 = \pm 2/3\).

\(a^2/3 = 5/3\) or \(1/3 \implies a^2=5\) or \(a^2=1\).


For \(E_1\) (major axis on x), \(a>b \implies a^2>4.5\). So \(a^2=5, b^2=4\).

\(Q(5/3, 4/3)\). \(x_2y_2 = 20/9\).


Using midpoints: \(x_3 = 2 - 5/3 = 1/3\), \(y_3 = 4 - 4/3 = 8/3\).

\(R(1/3, 8/3)\). \(x_3y_3 = 8/9\).


Value \(= 9(2 + 20/9 + 8/9) = 18 + 20 + 8 = 46\).
Quick Tip: The point of tangency of \(y=mx+c\) to \(x^2/a^2 + y^2/b^2 = 1\) is \((-a^2m/c, b^2/c)\).


Question 25:

Let \(m\) and \(n\) be the number of points at which the function \(f(x) = \max\{x, x^3, x^5, \dots, x^{21}\}\) is not differentiable and not continuous, respectively. Then \(m + n\) is equal to

  • (1) 3
  • (2) 4
  • (3) 5
  • (4) 6
Correct Answer: (1) 3
View Solution



We analyze \(f(x)\) by comparing \(x\) and \(x^n\) (odd \(n\)).


1. For \(x > 1\): \(x^{21} > x^{19} > \dots > x\). So \(f(x) = x^{21}\).


2. For \(0 < x < 1\): \(x > x^3 > \dots > x^{21}\). So \(f(x) = x\).


3. For \(-1 < x < 0\): Since \(x\) is negative and \(|x| < 1\), higher powers are closer to 0 (larger). \(x^{21}\) is the largest (least negative). So \(f(x) = x^{21}\).


4. For \(x < -1\): Higher powers are more negative. \(x\) is the largest. So \(f(x) = x\).

\(f(x) = \begin{cases} x & x \le -1
x^{21} & -1 < x \le 0
x & 0 < x \le 1
x^{21} & x > 1 \end{cases}\).


Continuity:


At \(x=-1\): \(x=-1, x^{21}=-1\). Continuous.


At \(x=0\): \(x^{21}=0, x=0\). Continuous.


At \(x=1\): \(x=1, x^{21}=1\). Continuous.


So \(n = 0\).


Differentiability:


At \(x=-1\): LHD (\(x\)) \(= 1\). RHD (\(x^{21}\)) \(= 21(-1)^{20} = 21\). Not diff.


At \(x=0\): LHD (\(x^{21}\)) \(= 0\). RHD (\(x\)) \(= 1\). Not diff.


At \(x=1\): LHD (\(x\)) \(= 1\). RHD (\(x^{21}\)) \(= 21\). Not diff.


So \(m = 3\).

\(m + n = 3 + 0 = 3\).
Quick Tip: Sketch the graphs of \(y=x\) and \(y=x^n\) to visually determine the maximum function and identify transition points ("sharp corners").


Question 26:

The mean free path and the average speed of oxygen molecules at 300 K and 1 atm are \(3 \times 10^{-7}\) m and 600 m/s, respectively. Find the frequency of its collisions.

  • (1) \(2 \times 10^{10}\)/s
  • (2) \(9 \times 10^9\)/s
  • (3) \(2 \times 10^9\)/s
  • (4) \(5 \times 10^8\)/s
Correct Answer: (3) \(2 \times 10^9\)/s
View Solution



The collision frequency \(f\) is the number of collisions per unit time.


It is related to average speed \(v_{avg}\) and mean free path \(\lambda\) by the relation:

\(f = \frac{v_{avg}}{\lambda}\).


Given \(v_{avg} = 600\) m/s and \(\lambda = 3 \times 10^{-7}\) m.

\(f = \frac{600}{3 \times 10^{-7}} = 200 \times 10^7 = 2 \times 10^9\) Hz.
Quick Tip: Frequency = Speed / Distance.


Question 27:

A small mirror of mass \(m\) is suspended by a massless thread of length \(l\). Then the small angle through which the thread will be deflected when a short pulse of laser of energy \(E\) falls normal on the mirror (\(c\) = speed of light in vacuum and \(g\) = acceleration due to gravity).





  • (1) \(\theta = \frac{3E}{4mc\sqrt{gl}}\)
  • (2) \(\theta = \frac{E}{mc\sqrt{gl}}\)
  • (3) \(\theta = \frac{E}{2mc\sqrt{gl}}\)
  • (4) \(\theta = \frac{2E}{mc\sqrt{gl}}\)
Correct Answer: (4) \(\theta = \frac{2E}{mc\sqrt{gl}}\)
View Solution



The momentum delivered by the photon pulse is \(p = E/c\).


Since the mirror reflects the light, the change in momentum is \(\Delta p = 2p = \frac{2E}{c}\).


This impulse gives an initial angular velocity to the mirror-thread system.


Angular impulse \(J = \Delta p \cdot l = \frac{2El}{c}\).


Change in angular momentum \(L = I\omega = (ml^2)\omega\).

\(ml^2 \omega = \frac{2El}{c} \implies \omega = \frac{2E}{mcl}\).


By conservation of energy, rotational kinetic energy converts to gravitational potential energy at maximum deflection angle \(\theta\).

\(\frac{1}{2} I \omega^2 = mgh\), where \(h = l(1-\cos \theta) \approx l \frac{\theta^2}{2}\) for small angles.

\(\frac{1}{2} (ml^2) \left(\frac{2E}{mcl}\right)^2 = mgl \frac{\theta^2}{2}\).

\(ml^2 \frac{4E^2}{m^2 c^2 l^2} = mgl \theta^2\).

\(\frac{4E^2}{m c^2} = mgl \theta^2 \implies \theta^2 = \frac{4E^2}{m^2 c^2 gl}\).

\(\theta = \frac{2E}{mc\sqrt{gl}}\).
Quick Tip: Radiation pressure momentum transfer is \(E/c\) for absorption and \(2E/c\) for reflection.


Question 28:

Two liquids A and B have \(\theta_A\) and \(\theta_B\) as contact angles in a capillary tube. If \(K = \cos \theta_A / \cos \theta_B\), then identify the correct statement:

  • (1) K is negative, then liquid A and liquid B have convex meniscus.
  • (2) K is negative, then liquid A and liquid B have concave meniscus.
  • (3) K is negative, then liquid A has concave meniscus and liquid B has convex meniscus.
  • (4) K is zero, then liquid A has convex meniscus and liquid B has concave meniscus.
Correct Answer: (3) K is negative, then liquid A has concave meniscus and liquid B has convex meniscus.
View Solution



A concave meniscus implies an acute contact angle (\(\theta < 90^\circ\)), so \(\cos \theta > 0\).


A convex meniscus implies an obtuse contact angle (\(\theta > 90^\circ\)), so \(\cos \theta < 0\).


If \(K = \frac{\cos \theta_A}{\cos \theta_B}\) is negative, then \(\cos \theta_A\) and \(\cos \theta_B\) must have opposite signs.


This means one liquid forms a concave meniscus (positive cosine) and the other forms a convex meniscus (negative cosine).


Option (1) implies both negative (ratio positive).


Option (2) implies both positive (ratio positive).


Option (3) implies A is concave (positive) and B is convex (negative), which yields a negative ratio. This is consistent.
Quick Tip: Concave meniscus = Wetting liquid = \(\theta < 90^\circ\). Convex meniscus = Non-wetting liquid = \(\theta > 90^\circ\).


Question 29:

Which of the following are correct expression for torque acting on a body?
A. \(\vec{\tau} = \vec{r} \times \vec{L}\)
B. \(\vec{\tau} = \frac{d}{dt}(\vec{r} \times \vec{p})\)
C. \(\vec{\tau} = \vec{r} \times \frac{d\vec{p}}{dt}\)
D. \(\vec{\tau} = I \vec{\alpha}\)
E. \(\vec{\tau} = \vec{r} \times \vec{F}\)

  • (1) B, D and E Only
  • (2) C and D Only
  • (3) B, C, D and E Only
  • (4) A, B, D and E Only
Correct Answer: (3) B, C, D and E Only
View Solution



Analyze each expression:


E. \(\vec{\tau} = \vec{r} \times \vec{F}\) is the definition of torque. (Correct)


C. \(\vec{F} = \frac{d\vec{p}}{dt}\), so \(\vec{\tau} = \vec{r} \times \frac{d\vec{p}}{dt}\). (Correct)


B. \(\frac{d}{dt}(\vec{r} \times \vec{p}) = \frac{d\vec{r}}{dt} \times \vec{p} + \vec{r} \times \frac{d\vec{p}}{dt} = \vec{v} \times (m\vec{v}) + \vec{\tau} = 0 + \vec{\tau} = \vec{\tau}\). (Correct)


D. \(\vec{\tau} = I \vec{\alpha}\) is the rotational analogue of Newton's second law for fixed axis rotation. (Correct)


A. \(\vec{r} \times \vec{L}\) is not a standard expression for torque.


Thus B, C, D, and E are correct.
Quick Tip: Torque is the rate of change of angular momentum \(\vec{\tau} = \frac{d\vec{L}}{dt}\).


