
CBSE Class 12 Biology Set 3 (57/5/3) Question Paper 2026 with Solution Pdf is available here for download.CBSE Board Class 12 Biology Paper 2026 was held on March 27, 2026. CBSE Board Class 12 question paper followed the latest syllabus and exam pattern prescribed by CBSE. CBSE Board Class 12 the examination was held in the first half from 10:30 AM to 1:30 PM. Students can download the official paper in PDF format for reference.
| CBSE 2026 Class 12 Biology Set 3 (57/5/3) Question Paper with Solution Pdf | Download PDF | Check Solutions |

The foetal ejection reflex in human triggers the release of ______ hormone from ______ .
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Parturition is induced by a complex neuroendocrine mechanism triggered by the fully developed foetus and placenta.
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
The approach involves identifying the origin of signals for parturition and the specific gland responsible for the hormone release.
Step 3: Detailed Explanation:
The signals from the fully developed foetus and placenta induce mild uterine contractions called the foetal ejection reflex. This reflex triggers the maternal pituitary gland to release the hormone oxytocin. Oxytocin acts on the uterine muscle, causing stronger contractions.
Step 4: Final Answer:
The hormone is oxytocin, released from the maternal pituitary.
Quick Tip: Remember that while the reflex originates from the foetus/placenta, the oxytocin is entirely maternal in origin (from the posterior pituitary).
Match the IUDs in Column I with suitable example in Column II.
Options :
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Intrauterine Devices (IUDs) are classified into three types based on their specific functional mechanisms to prevent conception.
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
Match each category with its standard examples given in the NCERT text.
Step 3: Detailed Explanation:
a. Non-medicated IUDs: e.g., Lippes loop (promotes phagocytosis of sperms). So, a \(\rightarrow\) i.
b. Copper releasing IUDs: e.g., CuT, Cu7, Multiload 375 (suppress sperm motility). So, b \(\rightarrow\) iii.
c. Hormone releasing IUDs: e.g., Progestasert, LNG-20 (make uterus unsuitable for implantation). So, c \(\rightarrow\) ii.
Step 4: Final Answer:
The correct matching is a-i, b-iii, c-ii.
Quick Tip: "LNG-20" contains a progestin hormone, making it easy to link with "Hormone releasing".
In \textbf{Pisum sativum}, the flower colour may be violet (V) or white (v). What proportion of the offspring in a cross of `VV' \(\times\) `vv' would be expected to be violet ?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Mendel's Law of Dominance states that in a heterozygote, the dominant allele completely masks the recessive allele.
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
Use a Punnett square to determine the genotype of the \(F_1\) generation from pure breeding parents.
Step 3: Detailed Explanation:
Parent 1 is homozygous dominant (VV), producing only `V' gametes.
Parent 2 is homozygous recessive (vv), producing only `v' gametes.
The cross (\(VV \times vv\)) yields offspring that are all heterozygous (Vv). Since V (violet) is dominant over v (white), all \(F_1\) offspring will have violet flowers.
Step 4: Final Answer:
100% of the offspring will be violet.
Quick Tip: A cross between two pure-breeding lines for contrasting traits always yields 100% dominant phenotype in the \(F_1\) generation.
Arrange the following in the correct sequence of their evolution and select the correct option :
(i) Seaweed
(ii) Invertebrates
(iii) Jawless fish
Options :
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The geological time scale provides a chronological order of the evolution of different life forms.
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
Recall the evolutionary timeline (in millions of years ago - mya) for the given organisms from the standard biology curriculum.
Step 3: Detailed Explanation:
- Invertebrates evolved and were active around 500 mya.
- Jawless fish evolved around 350 mya.
- Seaweeds and few plants existed around 320 mya.
The correct chronological sequence is Invertebrates \(\rightarrow\) Jawless fish \(\rightarrow\) Seaweed.
Step 4: Final Answer:
The sequence is (ii), (iii), (i).
Quick Tip: Remember the timeline: Invertebrates (500 mya) \(>\) Jawless fish (350 mya) \(>\) Seaweeds (320 mya).
If a genetic disease is transferred from a phenotypically normal but carrier female to only some of the male progeny, the disease is :
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The pattern of inheritance specifically affecting male offspring from a carrier mother indicates X-chromosome linkage.
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
Analyze the transmission pattern. Carrier status implies the trait is recessive. Transmission to males implies sex-linkage.
Step 3: Detailed Explanation:
The female is phenotypically normal but a carrier, meaning she has one normal and one mutated allele (\(X^N X^d\)), typical of a recessive trait. She passes the mutated X chromosome (\(X^d\)) to 50% of her sons. Since males have only one X chromosome (\(XY\)), those who inherit the \(X^d\) allele will express the disease.
Step 4: Final Answer:
The disease is sex-linked recessive.
Quick Tip: "Criss-cross" inheritance where a carrier mother passes a trait strictly to her sons is the hallmark of X-linked recessive disorders (like Haemophilia or Colour blindness).
A DNA molecule is 160 base pairs long. It has 30% Guanine. How many Adenine bases are present in this DNA molecule ?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
According to Chargaff's rules for double-stranded DNA, the percentage of Adenine (A) equals Thymine (T), and Guanine (G) equals Cytosine (C).
