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Content Curator | Updated On - Apr 8, 2026

JEE Main 2026 April 6 Shift 1 Chemistry Question Paper with Solution PDF is available here for download. NTA conducted JEE Main April 6 Shift 1 from 9 AM to 12 PM in CBT Mode.

The JEE Main 2026 Chemistry Question Paper includes 25 questions, totalling 100 Marks. The question paper is divided into 2 sections – Section A and Section B. As per the JEE Main marking Scheme, candidates are awarded +4 marks for every correct answer, and -1 mark is deducted for every wrong answer.

JEE Main 2026 April 6 Shift 1 Chemistry Question Paper with Solution Pdf

JEE Main 2026 April 6 Shift 1 Chemistry Question Paper Download PDF Check Solutions
JEE Main 2026 April 6 Shift 1 Chemistry Question Paper with Solution Pdf

Question 1:

Hydrolysis of sucrose follows 1\(^{st}\) order kinetics to produce glucose and fructose. If (\(t_{1/2}\)) for decomposition of sucrose is 3 hr. Find % of sucrose left after 6 hr.

  • (1) 50%
  • (2) 25%
  • (3) 12.5%
  • (4) 75%

Question 2:

If at infinite dilution, molar conductivities of \(BaCl_2\), \(HCl\) and \(H_2SO_4\), are \(x_1\), \(x_2\), \(x_3\) \(S \cdot cm^2 mol^{-1}\) respectively. Find solubility product of \(BaSO_4\). Given \(\kappa_{BaSO_4}\) (Specific conductance) = \(x S \cdot cm^{-1}\)

  • (1) \( \left( \frac{x}{x_1 + x_3 - 2x_2} \right)^2 \times 10^6 \)
  • (2) \( \left( \frac{x_1 + x_3 - 2x_2}{x} \right)^2 \times 10^6 \)
  • (3) \( \left( \frac{x}{x_1 + x_3 - x_2} \right)^2 \times 10^3 \)
  • (4) \( \left( \frac{x}{x_1 + x_3 - x_2} \right)^2 \times 10^6 \)

Question 3:

For given four processes compare magnitude of work



Which of the following is correct option

  • (1) \(|W_1| > |W_2| > |W_3| > |W_4|\)
  • (2) \(|W_1| < |W_2| < |W_3| < |W_4|\)
  • (3) \(|W_1| < |W_3| < |W_2| < |W_4|\)
  • (4) \(|W_2| < |W_1| < |W_4| < |W_3|\)

Question 4:

A solution contain 0.25 moles of non-volatile solute dissolved in one mole of solvent. Then calculate % of vapour pressure of solution relative to vapour pressure of pure solvent?

  • (1) 20
  • (2) 40
  • (3) 60
  • (4) 80

Question 5:

1 mole of He and 1 mole A are taken in 10 L rigid container at 400 K and equilibrium \(A \rightleftharpoons B\) is established. Calculate partial pressure of He and B at equilibrium if \(K_C = 4\).

  • (1) 3.28 atm, 2.62 atm
  • (2) 2.6 atm, 3.28 atm
  • (3) 2.6 atm, 2.6 atm
  • (4) 3.28 atm, 3.28 atm

Question 6:

An oxide of iron contains 69.9% iron. Find its empirical formula. (Given : Atomic masses Fe= 56, O = 16)

  • (1) \(Fe_3O_4\)
  • (2) \(Fe_2O_3\)
  • (3) \(FeO_3\)
  • (4) \(FeO\)

Question 7:

Match Column-I with Column-II


Match the correct list -

  • (1) P-(iv), Q-(iii), R-(ii), S-(i)
  • (2) P-(iii), Q-(iv), R-(i), S-(ii)
  • (3) P-(i), Q-(ii), R-(iii), S-(iv)
  • (4) P-(ii), Q-(i), R-(iv), S-(iii)

Question 8:

For the reversible reaction at 300 K, \(\Delta H^\circ = 28.4\) KJ/mole and equilibrium constant \(K = 1.8 \times 10^{-7}\), then calculate magnitude of \(\Delta S^\circ\) in Joule/K-mole. [Given \(\log 2 = 0.3, \ln 10 = 2.3, R = 8.314 J/K\cdotmole, \log 3 = 0.47\)]

  • (1) 34 J/K-mole
  • (2) 44 J/K-mole
  • (3) 54 J/K-mole
  • (4) 24 J/K-mole

Question 9:

If minimum wavelength for H-atom in Lyman series is 'x', then maximum wavelength of Balmer series of \(He^+\) ion in terms of 'x' will be

  • (1) \(\frac{3x}{4}\)
  • (2) \(x\)
  • (3) \(\frac{9x}{5}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{5x}{9}\)

Question 10:

Find correct order of increasing boiling point in the following given molecules :
(A) \(n-C_4H_9OH\)
(B) \(n-C_4H_9NH_2\)
(C) \(n-C_4H_{10}\)
(D) \(C_2H_5NHC_2H_5\)

  • (1) C \(<\) D \(<\) B \(<\) A
  • (2) A \(<\) B \(<\) D \(<\) C
  • (3) D \(<\) C \(<\) A \(<\) B
  • (4) B \(<\) C \(<\) D \(<\) A

Question 11:

Match disease with the deficiency.