Question 30:

In a Young's double slit experiment, the slits are separated by 0.2 mm. If the slits separation is increased to 0.4 mm, the percentage change of the fringe width is:

  • (1) 0%
  • (2) 100%
  • (3) 50%
  • (4) 25%
Correct Answer: (3) 50%
View Solution



Fringe width \(\beta = \frac{\lambda D}{d}\).

\(\beta \propto \frac{1}{d}\).


Initial \(d_1 = 0.2\). Final \(d_2 = 0.4\).

\(\frac{\beta_2}{\beta_1} = \frac{d_1}{d_2} = \frac{0.2}{0.4} = \frac{1}{2}\).


Change in fringe width \(\Delta \beta = \beta_2 - \beta_1 = 0.5 \beta_1 - \beta_1 = -0.5 \beta_1\).


Percentage change \(= \frac{|\Delta \beta|}{\beta_1} \times 100 = 50%\).
Quick Tip: Inverse proportionality means doubling the denominator halves the value (50% reduction).


Question 31:

An alternating current is represented by the equation, \(i = 100\sqrt{2} \sin(100\pi t)\) ampere. The RMS value of current and the frequency of the given alternating current are

  • (1) \(100\sqrt{2}\) A, 100 Hz
  • (2) \(\frac{100}{\sqrt{2}}\) A, 100 Hz
  • (3) 100 A, 50 Hz
  • (4) \(50\sqrt{2}\) A, 50 Hz
Correct Answer: (3) 100 A, 50 Hz
View Solution



Compare with \(i = I_0 \sin(\omega t)\).

\(I_0 = 100\sqrt{2}\) A.

\(I_{rms} = \frac{I_0}{\sqrt{2}} = \frac{100\sqrt{2}}{\sqrt{2}} = 100\) A.

\(\omega = 100\pi \implies 2\pi f = 100\pi \implies f = 50\) Hz.
Quick Tip: \(I_{rms} = I_{peak}/\sqrt{2}\) for sinusoidal currents.


Question 32:

Consider the sound wave travelling in ideal gases of He, CH\(_4\), and CO\(_2\). All the gases have the same ratio \(\frac{P}{\rho}\), where P is the pressure and \(\rho\) is the density. The ratio of the speed of sound through the gases \(v_{He} : v_{CH_4} : v_{CO_2}\) is given by

  • (1) \(\sqrt{\frac{7}{5}} : \sqrt{\frac{5}{3}} : \sqrt{\frac{4}{3}}\)
  • (2) \(\sqrt{\frac{5}{3}} : \sqrt{\frac{4}{3}} : \sqrt{\frac{7}{5}}\)
  • (3) \(\sqrt{\frac{5}{3}} : \sqrt{\frac{4}{3}} : \sqrt{\frac{4}{3}}\)
  • (4) \(\sqrt{\frac{4}{3}} : \sqrt{\frac{5}{3}} : \sqrt{\frac{7}{5}}\)
Correct Answer: (2) \(\sqrt{\frac{5}{3}} : \sqrt{\frac{4}{3}} : \sqrt{\frac{7}{5}}\)
View Solution



Speed of sound \(v = \sqrt{\frac{\gamma P}{\rho}}\). Since \(P/\rho\) is constant, \(v \propto \sqrt{\gamma}\).


Determine \(\gamma\) for each gas:


He (Monoatomic): \(\gamma = 5/3\).


CH\(_4\) (Polyatomic non-linear): Degrees of freedom \(f = 3 (trans) + 3 (rot) = 6\). \(\gamma = 1 + 2/6 = 4/3\).


CO\(_2\) (Polyatomic linear): Degrees of freedom \(f = 3 (trans) + 2 (rot) = 5\). \(\gamma = 1 + 2/5 = 7/5\).


Ratio \(v_{He} : v_{CH_4} : v_{CO_2} = \sqrt{5/3} : \sqrt{4/3} : \sqrt{7/5}\).
Quick Tip: \(\gamma = 1 + 2/f\). For monoatomic \(f=3\), linear polyatomic \(f=5\), non-linear polyatomic \(f=6\) (at moderate temps).


Question 33:

In an electromagnetic system, the quantity representing the ratio of electric flux and magnetic flux has dimension of \(M^B L^Q T^R A^S\), where value of 'Q' and 'R' are

  • (1) (3, -5)
  • (2) (-2, 2)
  • (3) (-2, 1)
  • (4) (1, -1)
Correct Answer: (4) (1, -1)
View Solution



Electric Flux \(\Phi_E = E \cdot A\). Dimensions: \([M L T^{-3} A^{-1}] [L^2] = [M L^3 T^{-3} A^{-1}]\).


Magnetic Flux \(\Phi_B = B \cdot A\). Dimensions: \([M T^{-2} A^{-1}] [L^2] = [M L^2 T^{-2} A^{-1}]\).


Ratio \(\frac{\Phi_E}{\Phi_B} = \frac{M L^3 T^{-3} A^{-1}}{M L^2 T^{-2} A^{-1}} = L^1 T^{-1}\).


Comparing with \(M^B L^Q T^R A^S\), we get \(Q = 1\) and \(R = -1\).
Quick Tip: Alternatively, from Faraday's law \(\epsilon = d\Phi_B/dt\), so \(\Phi_B \sim V \cdot T\). From Gauss's law flux \(\Phi_E \sim V \cdot L\). Ratio \(\sim L/T\).


Question 34:

When an object is placed 40 cm away from a spherical mirror an image of magnification \(\frac{1}{2}\) is produced. To obtain an image with magnification of \(\frac{1}{3}\), the object is to be moved:

  • (1) 40 cm away from the mirror.
  • (2) 80 cm away from the mirror.
  • (3) 20 cm towards the mirror.
  • (4) 20 cm away from the mirror.
Correct Answer: (1) 40 cm away from the mirror.
View Solution



For a mirror, magnification \(m = \frac{f}{f-u}\).


Case 1: \(|u| = 40\). \(|m| = 1/2\).


Assuming a convex mirror (virtual image) or concave (real image), we solve for \(f\).


If convex (\(f>0, u=-40\)): \(1/2 = \frac{f}{f-(-40)} \implies 2f = f+40 \implies f=40\).


If concave (\(f<0, u=-40\)):


Real image (\(m=-1/2\)): \(-1/2 = \frac{f}{f+40} \implies -f-40 = 2f \implies 3f=-40\) (No clean integer, less likely).


Virtual image (\(m=1/2\)): \(f=40\) (Not concave).


Assuming \(f=40\) (Convex mirror scenario matches cleanly).


Case 2: New magnification \(1/3\).

\(1/3 = \frac{40}{40 - u'} \implies 40 - u' = 120 \implies -u' = 80 \implies u' = -80\).


Object distance is 80 cm.


Original distance 40 cm, new distance 80 cm.


Movement: \(80 - 40 = 40\) cm away from the mirror.
Quick Tip: Magnification formula \(m = \frac{f}{f-u}\) allows quick calculation of \(u\) given \(m\) and \(f\).


Question 35:

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: In photoelectric effect, on increasing the intensity of incident light the stopping potential increases.
Reason R: Increase in intensity of light increases the rate of photoelectrons emitted, provided the frequency of incident light is greater than threshold frequency.

  • (1) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
  • (2) A is false but R is true
  • (3) A is true but R is false
  • (4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
Correct Answer: (2) A is false but R is true
View Solution



Assertion A: Stopping potential depends on the frequency (energy) of incident photons, not the intensity. Increasing intensity increases the number of photons, not their energy. Thus, stopping potential remains unchanged. Assertion is False.


Reason R: Intensity is proportional to the number of photons per unit area per unit time. Higher intensity means more photons striking the metal, leading to more photoelectrons (higher photocurrent). Reason is True.
Quick Tip: Stopping potential \(\propto\) Frequency. Saturation current \(\propto\) Intensity.


Question 36:

If \(\vec{L}\) and \(\vec{P}\) represent the angular momentum and linear momentum respectively of a particle of mass '\(m\)' having position vector \(\vec{r} = a(\hat{i} \cos \omega t + \hat{j} \sin \omega t)\). The direction of force is

  • (1) Opposite to the direction of \(\vec{r}\)
  • (2) Opposite to the direction of \(\vec{L}\)
  • (3) Opposite to the direction of \(\vec{P}\)
  • (4) Opposite to the direction of \(\vec{L} \times \vec{P}\)
Correct Answer: (1) Opposite to the direction of \(\vec{r}\)
View Solution


\(\vec{r} = a(\cos \omega t \hat{i} + \sin \omega t \hat{j})\).


Velocity \(\vec{v} = \frac{d\vec{r}}{dt} = a\omega(-\sin \omega t \hat{i} + \cos \omega t \hat{j})\).


Acceleration \(\vec{a} = \frac{d\vec{v}}{dt} = -a\omega^2(\cos \omega t \hat{i} + \sin \omega t \hat{j}) = -\omega^2 \vec{r}\).


Force \(\vec{F} = m\vec{a} = -m\omega^2 \vec{r}\).


The negative sign indicates the force is directed opposite to the position vector \(\vec{r}\) (towards the origin).
Quick Tip: For uniform circular motion, the centripetal force is always directed towards the center, opposite to the radius vector.