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
Total bases = Base pairs \(\times\) 2.
\(% A = \frac{100% - (2 \times %G)}{2}\).
Number of A = \(%A \times Total bases\).
Step 3: Detailed Explanation:
Total base pairs = 160. Total individual bases = \(160 \times 2 = 320\).
Given Guanine (G) = 30%, Cytosine (C) must also be 30%.
Total G + C = 60%.
The remaining 40% is composed of A + T. Since A = T, Adenine (A) = 20%.
Number of Adenine bases = \(20%\) of \(320 = \frac{20}{100} \times 320 = 64\).
Step 4: Final Answer:
There are 64 Adenine bases.
Quick Tip: Always multiply the number of "base pairs" by 2 to get the total number of "bases" before applying the percentage.
A doctor identifies symptoms of nasal congestion, headache, sore throat, hoarseness and cough in a patient. The conclusion is that the patient is infected by a pathogen :
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Different pathogens cause distinct sets of symptoms by targeting specific organs or tissues in the body.
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
Identify the disease from the symptoms (Common Cold) and match it with its causative agent.
Step 3: Detailed Explanation:
The given symptoms (nasal congestion, sore throat, cough, headache, hoarseness) strictly indicate an infection of the upper respiratory tract. This is characteristic of the common cold, which is primarily caused by Rhinovirus. It infects the nose and respiratory passages but not the lungs.
Step 4: Final Answer:
The pathogen is Rhinovirus.
Quick Tip: Rhinovirus causes the common cold (upper respiratory tract only), whereas Streptococcus pneumoniae causes pneumonia (which infects the alveoli of the lungs).
Which type of selection is industrial melanism observed in moth, \textbf{Biston betularia} ?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Natural selection shifts population traits over time based on environmental pressures.
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
Analyze how the trait frequency shifted. If one extreme is favored over the other, it is directional selection.
Step 3: Detailed Explanation:
In industrial melanism, environmental changes (soot on tree trunks) caused a shift in the moth population from predominantly light-coloured (white) to dark-coloured (melanic). Because nature favored one extreme phenotype over the other, the peak of the population distribution curve shifted in one direction.
Step 4: Final Answer:
This is an example of Directional selection.
Quick Tip: Directional selection moves the curve to one side. Stabilising makes it narrower. Disruptive creates two peaks.
C-peptide of human insulin is :
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Insulin is synthesized in humans as an inactive precursor (pro-hormone) that requires processing to become functional.
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
Recall the structural difference between pro-insulin and mature insulin.
Step 3: Detailed Explanation:
Pro-insulin contains three polypeptide chains: A, B, and an extra stretch called the C-peptide. During the maturation process to form fully active insulin, this C-peptide is cleaved and removed. Mature insulin consists only of the A and B chains linked by disulphide bridges.
Step 4: Final Answer:
C-peptide is removed during maturation.
Quick Tip: Genetically engineered insulin (Humulin) directly synthesizes A and B chains separately to avoid the need to remove the C-peptide.
Given below is the restriction site of a restriction endonuclease Pst I and the cleavage sites on a DNA molecule.
\(5' C - T - G - C - A \downarrow G 3'\)
\(3' G \uparrow A - C - G - T - C 5'\)
Choose the option that gives the correct resultant fragments.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Restriction endonucleases cut the sugar-phosphate backbone of DNA at specific recognition sequences, often creating staggered cuts.
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
Trace the cleavage pathway exactly where the arrows indicate.
Step 3: Detailed Explanation:
The cut on the top strand is between A and G, leaving \(5' C-T-G-C-A\) on the left and \(G 3'\) on the right.
The cut on the bottom strand is between G and A, leaving \(3' G\) on the left and \(A-C-G-T-C 5'\) on the right.
Separating these creates two staggered fragments exactly matching Option (D).
Step 4: Final Answer:
The resultant fragments are correctly shown in (D).
Quick Tip: To avoid errors, physically draw a line matching the arrows in a step-like fashion through the hydrogen bonds on the exam paper.
Which of the following fish led to the extinction of an ecologically unique assemblage of more than 200 species of cichlid fish in Lake Victoria of East Africa ?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Alien species invasions can lead to the decline or extinction of indigenous species due to aggressive predation or competition.
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
Recall the specific case studies of biodiversity loss discussed in ecology.
Step 3: Detailed Explanation:
The introduction of the Nile Perch, a large predatory fish, into Lake Victoria (East Africa) led to the disastrous ecological consequence of driving more than 200 endemic species of small cichlid fish to extinction through excessive predation.
Step 4: Final Answer:
The correct option is Nile Perch.
Quick Tip: Do not confuse Nile Perch (Lake Victoria cichlid extinction) with African Catfish (\textbf{Clarias gariepinus}), which is an alien species threat to indigenous catfishes in Indian rivers.
Cattle or goats are never seen browsing on the weed, \textbf{Calotropis}. Select the correct option for the reason.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Plants have evolved various morphological and chemical defenses against herbivores to prevent being eaten.
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
Identify the specific chemical defense mechanism associated with Calotropis.