  • (1) A-R ; B-P ; C-S ; D-Q
  • (2) A-P ; B-R ; C-S ; D-Q
  • (3) A-S ; B-P ; C-R ; D-Q
  • (4) A-R ; B-S ; C-P ; D-Q

Question 12:

Statement-I : Al is more electropositive than Tl because, \(E^\circ_{Al^{3+}/Al}\) is negative \& \(E^\circ_{Tl^{3+}/Tl}\) is positive.
Statement-II : For B-atom ; sum of first three ionization energy is very high thus it forms covalent compounds.

  • (1) Both statement-I \& statement-II are correct
  • (2) Both statement-I \& statement-II are incorrect
  • (3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect
  • (4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct

Question 13:

Which of the following pair of specie(s) have different lewis structure

(A) \(SO_3^{2-}\), \(CO_3^{2-}\)

(B) \(O_2^{2-}\), \(F_2\)

(C) \(CN^-\), \(CO\)

(D) \(NH_3\), \(H_3O^+\)

(E) \(MnO_4^-\), \(CrO_4^{2-}\)

  • (1) (A) only
  • (2) (A) \& (B) only
  • (3) (A) \& (E) only
  • (4) (C) \& (D) only

Question 14:

Consider the statements
(A) In Zeigler –Natta catalyst, d-block central metal ion has spin magnetic moment of 2.84 BM
(B) In Zeigler –Natta catalyst, p-block element has + 3 oxidation state
(C) Basic vanadium oxide is used in production of \(H_2SO_4\)
(D) Catalyst used in wacker's process has central metal with \(d^8\) configuration

  • (1) (A), (B) \& (C) are correct
  • (2) (B) \& (D) are correct
  • (3) (C) \& (D) are correct
  • (4) (B), (C) \& (D) are correct

Question 15:

Find correct order of increasing boiling point in the following given molecules :
(A) \(n-C_4H_9OH\)
(B) \(n-C_4H_9NH_2\)
(C) \(n-C_4H_{10}\)
(D) \(C_2H_5NHC_2H_5\)

  • (1) C \(<\) D \(<\) B \(<\) A
  • (2) A \(<\) B \(<\) D \(<\) C
  • (3) D \(<\) C \(<\) A \(<\) B
  • (4) B \(<\) C \(<\) D \(<\) A

Question 16:

Match disease with the deficiency.

  • (1) A-R ; B-P ; C-S ; D-Q
  • (2) A-P ; B-R ; C-S ; D-Q
  • (3) A-S ; B-P ; C-R ; D-Q
  • (4) A-R ; B-S ; C-P ; D-Q

Question 17:

Match with tab test of amino acids.

  • (1) A – I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
  • (2) A – IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
  • (3) A – I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
  • (4) A – IV, B-II, C-I, D-III

Question 18:


‘X’ may be :

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 19:

4.7 g of phenol \(\xrightarrow{Zn, \Delta}\) 'X'. If reaction goes to 60% yield of X. Find number of moles of ‘X’ ...... \(\times 10^{-2}\) are formed.

  • (1) 1
  • (2) 2
  • (3) 3
  • (4) 4

Question 20:

Given below are two statements :
Statement-I : 2,4-Diethylcyclohexanone and 2-methyl-6-propylcyclohexanone are metamers.
Statement-II : 2,2,6,6-Tetraethylcyclohexanone will show tautomerism.

  • (1) Statement-I and Statement-II both are correct.
  • (2) Statement-I and Statement-II both are incorrect.
  • (3) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
  • (4) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.

Question 21:

Statement-I : 3-Phenylprop-1-ene will react with HBr and give alkyl halide as major product having 1 chiral carbon atom.
Statement-II : Aryl chloride and Aryl cyanide both can be formed by gattermann and sandmeyer reaction.

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
  • (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
  • (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
  • (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

Question 22:

Find percentage of nitrogen in the final product.

  • (1) 21.30%
  • (2) 15.20%
  • (3) 18.45%
  • (4) 25.10%

Question 23:

Given below are two statements :
Statement-I : Methane can be prepared by decarboxylation of sodium acetate, by Kolbe’s electrolysis and by \(CH_3MgBr\).
Statement-II : Methane can’t be prepared by unsaturated hydrocarbon and by Wurtz reaction.

  • (1) Both statement-I \& statement-II are correct
  • (2) Both statement-I \& statement-II are incorrect
  • (3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect
  • (4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.

JEE Main 2026 Chemistry | April Session | Most Expected Questions

*The article might have information for the previous academic years, please refer the official website of the exam.

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