Question 37:

A body of mass \(m\) is suspended by two strings making angles \(\theta_1\) and \(\theta_2\) with the horizontal ceiling with tensions \(T_1\) and \(T_2\) simultaneously. \(T_1\) and \(T_2\) are related by \(T_1 = \sqrt{3} T_2\). The angles \(\theta_1\) and \(\theta_2\) are

  • (1) \(\theta_1 = 30^\circ, \theta_2 = 60^\circ\) with \(T_2 = \frac{3mg}{4}\)
  • (2) \(\theta_1 = 60^\circ, \theta_2 = 30^\circ\) with \(T_2 = \frac{mg}{2}\)
  • (3) \(\theta_1 = 45^\circ, \theta_2 = 45^\circ\) with \(T_2 = \frac{3mg}{4}\)
  • (4) \(\theta_1 = 30^\circ, \theta_2 = 60^\circ\) with \(T_2 = \frac{4mg}{5}\)
Correct Answer: (2) \(\theta_1 = 60^\circ, \theta_2 = 30^\circ\) with \(T_2 = \frac{mg}{2}\)
View Solution



Resolving forces horizontally: \(T_1 \cos \theta_1 = T_2 \cos \theta_2\).


Given \(T_1 = \sqrt{3} T_2\), we have \(\sqrt{3} T_2 \cos \theta_1 = T_2 \cos \theta_2 \implies \sqrt{3} \cos \theta_1 = \cos \theta_2\).


Check Option (2): \(\theta_1 = 60^\circ, \theta_2 = 30^\circ\).

\(\sqrt{3} \cos 60^\circ = \sqrt{3} (1/2)\). \(\cos 30^\circ = \sqrt{3}/2\). This matches.


Check vertical forces: \(T_1 \sin \theta_1 + T_2 \sin \theta_2 = mg\).

\((\sqrt{3} T_2) \sin 60^\circ + T_2 \sin 30^\circ = mg\).

\(\sqrt{3} T_2 (\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}) + T_2 (\frac{1}{2}) = mg\).

\(\frac{3}{2} T_2 + \frac{1}{2} T_2 = mg \implies 2T_2 = mg \implies T_2 = \frac{mg}{2}\).
Quick Tip: Use Lami's theorem or component resolution for equilibrium of concurrent forces.


Question 38:

Current passing through a wire as function of time is given as \(I(t) = 0.02t + 0.01\) A. The charge that will flow through the wire from \(t = 1\) s to \(t = 2\) s is:

  • (1) 0.06 C
  • (2) 0.02 C
  • (3) 0.07 C
  • (4) 0.04 C
Correct Answer: (4) 0.04 C
View Solution



Charge \(Q = \int_{t_1}^{t_2} I(t) dt\).

\(Q = \int_{1}^{2} (0.02t + 0.01) dt\).

\(Q = [0.01t^2 + 0.01t]_{1}^{2}\).


Upper limit (\(t=2\)): \(0.01(4) + 0.01(2) = 0.06\).


Lower limit (\(t=1\)): \(0.01(1) + 0.01(1) = 0.02\).

\(Q = 0.06 - 0.02 = 0.04\) C.
Quick Tip: \(Q = \int I dt\). The area under the I-t graph gives the charge flow.


Question 39:

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: The kinetic energy needed to project a body of mass \(m\) from earth surface to infinity is \(\frac{1}{2}mgR\), where R is the radius of earth.
Reason R: The maximum potential energy of a body is zero when it is projected to infinity from earth surface.

  • (1) A False but R is true
  • (2) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
  • (3) A is true but R is false
  • (4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
Correct Answer: (1) A False but R is true
View Solution



Assertion A: The potential energy of a body on Earth's surface is \(U = - \frac{GMm}{R} = -mgR\).


To escape to infinity (where total energy \(E \ge 0\)), the kinetic energy \(K\) required must satisfy \(K + U = 0\).

\(K = -U = mgR\).


The assertion claims \(K = \frac{1}{2}mgR\), which is incorrect. Thus, A is False.


Reason R: Gravitational potential energy \(U = - \frac{GMm}{r}\). As \(r \to \infty\), \(U \to 0\). Since \(U\) is negative for finite \(r\), zero is the maximum value. Thus, R is True.
Quick Tip: Escape velocity is \(v_e = \sqrt{2gR}\). The corresponding kinetic energy is \(\frac{1}{2}m(2gR) = mgR\).


Question 40:

The Boolean expression \(Y = A\overline{B}C + \overline{A}\overline{C}\) can be realised with which of the following gate configurations.
A. One 3-input AND gate, 3 NOT gates and one 2-input OR gate, One 2-input AND gate
B. One 3-input AND gate, 1 NOT gate, One 2-input NOR gate and one 2-input OR gate
C. 3-input OR gate, 3 NOT gates and one 2-input AND gate

  • (1) B, C Only
  • (2) A, B Only
  • (3) A, B, C Only
  • (4) A, C Only
Correct Answer: (3) A, B, C Only
View Solution



The expression is \(Y = A\overline{B}C + \overline{A}\overline{C}\).


Configuration A:


- Term \(A\overline{B}C\): Requires 3-input AND and 1 NOT (for B).


- Term \(\overline{A}\overline{C}\): Requires 2-input AND and 2 NOTs (for A and C).


- Sum: Requires 2-input OR.


- Total resources: 3 NOTs, 1 3-input AND, 1 2-input AND, 1 OR. This matches configuration A.


Configuration B:


- Rewrite second term using De Morgan's: \(\overline{A}\overline{C} = \overline{A+C}\). This is a NOR operation.


- Term \(A\overline{B}C\): 3-input AND + 1 NOT.


- Term \(\overline{A+C}\): 2-input NOR.


- Sum: 2-input OR.


- Matches configuration B.


Configuration C:


- Rewrite entire expression: \(Y = \overline{C}(A\overline{B} + \overline{A}) = \overline{C}(\overline{A} + \overline{B})\).


- Term \(\overline{A} + \overline{B}\): Requires 2 inputs of a 3-input OR gate (inverted inputs).


- Multiply by \(\overline{C}\): Requires 2-input AND.


- Inverters needed: 3 (for A, B, C).


- Matches configuration C (3 NOTs, 3-input OR, 2-input AND).
Quick Tip: Simplify the Boolean expression and look for equivalent forms like \(\overline{A}\overline{C} = NOR(A,C)\) or \(A\overline{B} + \overline{A} = \overline{A} + \overline{B}\).


Question 41:

In an experiment with a closed organ pipe, it is filled with water by \((\frac{1}{5})\) th of its volume. The frequency of the fundamental note will change by

  • (1) 25%
  • (2) 20%
  • (3) -20%
  • (4) -25%
Correct Answer: (1) 25%
View Solution



For a closed organ pipe of length \(L\), the fundamental frequency is \(f = \frac{v}{4L}\).


Since the pipe is uniform, volume is proportional to length. Filling \(1/5\) of volume reduces the air column length by \(1/5\).


New length \(L' = L - \frac{L}{5} = \frac{4L}{5}\).


New frequency \(f' = \frac{v}{4L'} = \frac{v}{4(4L/5)} = \frac{5}{4} \left( \frac{v}{4L} \right) = 1.25 f\).


Percentage change = \(\frac{f' - f}{f} \times 100 = (1.25 - 1) \times 100 = 25%\).
Quick Tip: Frequency is inversely proportional to the length of the resonating air column.


Question 42:

Two simple pendulums having lengths \(l_1\) and \(l_2\) with negligible string mass undergo angular displacements \(\theta_1\) and \(\theta_2\), from their mean positions, respectively. If the angular accelerations of both pendulums are same, then which expression is correct?

  • (1) \(\theta_1 l_2^2 = \theta_2 l_1^2\)
  • (2) \(\theta_1 l_1 = \theta_2 l_2\)
  • (3) \(\theta_1 l_1^2 = \theta_2 l_2^2\)
  • (4) \(\theta_1 l_2 = \theta_2 l_1\)
Correct Answer: (4) \(\theta_1 l_2 = \theta_2 l_1\)
View Solution



The restoring torque on a simple pendulum is \(\tau = -mgl \sin\theta \approx -mgl\theta\) for small angles.


Moment of inertia \(I = ml^2\).


Angular acceleration \(\alpha = \frac{\tau}{I} = \frac{-mgl\theta}{ml^2} = -\frac{g\theta}{l}\).


Given that magnitudes of angular accelerations are equal: \(|\alpha_1| = |\alpha_2|\).

\(\frac{g\theta_1}{l_1} = \frac{g\theta_2}{l_2}\).

\(\frac{\theta_1}{l_1} = \frac{\theta_2}{l_2} \implies \theta_1 l_2 = \theta_2 l_1\).
Quick Tip: \(\alpha = -\omega^2 \theta\) where \(\omega^2 = g/l\).


Question 43:

Two infinite identical charged sheets and a charged spherical body of charge density ' \(\rho\) ' are arranged as shown in figure. Then the correct relation between the electrical fields at A, B, C and D points is:

  • (1) \(\vec{E}_A = \vec{E}_B; \vec{E}_C = \vec{E}_D\)
  • (2) \(\vec{E}_A > \vec{E}_B; \vec{E}_C = \vec{E}_D\)
  • (3) \(\vec{E}_C \neq \vec{E}_D; \vec{E}_A > \vec{E}_B\)
  • (4) \(|\vec{E}_A| = |\vec{E}_B|; \vec{E}_C > \vec{E}_D\)
Correct Answer: (3) \(\vec{E}_C \neq \vec{E}_D; \vec{E}_A > \vec{E}_B\)
View Solution



The system consists of two positive sheets and a positive sphere in the middle.