Step 3: Detailed Explanation:
The weed Calotropis grows abundantly in abandoned fields. It produces a highly poisonous class of chemicals called cardiac glycosides. These chemicals disrupt the heart function of herbivores. Because of this potent chemical defense, browsing animals like cattle or goats instinctively avoid eating it.
Step 4: Final Answer:
The correct reason is the production of cardiac glycoside.
Quick Tip: Other chemical defenses include nicotine, caffeine, quinine, strychnine, and opium, all of which are commercially extracted by humans but evolved as anti-herbivory mechanisms.
Assertion (A) : Repetitive sequences make up a very large portion of human genome.
Reason (R) : Repetitive sequences do not have direct coding functions in the genome.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Evaluate the factual accuracy of both statements independently according to the Human Genome Project findings, then check for a causal link.
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
Ask "Why is Assertion true?" and see if the Reason answers it.
Step 3: Detailed Explanation:
Assertion (A) is true: A significant portion of the human genome consists of repetitive DNA sequences.
Reason (R) is true: Repetitive sequences generally do not code for proteins.
However, the reason they make up a large portion of the genome is due to their evolutionary accumulation and duplication, not simply because they lack coding functions. Therefore, R does not correctly explain A.
Step 4: Final Answer:
Both A and R are true, but R does not explain A.
Quick Tip: In Assertion-Reason questions, connect the two statements with "because". If it doesn't make logical sense, the answer is usually (B).
Assertion (A) : The embryo with 8 to 16 blastomeres is called a morula.
Reason (R) : The morula continues to divide and transform into trophoblast.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Embryonic development involves cleavage from a zygote into a blastocyst.
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
Verify the developmental stages and terminology.
Step 3: Detailed Explanation:
Assertion (A) is true: The solid mass of 8 to 16 cells formed during cleavage is accurately termed a morula.
Reason (R) is false: The morula continues to divide and transforms into a "blastocyst", not a trophoblast. The trophoblast is merely the outer layer of cells of the blastocyst, not the entire developmental stage.
Step 4: Final Answer:
Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
Quick Tip: Sequence of development: Zygote \(\rightarrow\) Blastomeres \(\rightarrow\) Morula (8-16) \(\rightarrow\) Blastocyst (contains Trophoblast and Inner Cell Mass).
Assertion (A) : The use of chitinase enzyme is necessary for the separation of DNA from yeast cells but not in the case of \textbf{Spirogyra}.
Reason (R) : Fungal cell wall is made up of fungal chitin.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
To extract DNA in biotechnology, the protective cell wall of the organism must be broken using specific enzymes.
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
Match the organism type to its cell wall composition and corresponding lytic enzyme.
Step 3: Detailed Explanation:
Assertion (A) is true: Yeast is a fungus, so chitinase is required. Spirogyra is an algae (plant), which has a cellulosic cell wall requiring cellulase, not chitinase.
Reason (R) is true: The fungal cell wall is indeed made of chitin, which perfectly explains why the enzyme chitinase is needed exclusively for yeast.
Step 4: Final Answer:
Both statements are true and R perfectly explains A.
Quick Tip: Enzyme pairings: Bacteria \(\rightarrow\) Lysozyme; Plants/Algae \(\rightarrow\) Cellulase; Fungi \(\rightarrow\) Chitinase.
Assertion (A) : Besides curdling of milk, LAB also improves its nutritional quality by increasing Vitamin B12.
Reason (R) : LAB, when present in the stomach checks disease-causing microbes.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Lactic Acid Bacteria (LAB) have multiple beneficial roles in human nutrition and health.
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
Evaluate the truthfulness of both statements and check for logical dependence.
Step 3: Detailed Explanation:
Assertion (A) is true: LAB converts milk to curd and enriches it with Vitamin B12.
Reason (R) is true: LAB also plays a beneficial role in the human stomach by checking the growth of disease-causing microbes.
However, checking microbes in the stomach has nothing to do with the biochemical synthesis of Vitamin B12 in milk. Hence, R does not explain A.
Step 4: Final Answer:
Both are true, but R is not the correct explanation.
Quick Tip: LAB serves three main roles: Coagulating milk proteins, synthesizing B12, and acting as probiotics in the gut. They are distinct, unrelated benefits.
State the role of thymus as a lymphoid organ. Name the cells that are released from it and mention their functions.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The thymus is a primary lymphoid organ essential for the development of adaptive immunity.
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
Identify the organ classification, the specific cells maturing there, and their immunological role.
Step 3: Detailed Explanation:
- Role of Thymus: The thymus serves as a primary lymphoid organ. It provides the micro-environment for the development and maturation of T-lymphocytes.
- Cells Released: Mature T-lymphocytes (T-cells).
- Function: T-lymphocytes mediate Cell-Mediated Immunity (CMI). They help in recognizing and destroying infected cells, cancer cells, and play a crucial role in graft rejection. They also assist B-cells in producing antibodies (Helper T-cells).
Step 4: Final Answer:
Thymus matures T-lymphocytes, which provide cell-mediated immunity.
Quick Tip: Remember that T-cells are produced in the bone marrow but mature in the Thymus (hence 'T' for Thymus). B-cells both originate and mature in the Bone marrow ('B').
Explain the mutually rewarding relationship between \textbf{Yucca} plant and species of moth.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Mutualism is a population interaction where both species benefit and cannot survive without each other in obligate cases.
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
Detail the specific exchanges of benefits between the Yucca and its moth pollinator.
Step 3: Detailed Explanation:
The relationship between the Yucca plant and its specific species of moth (Pronuba moth) is an example of obligate mutualism.
- Neither the plant nor the moth can complete their life cycle without the other.
- The female moth deposits her eggs in the locule of the Yucca ovary. In return, the moth pollinates the flower while visiting it.
- Later, the moth larvae come out of the eggs precisely when the Yucca seeds start developing, and the larvae feed on a few of these developing seeds as a food source.
Step 4: Final Answer:
The moth gets a safe place to lay eggs and food for larvae, while the plant gets pollinated.
Quick Tip: Another classic obligate mutualism example often asked is the Fig tree and its specific wasp pollinator.
Pollination success will be reduced unless the orchid flower co-evolves with the pollinator. Explain.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Co-evolution occurs when two species reciprocally affect each other's evolution.
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
Use the specific example of the Mediterranean orchid Ophrys and its pollinator bee to explain the concept.
Step 3: Detailed Explanation:
The Mediterranean orchid Ophrys employs "sexual deceit" to ensure pollination. One petal of its flower bears an uncanny resemblance to the female of a specific bee species in size, colour, and markings.
The male bee is attracted to what it perceives as a female and "pseudocopulates" with the flower, transferring pollen in the process.
If the female bee's colour or patterns change slightly during evolution, the male bee will no longer be fooled. Therefore, the orchid must co-evolve to maintain the resemblance to the female bee, otherwise, its pollination success will fall drastically.
Step 4: Final Answer:
Co-evolution is necessary to maintain the exact mimicry required for pseudocopulation.
Quick Tip: Pseudocopulation and sexual deceit are exclusive to the \textbf{Ophrys} orchid and bees/wasps.
Differentiate between grazing food chain and detritus food chain.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Ecosystems have distinct pathways for energy flow depending on the starting source of energy.
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
Provide clear distinguishing points regarding origin, primary energy source, and organism type.
Step 3: Detailed Explanation:
Grazing Food Chain (GFC):
1. It begins with living green plants (producers).
2. The primary source of energy is direct solar radiation.
3. It comprises macroscopic organisms (herbivores, carnivores).
Detritus Food Chain (DFC):
1. It begins with dead organic matter (detritus).
2. The primary source of energy is the chemical energy stored in the detritus.
3. It comprises decomposers and saprotrophs (fungi, bacteria, earthworms).
Step 4: Final Answer:
GFC starts with plants and sunlight, whereas DFC starts with dead matter and saprophytes.
Quick Tip: In aquatic ecosystems, GFC is the major conduit for energy flow. In terrestrial ecosystems, DFC transfers a much larger fraction of energy.
Ecological pyramids are widely accepted but they still have some limitations. Write any two limitations.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Ecological pyramids are graphical representations of trophic structures, but they oversimplify nature.
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
State any two of the standard limitations mentioned in the NCERT.
Step 3: Detailed Explanation:
Two major limitations of ecological pyramids are:
1. They assume a simple, straight food chain, which almost never exists in nature. They do not take into account the complex food webs where one species may occupy multiple trophic levels.
2. Saprophytes and decomposers, despite playing a crucial role in the ecosystem, are not given any place in ecological pyramids.
Step 4: Final Answer:
They ignore food webs and omit saprophytes completely.
Quick Tip: A third valid point: An ecological pyramid does not accommodate an organism belonging to two or more trophic levels simultaneously (e.g., humans as herbivores and carnivores).
How do `implants' act as an effective method of contraception in human females ? Mention one advantage of implants over contraceptive pills.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Implants are sub-dermal hormonal devices used for long-term birth control.
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
Explain the hormonal composition, the physiological mechanism of action, and the specific advantage regarding duration.
Step 3: Detailed Explanation:
Mechanism of action: Implants contain progesterone alone or a combination of progesterone and estrogen. They are placed under the skin. They act similarly to pills by slowly releasing hormones into the bloodstream. These hormones inhibit ovulation and implantation. They also alter the quality of cervical mucus to prevent or retard the entry of sperms.
Advantage over pills: The major advantage is that implants are effective for a much longer duration (up to 3-5 years), eliminating the need for strict daily adherence required by oral contraceptive pills.
Step 4: Final Answer:
They inhibit ovulation and implantation, and are effective for years compared to daily pills.
Quick Tip: Implants and injectables have the exact same mode of action as oral contraceptive pills, differing only in the route of administration and duration.
Explain any two methods of vectorless gene transfer.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Vectorless (direct) gene transfer involves inserting recombinant DNA directly into the host cell without using a biological carrier (like plasmids or viruses).
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
Describe two direct methods, usually one for animal cells and one for plant cells.
Step 3: Detailed Explanation:
1. Microinjection: In this method, the recombinant DNA is directly injected into the nucleus of an animal cell using microscopic glass needles. It is widely used in creating transgenic animals.