Field due to sheets: In the region between the identical sheets, their fields oppose and cancel (\(\vec{E}_{net} \approx 0\)). Outside, they add up.


Field due to sphere: Radial outward (\(E \propto 1/r^2\)).


Points A and B are between the left sheet and the sphere. Based on the diagram structure (Sheet--B--A--Sphere), both are to the left of the sphere.


Since the background field from sheets is zero, the net field is dominated by the sphere.


Point A is closer to the sphere than point B. Since \(E \propto 1/r^2\), magnitude \(E_A > E_B\).


Both A and B are to the left of the positive sphere, so both fields point to the Left. Thus vectors are parallel, justifying the notation \(\vec{E}_A > \vec{E}_B\) (implying magnitude comparison of parallel vectors).


Points C and D are on the far outsides. C is left of left sheet (Field Left). D is right of right sheet (Field Right).


Since directions are opposite, \(\vec{E}_C \neq \vec{E}_D\).
Quick Tip: Superposition principle: Net field is the vector sum of individual fields. In the region between two identical positive plates, the uniform field is zero.


Question 44:

Two small spherical balls of mass 10 g each with charges \(-2\mu C\) and \(2\mu C\), are attached to two ends of very light rigid rod of length 20 cm. The arrangement is now placed near an infinite nonconducting charge sheet with uniform charge density of \(100\mu C/m^2\) such that length of rod makes an angle of \(30^\circ\) with electric field generated by charge sheet. Net torque acting on the rod is:

  • (1) 112 Nm
  • (2) 1.12 Nm
  • (3) 2.24 Nm
  • (4) 11.2 Nm
Correct Answer: (2) 1.12 Nm
View Solution



The electric field \(E\) due to the infinite sheet is \(E = \frac{\sigma}{2\epsilon_0}\).

\(\sigma = 100 \mu C/m^2 = 10^{-4} C/m^2\).

\(E = \frac{10^{-4}}{2 \times 8.85 \times 10^{-12}} \approx 5.65 \times 10^6\) N/C.


The system is an electric dipole with \(p = qd\).

\(p = (2 \times 10^{-6} C) \times (0.2 m) = 4 \times 10^{-7}\) Cm.


Torque \(\tau = pE \sin \theta\).

\(\tau = (4 \times 10^{-7}) \times \left( \frac{10^{-4}}{2\epsilon_0} \right) \times \sin 30^\circ\).

\(\tau = \frac{2 \times 10^{-11}}{\epsilon_0} \times \frac{1}{2} = \frac{10^{-11}}{8.85 \times 10^{-12}} \approx 1.13\) Nm.


Closest option is 1.12 Nm.
Quick Tip: \(\tau = \vec{p} \times \vec{E}\).


Question 45:

Considering the Bohr model of hydrogen like atoms, the ratio of the radius \(5^{th}\) orbit of the electron in \(Li^{2+}\) and \(He^+\) is

  • (1) \(\frac{3}{2}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{4}{9}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{9}{4}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{2}{3}\)
Correct Answer: (4) \(\frac{2}{3}\)
View Solution



Bohr radius formula: \(r_n \propto \frac{n^2}{Z}\).


For \(Li^{2+}\), atomic number \(Z_1 = 3\). Orbit \(n=5\).

\(r_{Li} \propto \frac{25}{3}\).


For \(He^{+}\), atomic number \(Z_2 = 2\). Orbit \(n=5\).

\(r_{He} \propto \frac{25}{2}\).


Ratio \(\frac{r_{Li}}{r_{He}} = \frac{25/3}{25/2} = \frac{2}{3}\).
Quick Tip: \(r_n = 0.529 \frac{n^2}{Z} \mathring{A}\).


Question 46:

A circular ring and a solid sphere having same radius roll down on an inclined plane from rest without slipping. The ratio of their velocities when reached at the bottom of the plane is \(\sqrt{\frac{x}{5}}\) where x = _______.

Correct Answer: 3.5
View Solution



Velocity of a body rolling down an incline of height \(h\) is \(v = \sqrt{\frac{2gh}{1 + \frac{I}{mR^2}}}\).


For Ring: \(I = mR^2 \implies \frac{I}{mR^2} = 1\).

\(v_{ring} = \sqrt{\frac{2gh}{2}} = \sqrt{gh}\).


For Solid Sphere: \(I = \frac{2}{5}mR^2 \implies \frac{I}{mR^2} = 0.4\).

\(v_{sphere} = \sqrt{\frac{2gh}{1.4}} = \sqrt{\frac{20gh}{14}} = \sqrt{\frac{10gh}{7}}\).


Ratio \(\frac{v_{ring}}{v_{sphere}} = \sqrt{\frac{gh}{10gh/7}} = \sqrt{\frac{7}{10}} = \sqrt{\frac{3.5}{5}}\).


Comparing with \(\sqrt{\frac{x}{5}}\), we get \(x = 3.5\).
Quick Tip: Rolling velocity depends on the distribution of mass. More central mass (lower I) leads to higher translational velocity.


Question 47:

Two slabs with square cross section of different materials (1, 2) with equal sides (l) and thickness \(d_1\) and \(d_2\) such that \(d_2 = 2 d_1\) and \(l > d_2\). Considering lower edges of these slabs are fixed to the floor, we apply equal shearing force on the narrow faces. The angle of deformation is \(\theta_2 = 2\theta_1\). If the shear moduli of material 1 is \(4 \times 10^9\) N/m\(^2\), then shear moduli of material 2 is \(x \times 10^9\) N/m\(^2\), where value of x is _______.

Correct Answer: 1
View Solution



Shear modulus \(G = \frac{Shear Stress}{Shear Strain} = \frac{F/A}{\theta}\).


Here, force \(F\) is applied on the narrow face of area \(A = l \times d\).

\(G = \frac{F}{ld\theta}\).


Since \(F\) and \(l\) are constant for both, \(G \cdot d \cdot \theta = constant\).

\(G_1 d_1 \theta_1 = G_2 d_2 \theta_2\).


Substitute \(d_2 = 2d_1\) and \(\theta_2 = 2\theta_1\):

\(G_1 d_1 \theta_1 = G_2 (2d_1) (2\theta_1) = 4 G_2 d_1 \theta_1\).

\(G_1 = 4 G_2 \implies G_2 = \frac{G_1}{4}\).

\(G_2 = \frac{4 \times 10^9}{4} = 1 \times 10^9\) N/m\(^2\).

\(x = 1\).
Quick Tip: Ensure you identify the correct surface area A for stress calculation. Shear stress acts on the face parallel to the force.


Question 48:

Distance between object and its image (magnified by \(-\frac{1}{3}\)) is 30 cm. The focal length of the mirror used is \((\frac{x}{4})\) cm, where magnitude of value of x is _______.

Correct Answer: 45
View Solution



Magnification \(m = -\frac{v}{u} = -\frac{1}{3}\). This implies \(v = \frac{u}{3}\).


Since \(m\) is negative, the image is real and formed on the same side as the object (for a mirror).


Distance between object and image is \(|u - v|\).

\(|u - \frac{u}{3}| = \frac{2u}{3}\).


Given distance is 30 cm: \(\frac{2u}{3} = 30 \implies u = 45\) cm.

\(v = \frac{45}{3} = 15\) cm.


Using mirror formula (concave mirror sign convention: \(u, v\) negative):

\(\frac{1}{f} = \frac{1}{-15} + \frac{1}{-45} = \frac{-3-1}{45} = \frac{-4}{45}\).

\(f = -\frac{45}{4}\) cm.


Magnitude \(|f| = \frac{45}{4}\).


Comparing with \(\frac{x}{4}\), we get \(x = 45\).
Quick Tip: \(|u-v|\) is the distance between object and image.


Question 49:

Four capacitors each of capacitance \(16 \mu F\) are connected as shown in the figure. The capacitance between points A and B is: _______ (in \(\mu F\)).

Correct Answer: 16
View Solution



Based on the standard bridge or parallel-series configuration shown in such diagrams:





The circuit consists of two parallel branches connected between nodes A and B (or an intermediate equivalent structure).


Upper branch contains two capacitors. Lower branch contains two capacitors.


Or, effectively, it is a combination of \((C \parallel C)\) in series with \((C \parallel C)\).

\(C_{parallel} = 16 + 16 = 32 \mu F\).


The total capacitance is the series combination of two \(32 \mu F\) equivalents:

\(C_{eq} = \frac{32 \times 32}{32 + 32} = 16 \mu F\).


Thus, the equivalent capacitance is equal to the individual capacitance \(C\).


Result = 16.
Quick Tip: Symmetric circuits often simplify to the value of a single component or simple multiples.


Question 50:

Conductor wire ABCDE with each arm 10 cm in length is placed in magnetic field of \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\) Tesla, perpendicular to its plane. When conductor is pulled towards right with constant velocity of 10 cm/s, induced emf between points A and E is _______ mV.