2. Biolistics (Gene Gun): Cells are bombarded with high-velocity micro-particles of gold or tungsten coated with the DNA. This method is highly effective for plant cells that have tough cell walls.
Step 4: Final Answer:
Microinjection for animal cells and Biolistics (Gene Gun) for plant cells.
Quick Tip: Gold and Tungsten are used in gene guns because they are inert, highly dense, and do not cause toxic reactions in the host cell.
Name the most commonly used bioreactor. List the advantages of the bioreactor. Also write the importance of sampling ports.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Bioreactors are large vessels for the large-scale biological processing of microbes, plants, or mammalian cells to produce specific products.
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
Identify the specific bioreactor type and list its features and the function of the sampling port.
Step 3: Detailed Explanation:
- Name: The most commonly used bioreactor is the Stirred-tank bioreactor.
- Advantages: It provides optimal conditions for achieving the desired product. The stirrer facilitates uniform mixing of contents and ensures widespread availability of oxygen throughout the vessel. It includes control systems for temperature, pH, and foam control.
- Importance of sampling ports: They allow the operator to withdraw small volumes of the culture periodically to test and monitor the progression and quality of the biological reaction.
Step 4: Final Answer:
Stirred-tank bioreactor; provides mixing and aeration; sampling ports allow periodic checking.
Quick Tip: Bioreactors can handle volumes varying from 100 to 1000 litres.
Draw a labelled diagram of a `replicating fork' showing the polarity. Why does DNA replication occur within such `fork' ?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
DNA replication is semi-conservative and occurs at an active site called the replication fork.
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
Provide the textual description of the diagram and explain the energetic constraints of unwinding DNA.
Step 3: Detailed Explanation:
Diagram Description: A Y-shaped fork. The template strands are \(3' \to 5'\) and \(5' \to 3'\). On the \(3' \to 5'\) template, a continuous newly synthesized strand grows towards the fork (Leading strand). On the \(5' \to 3'\) template, short fragments (Okazaki fragments) are synthesized discontinuously away from the fork (Lagging strand).
Reason for Fork: The entire DNA double helix is a massive molecule. Unwinding the two strands completely along their entire length requires an extremely high and practically impossible amount of biological energy. Therefore, the two strands separate only over small localized stretches, creating a Y-shaped structure called a replication fork.
Step 4: Final Answer:
Replication occurs in a fork because total unwinding requires too much energy.
Quick Tip: Always label the polarity accurately: Continuous synthesis requires a \(3' \to 5'\) template because DNA polymerase only acts in the \(5' \to 3'\) direction.
List any three outbreeding devices that flowering plants have developed for cross-pollination and explain how they help to encourage cross-pollination.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Continuous self-pollination leads to inbreeding depression. Plants evolve mechanisms to prevent self-pollination and promote cross-pollination.
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
List three mechanisms and explain their preventive action.
Step 3: Detailed Explanation:
1. Dichogamy (Non-synchronization): Pollen release and stigma receptivity are not synchronized. Either the pollen is released before the stigma becomes receptive (protandry) or vice versa (protogyny), preventing autogamy.
2. Herkogamy (Physical barriers): The anther and stigma are placed at different spatial positions or heights so that pollen cannot easily fall onto the stigma of the same flower.
3. Self-incompatibility: This is a genetic mechanism. It prevents self-pollen (from the same flower or other flowers of the same plant) from fertilizing the ovules by inhibiting pollen germination or pollen tube growth in the pistil.
Step 4: Final Answer:
Dichogamy, Herkogamy, and Self-incompatibility encourage cross-pollination.
Quick Tip: A fourth device is the production of unisexual flowers (Dioecy), which completely prevents both autogamy and geitonogamy if male and female flowers are on different plants.
Explain how the following microbes act as biocontrol agents :
\textbf{Bacillus thuringiensis}
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Biocontrol refers to using biological methods to control plant diseases and pests.
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
Explain the mode of action of Bt toxin.
Step 3: Detailed Explanation:
Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) produces a toxic protein (Cry protein) in an inactive crystalline form. These bacteria are available in sachets as dried spores, which are sprayed onto vulnerable plants. When insect larvae (caterpillars) eat the plant leaves, the spores enter their gut. In the alkaline pH of the insect midgut, the inactive toxin becomes active, binds to midgut epithelial cells, creates pores, and causes cell swelling and lysis, eventually killing the insect.
Step 4: Final Answer:
Bt kills specific insect pests by producing a toxin activated in the alkaline midgut.
Quick Tip: Bt is highly specific. It kills target insects but leaves harmless insects, mammals, and birds completely unaffected.
Explain how the following microbes act as biocontrol agents :
Nucleopolyhedrovirus
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Baculoviruses are a family of viruses that act as excellent biocontrol agents against specific insects.
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
Describe the specificity and ecological benefits of this genus.
Step 3: Detailed Explanation:
Nucleopolyhedrovirus is a genus of baculoviruses. They are pathogens that strictly attack insects and other arthropods. They are excellent candidates for species-specific, narrow-spectrum insecticidal applications. They have been shown to have no negative impacts on plants, mammals, birds, fish, or even on non-target insects.
Step 4: Final Answer:
They act as narrow-spectrum insecticidal agents without harming non-target species.
Quick Tip: These are especially desirable when beneficial insects are being conserved to aid in an overall integrated pest management (IPM) programme.
Transgenic animals are produced by man. Explain any three ways in which such animals can be beneficial to humans.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Animals whose DNA is manipulated to possess and express an extra (foreign) gene are transgenic animals.
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
List three standard applications from the biotechnology chapter.
Step 3: Detailed Explanation:
1. Study of Diseases: Transgenic animals act as experimental models for human diseases to investigate new treatments. E.g., models for cancer, cystic fibrosis, and Alzheimer's.
2. Biological Products: They can be engineered to produce useful biological compounds in their milk or blood. E.g., The transgenic cow, Rosie, produced milk enriched with human alpha-lactalbumin, making it highly nutritious for human babies.
3. Vaccine Safety Testing: Transgenic mice are developed to test the safety of vaccines before they are used on humans. E.g., testing the safety of the polio vaccine.
Step 4: Final Answer:
They are beneficial for studying diseases, creating biological products, and testing vaccines.
Quick Tip: Over 95% of all existing transgenic animals are mice.
Explain the level of biodiversity at genetic, species and ecological levels with the help of one example each.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Biodiversity exists not just at the species level, but at all levels of biological organization.
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
Define each level and provide the exact NCERT example.
Step 3: Detailed Explanation:
1. Genetic Diversity: Variation of genes within a single species.
Example: The medicinal plant Rauwolfia vomitoria growing in different Himalayan ranges shows genetic variation in terms of the potency and concentration of the active chemical (reserpine) it produces. Also, India has \(>50,000\) strains of rice.
2. Species Diversity: The variety of species within a particular region.
Example: The Western Ghats have a much greater amphibian species diversity than the Eastern Ghats.
3. Ecological Diversity: The variety of ecosystems present in a geographical area.
Example: India, with its deserts, rain forests, mangroves, coral reefs, wetlands, and alpine meadows, has far greater ecological diversity than a Scandinavian country like Norway.
Step 4: Final Answer:
Refer to the detailed explanation for the three levels and examples.
Quick Tip: Always pair Rauwolfia with "reserpine" to secure full marks for the genetic diversity example.
Study the given chart showing evolution of plants. Answer the following questions :
Identify the plant which acts as an immediate ancestor of both ferns and conifers.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Evolutionary charts depict the phylogenetic descent of modern organisms from ancient ancestors.
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
Trace the arrows backwards from "Ferns" and "Conifers" to find their common branching point.
Step 3: Detailed Explanation:
In the given flowchart, arrows point from `Psilophyton' directly upwards to `Ferns', `Conifers', and `Seed ferns'. Thus, Psilophyton is the immediate branch point (ancestor) for both ferns and conifers.
Step 4: Final Answer:
Psilophyton.
Quick Tip: Arrows point from Ancestor \(\rightarrow\) Descendant. Follow the arrows backwards to find ancestors.
Name the nearest ancestors of flowering plants.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Flowering plants (Angiosperms) evolved from seed-bearing fern-like ancestors.
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
Locate "Flowering plants" on the chart and trace the arrow immediately below it.
Step 3: Detailed Explanation:
The arrow directly beneath `Flowering plants' comes from `Seed ferns'.
Step 4: Final Answer:
Seed ferns.
Quick Tip: Seed ferns (Pteridosperms) are an extinct group that bridged the gap between ferns and angiosperms.
Name the most primitive group of plants.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The base of an evolutionary phylogenetic tree represents the oldest/most primitive common ancestor.
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
Look at the absolute bottom-most box in the hierarchy chart.
Step 3: Detailed Explanation:
The chart starts at the bottom with `Chlorophyte ancestors', which gave rise to Tracheophyte ancestors and eventually all other plant groups shown.
Step 4: Final Answer:
Chlorophyte ancestors.
Quick Tip: Green algae (chlorophytes) are considered the most primitive ancestors of all modern terrestrial plants.
Psilophyton provides common ancestry to which classes ?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
A common ancestor is a node from which multiple distinct lineages branch out.
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
Identify all the outgoing arrows originating from the `Psilophyton' box.
Step 3: Detailed Explanation:
Three arrows emerge upwards from Psilophyton. They point directly to Ferns, Conifers, and Seed ferns. Therefore, it is the common ancestor to these three groups.
Step 4: Final Answer:
Ferns, Conifers, and Seed ferns.
Quick Tip: Do not include Flowering plants directly, as they descend from Seed ferns, not directly from Psilophyton.
Name the common ancestor of psilophyton and seed ferns.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
When asked for a common ancestor of an organism and its descendant, the ancestor of the older organism serves as the common ancestor for both.
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
Trace back the lineage of both groups until they converge.
Step 3: Detailed Explanation:
Psilophyton is the direct ancestor of Seed ferns. The ancestor immediately preceding Psilophyton is the `Tracheophyte ancestor'. Thus, both trace their lineage back to the Tracheophyte ancestors.
Step 4: Final Answer:
Tracheophyte ancestors.
Quick Tip: Tracheophytes are the first vascular plants, from which all subsequent higher plants evolved.
Name the common ancestor of mosses and tracheophytes.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Find the earliest node that links bryophytes (mosses) and vascular plants (tracheophytes).