Correct Answer: 10
View Solution



The induced EMF is given by \(\epsilon = B v l_{eff}\), where \(l_{eff}\) is the effective length of the conductor perpendicular to the velocity.


The wire spans vertically (perpendicular to \(v\)) via the V-shape BCD.


The vertical projection of BCD (with side 10 cm and \(90^\circ\) angle) is calculated:

\(l_{eff} = BC \cos 45^\circ + CD \cos 45^\circ = 10(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}) + 10(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}) = 10\sqrt{2}\) cm.


Convert to meters: \(L = 0.1\sqrt{2}\) m.


Given \(B = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\) T and \(v = 0.1\) m/s.

\(\epsilon = \left( \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \right) (0.1) (0.1\sqrt{2})\).

\(\epsilon = 0.1 \times 0.1 = 0.01\) V.


Convert to mV: \(0.01 V = 10 mV\).
Quick Tip: Effective length \(l_{eff}\) is the distance between the endpoints projected onto the plane perpendicular to velocity.


Question 51:

XY is the membrane / partition between two chambers 1 and 2 containing sugar solutions of concentration \(c_1\) and \(c_2\) (\(c_1 > c_2\)) mol L\(^{-1}\). For the reverse osmosis to take place identify the correct condition
(Here \(p_1\) and \(p_2\) are pressures applied on chamber 1 and 2 )
(A) Membrane/Partition ; Cellophane, \(p_1 > \pi\)
(B) Membrane/Partition ; Porous. \(p_2 > \pi\)
(C) Membrane/Partition ; Parchment paper, \(p_1 > \pi\)
(D) Membrane/Partition : Cellophane, \(p_2 > \pi\)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


  • (1) B and D only
  • (2) A and D only
  • (3) A and C only
  • (4) C only
Correct Answer: (3) A and C only
View Solution



Reverse osmosis occurs when a pressure greater than the osmotic pressure (\(\pi\)) is applied to the solution with the higher concentration, forcing solvent to flow from high concentration to low concentration through a semi-permeable membrane (SPM).


Here, chamber 1 has concentration \(c_1\) and chamber 2 has \(c_2\), with \(c_1 > c_2\).


Therefore, chamber 1 has higher osmotic pressure. To reverse the natural flow (which is \(2 \to 1\)), we must apply pressure \(p_1 > \pi\) on chamber 1.


The membrane must be semi-permeable. Cellophane and Parchment paper act as semi-permeable membranes. A simple "porous" partition is usually fully permeable to solute and solvent, not selective.


Condition (A): Cellophane (SPM), \(p_1 > \pi\). Correct.


Condition (C): Parchment paper (SPM), \(p_1 > \pi\). Correct.


Conditions (B) and (D) suggest applying pressure on chamber 2 (\(p_2\)), which would enhance forward osmosis, or use incorrect membranes.


Thus, A and C are correct.
Quick Tip: Reverse Osmosis requires \(P_{applied} > \pi\) on the concentrated side. SPM is mandatory.


Question 52:

Let us consider a reversible reaction at temperature, T . In this reaction, both \(\Delta H\) and \(\Delta S\) were observed to have positive values. If the equilibrium temperature is \(T_e\), then the reaction becomes spontaneous at:

  • (1) \(T = T_e\)
  • (2) \(T_e > T\)
  • (3) \(T > T_e\)
  • (4) \(T_e = 5 T\)
Correct Answer: (3) \(T > T_e\)
View Solution



Gibbs free energy change is given by \(\Delta G = \Delta H - T\Delta S\).


For spontaneity, \(\Delta G < 0\).


Given \(\Delta H > 0\) and \(\Delta S > 0\).


At equilibrium temperature \(T_e\), \(\Delta G = 0 \implies \Delta H = T_e \Delta S \implies T_e = \frac{\Delta H}{\Delta S}\).


For spontaneity (\(\Delta H - T\Delta S < 0\)):

\(T\Delta S > \Delta H\).

\(T > \frac{\Delta H}{\Delta S}\).


Therefore, \(T > T_e\).
Quick Tip: Endothermic reactions with positive entropy change become spontaneous at high temperatures (\(T > \Delta H / \Delta S\)).


Question 53:

Which of the following molecules(s) show/s paramagnetic behavior?
(A) \(O_2\)
(B) \(N_2\)
(C) \(F_2\)
(D) \(S_2\)
(E) \(Cl_2\)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) B only
  • (2) A \& C only
  • (3) A \& E only
  • (4) A \& D only
Correct Answer: (4) A \& D only
View Solution



Paramagnetism arises due to the presence of unpaired electrons in Molecular Orbitals (MO).


(A) \(O_2\) (16 electrons): Configuration ends in \(\pi^*2p_x^1 = \pi^*2p_y^1\). Two unpaired electrons. Paramagnetic.


(B) \(N_2\) (14 electrons): All electrons paired. Diamagnetic.


(C) \(F_2\) (18 electrons): All electrons paired. Diamagnetic.


(D) \(S_2\) (Valence shell like \(O_2\)): Like oxygen, vapor phase sulfur (\(S_2\)) has two unpaired electrons in antibonding \(\pi^*\) orbitals. Paramagnetic.


(E) \(Cl_2\) (Valence shell like \(F_2\)): All electrons paired. Diamagnetic.


Therefore, \(O_2\) and \(S_2\) are paramagnetic.
Quick Tip: Molecules with 10 or 16 valence electrons (like \(B_2, O_2, S_2\)) are typically paramagnetic according to MOT.


Question 54:

Aldol condensation is a popular and classical method to prepare \(\alpha, \beta\)-unsaturated carbonyl compounds. This reaction can be both intermolecular and intramolecular. Predict which one of the following is not a product of intramolecular aldol condensation?



  • (1) [ Bicyclic ketone with double bond]
  • (2) [ Bicyclic ketone with double bond]
  • (3) [ Monocyclic ketone with double bond]
  • (4) [ Bicyclic ketone with exocyclic double bond]
Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution



Intramolecular aldol condensation typically forms 5 or 6-membered rings due to stability (entropy and angle strain factors).


We need to check if the product can be formed by cyclization of a dicarbonyl precursor.


Option (1), (2), (3): These structures represent stable ring systems (often 6+6 or 5+6 fused) formed from diketones via dehydration.


Option (4): This structure typically involves a bridging or strained arrangement or a precursor that wouldn't favor that specific closure over other possibilities.


Without the exact visual structures in text, general chemical intuition for JEE questions on this topic points to 'bridged' or 'highly strained' products or products requiring formation of 3/4/7+ membered rings when 5/6 are possible as the "Not formed" answers.


Assuming standard option sets for this question type: Option (4) usually depicts a structure that violates Baldwin's rules or forms a less stable ring size compared to alternatives.
Quick Tip: Intramolecular aldol favors the formation of stable 5 and 6-membered rings.


Question 55:

One mole of an ideal gas expands isothermally and reversibly from \(10 dm^3\) to \(20 dm^3\) at 300 K. \(\Delta U\), \(q\) and work done in the process respectively are :
Given : \(R = 8.3 JK^{-1}\) and mol\(^{-1}\)
\(\ln 10 = 2.3\)
\(\log 2 = 0.30\)
\(\log 3 = 0.48\)

  • (1) 0, 21.84 kJ, -1.26 kJ
  • (2) 0, -17.18 kJ, 1.718 J
  • (3) 0, 21.84 kJ, 21, 84 kJ
  • (4) 0, 1.718 kJ, -1.718 kJ
Correct Answer: (4) 0, 1.718 kJ, -1.718 kJ
View Solution



Process is Isothermal (\(\Delta T = 0\)) for an ideal gas.


Therefore, Internal Energy change \(\Delta U = nC_v \Delta T = 0\).


Work done in reversible isothermal expansion: \(w = -nRT \ln(V_2/V_1)\).

\(w = -2.303 nRT \log(V_2/V_1)\).

\(n = 1\), \(R = 8.3\), \(T = 300\), \(V_2/V_1 = 20/10 = 2\).

\(w = -2.303 \times 1 \times 8.3 \times 300 \times 0.30\).

\(w \approx -2.3 \times 8.3 \times 90 = -1718\) J = \(-1.718\) kJ.


From First Law: \(\Delta U = q + w\).

\(0 = q + (-1.718) \implies q = 1.718\) kJ.


Order: \(\Delta U, q, w \rightarrow 0, 1.718 kJ, -1.718 kJ\).
Quick Tip: For ideal gas isothermal process, \(\Delta U = 0\) and \(q = -w\).


Question 56:

Which one of the following complexes will have \(\Delta_0 = 0\) and \(\mu = 5.96\) B.M.?

  • (1) \([Fe(CN)_6]^4\)
  • (2) \([Co(NH_3)_6]^{3+}\)
  • (3) \([FeF_6]^4\)
  • (4) \([Mn(SCN)_6]^4\)
Correct Answer: (4) \([Mn(SCN)_6]^4\)
View Solution



We need magnetic moment \(\mu = 5.96\) BM.

\(\mu = \sqrt{n(n+2)}\). For \(n=5\), \(\mu = \sqrt{35} \approx 5.92\). So we need 5 unpaired electrons (\(d^5\) high spin).


Also condition \(\Delta_0 = 0\) probably refers to CFSE = 0.


CFSE for High Spin \(d^5\) (\(t_{2g}^3 e_g^2\)) is \(3(-0.4\Delta_o) + 2(0.6\Delta_o) = 0\).


Let's analyze options:


(1) \([Fe(CN)_6]^{4-}\): \(Fe^{2+} (d^6)\). Strong ligand. Low spin \(t_{2g}^6\). \(n=0\).


(2) \([Co(NH_3)_6]^{3+}\): \(Co^{3+} (d^6)\). Strong ligand. Low spin \(t_{2g}^6\). \(n=0\).


(3) \([FeF_6]^4\) (assuming \([FeF_6]^{4-}\)): \(Fe^{2+} (d^6)\). Weak ligand. High spin \(t_{2g}^4 e_g^2\). \(n=4\). \(\mu = 4.9\). (CFSE \(\neq 0\)).


(4) \([Mn(SCN)_6]^4\) (assuming \([Mn(SCN)_6]^{4-}\)): \(Mn^{2+} (d^5)\). SCN is weak. High spin \(t_{2g}^3 e_g^2\). \(n=5\). \(\mu \approx 5.9\). CFSE = 0.


Option (4) satisfies all conditions.
Quick Tip: For High Spin \(d^5\) configuration, CFSE is zero and magnetic moment is maximum (~5.9 BM).


Question 57:

For \(A_2 + B_2 \rightleftharpoons 2AB\), \(E_a\) for forward and backward reaction are 180 and 200 kJ mol\(^{-1}\) respectively. If catalyst lowers \(E_a\) for both reaction by 100 kJ mol\(^{-1}\). Which of the following statement is correct?

  • (1) Catalyst does not alter the Gibbs energy change of a reaction.
  • (2) Catalyst can cause non-spontaneous reactions to occur.
  • (3) The enthalpy change for the reaction is +20 kJ mol\(^{-1}\).
  • (4) The enthalpy change for the catalysed reaction is different from that of uncatalysed reaction.
Correct Answer: (1) Catalyst does not alter the Gibbs energy change of a reaction.
View Solution


\(\Delta H = E_{a(forward)} - E_{a(backward)} = 180 - 200 = -20\) kJ/mol. (Statement 3 is false).


A catalyst lowers the activation energy of both forward and backward reactions by the same amount.


The enthalpy change \(\Delta H\) and Gibbs free energy change \(\Delta G\) are state functions determined by reactants and products, not the path.


Thus, a catalyst does not alter \(\Delta H\) or \(\Delta G\). (Statement 1 is true).


Catalysts cannot make a non-spontaneous reaction (\(\Delta G > 0\)) spontaneous. (Statement 2 is false).
Quick Tip: Catalysts affect kinetics (\(E_a\), rate) but not thermodynamics (\(\Delta H, \Delta G, K_{eq}\)).


Question 58:

Rate law for a reaction between A and B is given by \(R = k[A]^n [B]^m\). If concentration of A is doubled and concentration of B is halved from their initial value, the ratio of new rate of reaction to the initial rate of reaction (\(\frac{r_2}{r_1}\)) is

  • (1) \(2^{(n-m)}\)
  • (2) \((n-m)\)
  • (3) \((m+n)\)
  • (4) \(\frac{1}{2^{(m+n)}}\)
Correct Answer: (1) \(2^{(n-m)}\)
View Solution



Initial rate \(r_1 = k [A]^n [B]^m\).


New conditions: \([A'] = 2[A]\), \([B'] = \frac{1}{2}[B]\).


New rate \(r_2 = k [2A]^n [\frac{1}{2}B]^m = k \cdot 2^n [A]^n \cdot (\frac{1}{2})^m [B]^m\).

\(r_2 = k [A]^n [B]^m \cdot 2^n \cdot 2^{-m}\).

\(r_2 = r_1 \cdot 2^{n-m}\).


Ratio \(\frac{r_2}{r_1} = 2^{(n-m)}\).
Quick Tip: Substitute the scaling factors directly into the rate law to find the rate change factor.


Question 59:

Number of stereoisomers possible for the complexes, \([CrCl_3(py)_3]\) and \([CrCl_2(ox)_2]^{3-}\) are respectively
(py = pyridine, ox = oxalate)

  • (1) 3\&3
  • (2) 2\&2
  • (3) 2\&3
  • (4) 1\&2
Correct Answer: (3) 2\&3
View Solution



Complex 1: \([CrCl_3(py)_3]\) is of type \(MA_3B_3\).


Octahedral \(MA_3B_3\) exhibits Geometrical Isomerism: Facial (fac) and Meridional (mer).


Both are optically inactive (planes of symmetry).


Total stereoisomers = 2 (Geometric).


Complex 2: \([CrCl_2(ox)_2]^{3-}\) is of type \(M(AA)_2a_2\) (where AA is bidentate oxalate).


Geometric isomers: Cis and Trans.


- Trans form: Optically inactive (plane of symmetry). (1 isomer).


- Cis form: Optically active (non-superimposable mirror image). Exists as d and l pair. (2 isomers).


Total stereoisomers = 1 (Trans) + 2 (Cis-d, Cis-l) = 3.


Answer is 2 and 3.
Quick Tip: \(MA_3B_3 \to\) Fac/Mer. \(M(AA)_2B_2 \to\) Cis (Active), Trans (Inactive).


Question 60:

The major product (A) formed in the following reaction sequence is


  • (1) p-Bromoaniline
  • (2) m-Bromoaniline
  • (3) 2,4,6-Tribromoaniline
  • (4) p-Bromoacetanilide
Correct Answer: (2) p-Bromoaniline
View Solution





Step 1: Reduction

Nitrobenzene is reduced to aniline using Sn/HCl: \[ C_6H_5NO_2 \xrightarrow{Sn/HCl} C_6H_5NH_2 \]

Step 2: Acetylation (Protection of –NH\(_2\) group)

Aniline is acetylated using acetic anhydride in pyridine to form acetanilide: \[ C_6H_5NH_2 \xrightarrow{Ac_2O / Py} C_6H_5NHCOCH_3 \]
This step reduces the activating nature of the amino group and prevents polysubstitution.

Step 3: Bromination

Acetanilide undergoes bromination in acetic acid: \[ Acetanilide \xrightarrow{Br_2/AcOH} p-Bromoacetanilide (major) \]
The amide group is ortho/para directing, and due to steric hindrance, para substitution predominates.

Step 4: Hydrolysis (Deprotection)

The acetyl group is removed on hydrolysis: \[ p-Bromoacetanilide \xrightarrow{NaOH (aq)} p-Bromoaniline \]

Hence, the major product formed is p-Bromoaniline.


Correct Answer: (2) Quick Tip: Acetylation of aniline protects the group and reduces reactivity, preventing poly-substitution and directing incoming electrophiles to the para position mainly.


Question 61:

On charging the lead storage battery, the oxidation state of lead changes from \(x_1\) to \(y_1\) at the anode and from \(x_2\) to \(y_2\) at the cathode. The values of \(x_1, y_1, x_2, y_2\) are respectively:

  • (1) +4, +2, 0, +2
  • (2) +2, 0, +2, +4
  • (3) 0, +2, +4, +2
  • (4) +2, 0, 0, +4
Correct Answer: (2) +2, 0, +2, +4
View Solution




In lead storage battery questions, the terms anode and \textit{cathode refer to the
physical battery plates as named during discharging. During charging, the reactions
are reversed, but the electrode names remain the same.


During discharging:

Anode (Pb plate): \[ Pb \rightarrow PbSO_4 \quad (0 \rightarrow +2) \]
Cathode (PbO\(_2\) plate): \[ PbO_2 \rightarrow PbSO_4 \quad (+4 \rightarrow +2) \]

During charging (reverse reactions):


At the anode (Pb plate):
\[ PbSO_4 + 2e^- \rightarrow Pb + SO_4^{2- \]
Oxidation state of Pb changes from \(+2\) to \(0\).


At the cathode (PbO\(_2\) plate):
\[ PbSO_4 + 2H_2O \rightarrow PbO_2 + SO_4^{2-} + 4H^+ + 2e^- \]
Oxidation state of Pb changes from \(+2\) to \(+4\).


Hence, \[ x_1 = +2,\quad y_1 = 0,\quad x_2 = +2,\quad y_2 = +4 \]

Correct Answer: (2) Quick Tip: In rechargeable batteries, the electrode that is the Anode during discharge becomes the Cathode during charge, and vice-versa. Reaction reverses.


Question 62:

Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Nitrogen forms oxides with +1 to +5 oxidation states due to the formation of \(p\pi - p\pi\) bond with oxygen.
Statement II: Nitrogen does not form halides with +5 oxidation state due to the absence of d-orbital in it.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  • (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
Correct Answer: (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
View Solution



Statement I: Nitrogen shows oxidation states from +1 to +5 in oxides (\(N_2O, NO, N_2O_3, NO_2, N_2O_5\)). This wide range and the stability of monomeric oxides are largely due to the ability of small Nitrogen atoms to form strong multiple \(p\pi - p\pi\) bonds with Oxygen. True.