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
Trace the arrows downward from Moss and Tracheophyte ancestors to their point of origin.
Step 3: Detailed Explanation:
The arrow for Mosses branches out early, originating from the base level. The arrow leading to Tracheophyte ancestors also originates from the same base level, which is `Chlorophyte ancestors'.
Step 4: Final Answer:
Chlorophyte ancestors.
Quick Tip: Chlorophytes (green algae ancestors) split into bryophytes (mosses) and tracheophytes (vascular plants).
Given below is an equation describing the growth pattern of a population :
\(dN/dt = rN\)
Mention the type of growth model or growth pattern of the population described by the given equation.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Population growth is modelled mathematically depending on resource availability.
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
Identify the differential equation. \(dN/dt = rN\) describes unrestricted growth.
Step 3: Detailed Explanation:
The equation represents exponential growth, where population size \(N\) increases at a constant per capita rate \(r\), without any environmental resistance or carrying capacity factor.
Step 4: Final Answer:
Exponential growth model.
Quick Tip: If the equation was \(dN/dt = rN (1 - N/K)\), it would represent Logistic growth.
What does `r' in the equation signify ?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The parameter 'r' is a measure of the inherent potential of a population to grow.
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
Identify the specific ecological term for the variable 'r'.
Step 3: Detailed Explanation:
In ecology, 'r' stands for the "intrinsic rate of natural increase". It represents the difference between the birth rate (\(b\)) and death rate (\(d\)) per capita (\(r = b - d\)). It is a very important parameter chosen for assessing impacts of any biotic or abiotic factor on population growth.
Step 4: Final Answer:
It signifies the intrinsic rate of natural increase.
Quick Tip: In human populations, a higher `r' value indicates a rapidly exploding population.
Mention the type of growth curve that will be obtained if the population density (N) is plotted against time (t).
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Graphical representation of exponential growth shows a very specific shape.
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
Correlate the exponential equation \(N_t = N_0 e^{rt}\) with its graph shape.
Step 3: Detailed Explanation:
Because the population multiplies continuously without resource limits, it starts slow but rapidly shoots upwards towards infinity. Plotted on a graph, this creates a characteristic "J" shape.
Step 4: Final Answer:
A J-shaped curve.
Quick Tip: Exponential = J-shaped curve. Logistic = S-shaped (Sigmoid) curve.
According to you, will the resource availability be limited or unlimited for this type of growth in the given population ?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Exponential growth is theoretically possible only under ideal conditions.
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
Analyze the assumptions behind the \(dN/dt = rN\) equation.
Step 3: Detailed Explanation:
The equation lacks the term \((K-N)/K\) (environmental resistance). This implies that there is no carrying capacity or restriction on food and space. Thus, this growth pattern relies on the condition that resources are completely unlimited.
Step 4: Final Answer:
Resource availability must be unlimited.
Quick Tip: In nature, unlimited resources are rarely present, so exponential growth usually crashes eventually.
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow :
The process of copying genetic information from template strand of DNA into RNA is called transcription. It is mediated by RNA polymerase. Transcription takes place in the nucleus of eukaryotic cells. In transcription, only a segment of DNA and only one of the strands is copied into RNA.
Why is the strand of DNA with \(3' \to 5'\) polarity transcribed and not the other strand of \(5' \to 3'\) polarity ?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Transcription is highly directional due to the specific enzymatic properties of RNA polymerase.
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
Explain the directionality constraint of the enzyme.
Step 3: Detailed Explanation:
The DNA-dependent RNA polymerase is the enzyme that catalyzes transcription. This enzyme can only add nucleotides in one specific direction, which is \(5' \to 3'\). Since the new RNA strand must grow in the \(5' \to 3'\) direction, the enzyme requires a template strand running in the opposite polarity, i.e., \(3' \to 5'\), to ensure anti-parallel base pairing.
Step 4: Final Answer:
The RNA polymerase enzyme strictly catalyzes polymerization in the \(5' \to 3'\) direction.
Quick Tip: The DNA strand with \(3' \to 5'\) polarity acts as the "template strand". The \(5' \to 3'\) strand is called the "coding strand".
Why is hnRNA required to undergo splicing ?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Eukaryotic genes are split genes, containing both coding and non-coding sequences.
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
Define hnRNA and the necessity of splicing.
Step 3: Detailed Explanation:
The primary transcript synthesized in eukaryotes is called heterogeneous nuclear RNA (hnRNA). It contains both functional coding sequences (exons) and non-functional intervening sequences (introns). Since introns do not code for proteins, they must be removed. The process of removing introns and joining the exons together in a defined order is called splicing.
Step 4: Final Answer:
Splicing is required to remove the non-coding introns and join the functional exons.
Quick Tip: Prokaryotes do not have split genes, hence no splicing occurs in prokaryotic transcription.
Mention the two additional processes which hnRNA needs to undergo after splicing to become functional.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Post-transcriptional modification in eukaryotes involves three steps to convert hnRNA to stable mRNA.
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
List the other two modifications alongside splicing.