Statement II: Nitrogen cannot expand its octet to form 5 bonds (like \(NCl_5\)) because it lacks vacant d-orbitals in its valence shell (n=2). Thus, \(NX_5\) halides do not exist. True.
Quick Tip: Nitrogen is restricted to a maximum covalency of 4 due to the absence of d-orbitals.


Question 63:

Benzene is treated with oleum to produce compound (X) which when further heated with molten sodium hydroxide followed by acidification produces compound (Y). The compound Y is treated with zinc metal to produce compound (Z). Identify the structure of compound (Z) from the following option.


Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution



1. Benzene + Oleum \(\to\) Benzenesulfonic acid (X). (\(Ph-SO_3H\)).


2. \(Ph-SO_3H\) + molten NaOH, \(\Delta\), then \(H^+\) \(\to\) Phenol (Y). (\(Ph-OH\)). (Dow's process type fusion).


3. Phenol + Zn dust, \(\Delta\) \(\to\) Benzene (Z). (\(Ph-H\)). (Reduction of phenol).


Structure Z is Benzene.
Quick Tip: Zn dust reduces Phenol to Benzene.


Question 64:

Identify the pair of reactants that upon reaction, with elimination of HCl will give rise to the dipeptide Gly-Ala.

  • (1) \(NH_2-CH_2-COCl\) and \(NH_2-CH-COOH\)
  • (2) \(NH_2-CH_2-COCl\) and \(NH_3-CH-COCl\)
  • (3) \(NH_2-CH_2-COOH\) and \(NH_2-CH-COCl\)
  • (4) \(NH_2-CH_2-COOH\) and \(NH_2-CH-COOH\)
Correct Answer: (1) \(\text{NH}_2-\text{CH}_2-\text{COCl}\) and \(\text{NH}_2-\text{CH}-\text{COOH}\)
View Solution



Gly-Ala means Glycine (N-terminal) is bonded to Alanine (C-terminal).


Structure: \(H_2N-CH_2-CO-NH-CH(CH_3)-COOH\).


To form this with the elimination of HCl, we need an acyl chloride reacting with an amine.


The carbonyl group comes from Glycine, so it must be Glycyl chloride: \(NH_2-CH_2-COCl\).


The amine group comes from Alanine, so it must be Alanine: \(NH_2-CH(CH_3)-COOH\) (represented as \(NH_2-CH-COOH\) in options).


Reaction: \(Gly-COCl + H_2N-Ala \to Gly-CO-NH-Ala + HCl\).
Quick Tip: The N-terminal amino acid provides the carboxyl/acyl group for the peptide bond formation.


Question 65:

Given below are the pairs of group 13 elements showing their relation in terms of atomic radius. (B < Al), (Al < Ga), (Ga < In) and (In < Tl) Identify the elements present in the incorrect pair and in that pair find out the element (X) that has higher ionic radius (M\(^{3+}\)) than the other one. The atomic number of the element (X) is

  • (1) 31
  • (2) 49
  • (3) 13
  • (4) 81
Correct Answer: (1) 31
View Solution



Atomic radii trend for Group 13: B < Ga < Al < In < Tl.


The anomaly is that Gallium (Ga, 135 pm) is smaller than Aluminum (Al, 143 pm) due to poor shielding by 3d electrons.


Therefore, the statement/pair \((Al < Ga)\) is incorrect.


The elements in this incorrect pair are Al (Z=13) and Ga (Z=31).


We must compare the ionic radii of their trivalent ions (\(M^{3+}\)).


Ionic radii follow the regular trend down the group: \(B^{3+} < Al^{3+} < Ga^{3+} < In^{3+} < Tl^{3+}\).

\(Al^{3+} \approx 54\) pm.

\(Ga^{3+} \approx 62\) pm.


Between Al and Ga, Ga has the higher ionic radius.


The atomic number of element X (Ga) is 31.
Quick Tip: Atomic radius anomaly: Ga < Al. Ionic radius trend: Al\(^{3+}\) < Ga\(^{3+}\).


Question 66:

An organic compound (X) with molecular formula \(C_3H_6O\) is not readily oxidised. On reduction it gives \(C_3H_8O\) (Y) which reacts with HBr to give a bromide (Z) which is converted to Grignard reagent. This Grignard reagent on reaction with (X) followed by hydrolysis give 2,3-dimethylbutan-2-ol. Compounds (X), (Y) and (Z) respectively are:

  • (1) \(CH_3COCH_3, CH_3CH_2CH_2OH, CH_3CH(Br)CH_3\)
  • (2) \(CH_3COCH_3, CH_3CH(OH)CH_3, CH_3CH(Br)CH_3\)
  • (3) \(CH_3CH_2CHO, CH_3CH_2CH_2OH, CH_3CH_2CH_2Br\)
  • (4) \(CH_3CH_2CHO, CH_3CH = CH_2, CH_3CH(Br)CH_3\)
Correct Answer: (2) \(\text{CH}_3\text{COCH}_3, \text{CH}_3\text{CH(OH)CH}_3, \text{CH}_3\text{CH(Br)CH}_3\)
View Solution



1. X (\(C_3H_6O\)) is "not readily oxidised". This indicates a Ketone. X = Acetone (\(CH_3COCH_3\)).


2. Reduction of Acetone yields Isopropyl alcohol. Y = \(CH_3CH(OH)CH_3\).


3. Reaction of Y with HBr yields Isopropyl bromide. Z = \(CH_3CH(Br)CH_3\).


4. Grignard from Z is Isopropyl magnesium bromide (\(i-PrMgBr\)).


5. Reaction of \(i-PrMgBr\) with X (Acetone):


Nucleophilic addition of isopropyl group to carbonyl carbon of acetone.


Result: \((CH_3)_2C(OH)-CH(CH_3)_2\).


Name: 2,3-dimethylbutan-2-ol. This matches the product given.


Therefore, option (2) is correct.
Quick Tip: Ketones are resistant to mild oxidation (Tollens/Fehling), unlike aldehydes. Grignard + Ketone \(\to\) Tertiary Alcohol.


Question 67:

Predict the major product of the following reaction sequence:
[Methylcyclohexane \(\xrightarrow{(1) Br_2/h\nu} \xrightarrow{(2) Alc. KOH, \Delta} \xrightarrow{(3) H-Br/R-O-O-R, h\nu}\) ?]

  • (1) 1-bromo-1-methylcyclohexane
  • (2) 1-bromo-2-methylcyclohexane
  • (3) (Bromomethyl)cyclohexane
  • (4) 1-bromo-3-methylcyclohexane
Correct Answer: (2) 1-bromo-2-methylcyclohexane
View Solution



Step 1: Bromination of Methylcyclohexane (\(Br_2/h\nu\)). Selectivity favors tertiary hydrogen. Product is 1-bromo-1-methylcyclohexane.


Step 2: Dehydrohalogenation (Alc. KOH, \(\Delta\)). Elimination follows Zaitsev's rule to give the most substituted alkene. Product is 1-methylcyclohexene.


Step 3: Hydrobromination with Peroxide (HBr/ROOR). This is Anti-Markovnikov addition.


The Br adds to the less hindered carbon of the double bond (C2), and H adds to the more substituted carbon (C1) to proceed via the more stable tertiary radical intermediate at C1.


Structure: H on C1 (Methyl group), Br on C2.


Product: 1-bromo-2-methylcyclohexane.
Quick Tip: Anti-Markovnikov addition (Peroxide effect) works only with HBr. It directs Br to the less substituted carbon of the alkene.


Question 68:

Given below are two statements.
Statement I: The dipole moment of \(CH_3-CH=CH-CH=O\) is greater than \(CH_3-CH_2-CH_2-CH=O\).
Statement II: \(C_1-C_2\) bond length of \(CH_3-CH=CH-CH=O\) is greater than \(C_1-C_2\) of \(CH_3-CH_2-CH_2-CH=O\).
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
Correct Answer: (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
View Solution



Statement I: The conjugated enal system (\(C=C-C=O\)) allows for resonance contribution of polar forms (\(C^+-C=C-O^-\)), significantly increasing the dipole moment compared to the saturated aldehyde. True.


Statement II: In the conjugated system, the single bond between the alkene and carbonyl carbons (\(C_2-C_1\)) acquires partial double bond character due to resonance. This makes it shorter than the pure single bond found in the saturated analog. Thus, the bond length is smaller, not greater. False.
Quick Tip: Resonance imparts double bond character to single bonds connecting conjugated systems, shortening them.


Question 69:

Pair of transition metal ions having the same number of unpaired electrons is :

  • (1) \(V^{2+}, Co^{2+}\)
  • (2) \(Ti^{2+}, Co^{2+}\)
  • (3) \(Fe^{3+}, Cr^{2+}\)
  • (4) \(Ti^{3+}, Mn^{2+}\)
Correct Answer: (1) \(V^{2+}, Co^{2+}\)
View Solution


\(V^{2+}\): \(Z=23\). Configuration \(3d^3\). Number of unpaired electrons \(n = 3\).

\(Co^{2+}\): \(Z=27\). Configuration \(3d^7\). In weak field/free ion, filling is \(t_{2g}^5 e_g^2\). Unpaired electrons \(n = 3\).


Since both have \(n=3\), they form the correct pair.


Check others: \(Ti^{2+}(d^2, n=2)\), \(Fe^{3+}(d^5, n=5)\), \(Cr^{2+}(d^4, n=4)\), \(Ti^{3+}(d^1, n=1)\), \(Mn^{2+}(d^5, n=5)\).
Quick Tip: For d-block ions, remove s-electrons first. For \(d^1-d^5\), \(n=\) number of electrons. For \(d^6-d^{10}\), \(n=10-\) number of electrons.


Question 70:

Which one of the following about an electron occupying the 1s orbital in a hydrogen atom is incorrect? (Bohr's radius is represented by \(a_0\) )

  • (1) The probability density of finding the electron is maximum at the nucleus
  • (2) The electron can be found at a distance \(2a_0\) from the nucleus
  • (3) The 1s orbital is spherically symmetrical
  • (4) The total energy of the electron is maximum when it is at a distance \(a_0\) from the nucleus
Correct Answer: (4) The total energy of the electron is maximum when it is at a distance \(a_0\) from the nucleus
View Solution



(1) Probability density \(\psi^2\) for 1s orbital (\(\psi \propto e^{-r/a_0}\)) is maximum at \(r=0\). Correct.


(2) The wavefunction is non-zero everywhere (exponential decay). Finding it at \(2a_0\) is possible. Correct.


(3) S-orbitals are spherical. Correct.


(4) The total energy of an electron in a stationary state (like 1s) is constant \((-13.6 eV)\) and does not depend on position. The statement that energy is maximum at a specific distance is incorrect.
Quick Tip: Distinguish between Probability Density (\(\psi^2\), max at nucleus) and Radial Probability Distribution (\(4\pi r^2 \psi^2\), max at \(a_0\)). Total energy is constant.


Question 71:

In Dumas' method for estimation of nitrogen 1 g of an organic compound gave 150 mL of nitrogen collected at 300 K temperature and 900 mm Hg pressure. The percentage composition of nitrogen in the compound is _______% (nearest integer).
(Aqueous tension at 300 K = 15 mmHg )

Correct Answer: 20
View Solution



1. Pressure of dry \(N_2\): \(P = P_{total} - P_{aq} = 900 - 15 = 885\) mm Hg.


2. Convert to STP conditions (\(P_0 = 760\) mm, \(T_0 = 273\) K):

\(V_{STP} = V \times \frac{P}{P_0} \times \frac{T_0}{T} = 150 \times \frac{885}{760} \times \frac{273}{300}\).

\(V_{STP} = 150 \times 1.1645 \times 0.91 = 158.95\) mL.


3. Moles of \(N_2\): \(n = \frac{158.95}{22400} = 0.0071\) mol.


4. Mass of \(N_2\): \(0.0071 \times 28 = 0.1988\) g.


5. Percentage: \(\frac{0.1988}{1 g} \times 100 = 19.88%\).


Nearest integer is 20.
Quick Tip: Remember to correct for aqueous tension before applying gas laws.


Question 72:

\(KMnO_4\) acts as an oxidising agent in acidic medium. 'X' is the difference between the oxidation states of Mn in reactant and product. 'Y' is the number of 'd' electrons present in the brown red precipitate formed at the end of the acetate ion test with neutral ferric chloride. The value of X + Y is _______.

Correct Answer: 10
View Solution



1. Reaction of \(KMnO_4\) in acid: \(MnO_4^- (+7) \to Mn^{2+} (+2)\).


Difference \(X = 7 - 2 = 5\).


2. Acetate test: Ferric chloride reacts with acetate to form a complex, which on heating gives a precipitate of Basic Ferric Acetate / Ferric Hydroxide. The metal ion is Iron(III) (\(Fe^{3+}\)).


Electron configuration of \(Fe^{3+}\): Argon core plus \(3d^5\).


Number of d-electrons \(Y = 5\).


3. Sum \(X + Y = 5 + 5 = 10\).
Quick Tip: \(Fe^{3+}\) is a \(d^5\) system. Mn reduction in acid involves 5 electrons.


Question 73:

Fortification of food with iron is done using \(FeSO_4 \cdot 7H_2O\). The mass in grams of the \(FeSO_4 \cdot 7H_2O\) required to achieve 12 ppm of iron in 150 kg of wheat is _______ (Nearest integer).
(Given : Molar mass of Fe, S and O respectively are 56, 32 and 16 g mol\(^{-1}\))

Correct Answer: 9
View Solution



1. Required Iron: 12 ppm in 150 kg.


Mass of Fe \(= 12 \times 10^{-6} \times 150 \times 10^3 g = 1.8\) g.


2. Molar mass of \(FeSO_4 \cdot 7H_2O = 56 + 32 + 64 + 7(18) = 152 + 126 = 278\) g/mol.


3. Proportion: 56 g Fe is in 278 g salt.


1.8 g Fe is in \(\frac{278}{56} \times 1.8\) g salt.


Mass \(= 4.964 \times 1.8 = 8.935\) g.


Nearest integer is 9.
Quick Tip: 1 ppm = 1 mg/kg.


Question 74:

The pH of a 0.01 M weak acid HX (\(K_a = 4 \times 10^{-10}\)) is found to be 5. Now the acid solution is diluted with excess of water so that the pH of the solution changes to 6. The new concentration of the diluted weak acid is given as \(x \times 10^{-4}\) M. The value of x is _______ (nearest integer).

Correct Answer: 25
View Solution



New pH = 6 \(\implies [H^+] = 10^{-6}\) M.


For a weak acid, \([H^+] \approx \sqrt{K_a C}\).

\(10^{-6} = \sqrt{4 \times 10^{-10} \times C}\).


Squaring both sides: \(10^{-12} = 4 \times 10^{-10} \times C\).

\(C = \frac{10^{-12}}{4 \times 10^{-10}} = \frac{1}{4} \times 10^{-2} = 0.25 \times 10^{-2}\) M.

\(C = 2.5 \times 10^{-3}\) M = \(25 \times 10^{-4}\) M.


Value of \(x = 25\).
Quick Tip: For weak electrolytes, concentration is inversely proportional to the square of the degree of dissociation (or related pH shift), \(C = [H^+]^2/K_a\).


Question 75:

The total number of hydrogen bonds of a DNA-double Helix strand whose one strand has the following sequence of bases is _______.
\(5' - G - G - C - A - A - A - T - C - G - G - C - T - A - 3'\)

Correct Answer: 33
View Solution



Count the bases:


G: 4 occurrences.


C: 3 occurrences.


A: 4 occurrences.


T: 2 occurrences.


G-C pairs have 3 H-bonds. Total G and C bases = 7. Pairs = 7. H-bonds = \(7 \times 3 = 21\).


A-T pairs have 2 H-bonds. Total A and T bases = 6. Pairs = 6. H-bonds = \(6 \times 2 = 12\).


Total Hydrogen Bonds = \(21 + 12 = 33\).
Quick Tip: Number of H-bonds = \(3 \times (Number of G-C pairs) + 2 \times (Number of A-T pairs)\).


JEE Main 2025 April 4 Shift 1 Question Paper With Video Solutions

The JEE Main 2025 April 4 shift 1 Question Paper with Video Solution will be available here. Students can match their responses with the JEE Main 2025 April 4 Shift 1 Answer key with Solutions. Students who are appearing for JEE Main upcoming shifts can check the JEE Main April 4 Shift 1 Question Paper and video solution to understand the difficulty level of the exam.

JEE Main 2025 April 4 Shift 1 Difficulty Level Analysis

The Mathematics Section of JEE Main April 4 shift 1 was challenging and time-consuming. The Chemistry and Physics Section of JEE Main April 4 shift 1 is expected to be easy. Important topics in JEE Main 2025 Shift 1 include- Calculus, Probability, Algebra, Organic Chemistry, Chemical Bonding. The subject-wise test analysis of the JEE Main 2025 April 4 Shift 1 Question Paper will be released shortly.

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JEE Main Marking Scheme 2025

For JEE Main Paper 1(B.E/BTech), students are required to attempt 75 questions following a marking scheme of +4 for correct answers and -1 for incorrect ones. The marking scheme is the same across Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics sections totaling to 300 marks.

Paper Sections Questions Marks Marking Scheme
Paper 1 Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics 75 Questions (25 Physics, 25 Chemistry, 25 Mathematics) 300 total
  • Correct Answer: +4
  • Incorrect MCQ: -1

JEE Main 2025 Marking Criteria for Wrong Questions

If a Question is found to be wrong in JEE Main 2025 Exam, NTA uses the following criteria to mark student for the Questions

For MCQs

  • If more than one Question is incorrect, then +4 marks are awarded to all those students who mark any of the two correct answers.
  • If all options are correct , then +4 marks are awarded to all who attempted the Question.
  • If all Questions are wrong then or none of the provided options are correct then +4 marks are awarded to all students who appeared for the exam whether they have attempted it or not.

For Numerical Questions

  • If the Question is incorrect, then +4 marks are awarded to all students who have attempted the question.
  • The answer to the numerical value Question shall be rounded off to the nearest value.

Once you calculate your expected marks, you can review the JEE Main Question papers to improve your preparation.

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*The article might have information for the previous academic years, please refer the official website of the exam.

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