Step 3: Detailed Explanation:
1. Capping: An unusual nucleotide (methyl guanosine triphosphate) is added to the 5'-end of the hnRNA.
2. Tailing (Polyadenylation): Adenylate residues (about 200-300) are added at the 3'-end in a template-independent manner.
These modifications protect the mRNA from degradation and help in transport.
Step 4: Final Answer:
The two processes are capping and tailing.
Quick Tip: Remember: Cap at 5' (start) and Tail at 3' (end).
Why is only one strand of the DNA transcribed ? Give two reasons.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Transcribing both strands of DNA would create severe biological complications.
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
Provide two distinct reasons preventing dual-strand transcription according to NCERT.
Step 3: Detailed Explanation:
1. If both strands acted as a template, they would code for RNA molecules with different sequences. These RNAs would translate into two different proteins from the same segment of DNA, complicating the genetic information transfer machinery.
2. The two RNA molecules produced simultaneously would be complementary to each other. They would immediately bind together to form double-stranded RNA (dsRNA). This dsRNA would be unable to undergo translation into proteins, defeating the very purpose of transcription.
Step 4: Final Answer:
It avoids producing two different proteins from one gene and prevents the formation of untranslatable double-stranded RNA.
Quick Tip: The phenomenon where double-stranded RNA prevents translation is actively used in biotechnology as "RNA interference" (RNAi).
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow :
We know that plasmids and bacteriophages are the most commonly used vectors in biotechnology experiments. If we can link an alien piece of DNA to the plasmid DNA, the alien DNA can be multiplied equal to the copy number of the plasmid. Engineered vectors are used these days. Study the diagram of the \textbf{E. coli} cloning vector pBR322 and answer the questions that follow :
(a) Why are plasmids and bacteriophages used as cloning vectors ?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Vectors are vehicles used to carry foreign DNA into a host cell and multiply it.
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
State the defining biological feature of plasmids and phages that makes them suitable vectors.
Step 3: Detailed Explanation:
Plasmids and bacteriophages have the inherent ability to replicate within bacterial cells independent of the control of the host chromosomal DNA. When an alien DNA is linked to them, it replicates along with the vector, achieving amplification equal to the vector's copy number.
Step 4: Final Answer:
They possess independent origin of replication sites, allowing autonomous replication.
Quick Tip: High copy number vectors are preferred because they produce a larger amount of the recombinant DNA.
Identify :
(I) The gene in the cloning vector that controls the copy number of the vector.
(II) The restriction site -- C in the `rop' gene.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The pBR322 vector has specific marked regions including origin, selectable markers, and restriction sites.
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
Identify the specific labels from the standard pBR322 diagram in NCERT.
Step 3: Detailed Explanation:
(I) The `ori' (origin of replication) is the sequence responsible for initiating replication. The specific sequence of `ori' also regulates and controls the copy number of the linked DNA.
(II) In the standard diagram of pBR322, the `rop' gene encodes proteins involved in plasmid replication. The specific restriction endonuclease recognition site located within the `rop' gene is Pvu II (marked as `C' in some adapted diagrams).
Step 4: Final Answer:
(I) ori (II) Pvu II
Quick Tip: To get high yield, the alien DNA must be linked to an `ori' that supports a high copy number.
Identify and name two selectable markers shown in the diagram.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Selectable markers are genes that help identify and select transformants from non-transformants.
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
Locate the antibiotic resistance genes on pBR322.
Step 3: Detailed Explanation:
In the artificial E. coli cloning vector pBR322, there are two distinct antibiotic resistance genes engineered into it to serve as selectable markers. These are the genes conferring resistance to ampicillin (\(amp^R\)) and tetracycline (\(tet^R\)).
Step 4: Final Answer:
Ampicillin resistance (\(amp^R\)) and Tetracycline resistance (\(tet^R\)).
Quick Tip: Normal \textbf{E. coli} cells do not carry resistance against any of these antibiotics.
Name the two restriction sites each in the two genes you have identified as selectable markers.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
To insert a foreign gene, the vector must be cut. The restriction sites are purposefully located inside the selectable marker genes.
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
Recall the specific restriction enzymes that cut within \(amp^R\) and \(tet^R\).
Step 3: Detailed Explanation:
Based on the pBR322 map:
- In the Ampicillin resistance gene (\(amp^R\)), the two distinct restriction sites are Pst I and Pvu I.
- In the Tetracycline resistance gene (\(tet^R\)), the two distinct restriction sites are BamH I and Sal I.
Inserting an alien DNA at these sites inactivates the respective antibiotic resistance (insertional inactivation).
Step 4: Final Answer:
\(amp^R\): Pst I, Pvu I. \(tet^R\): BamH I, Sal I.
Quick Tip: Mnemonic for Tetracycline: "Tetracycline has BS" \(\rightarrow\) BamHI, SalI.
Work out separate monohybrid crosses up to \(F_2\) generation between two pea plants and two Antirrhinum plants, both having contrasting traits with respect to the colour of the flower. Comment on the patterns of inheritance in the crosses carried out in such two cases.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
This question compares standard Mendelian dominance with Incomplete dominance.
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
Construct two separate Punnett squares for Pea (Dominance) and Antirrhinum (Incomplete Dominance) and compare ratios.
Step 3: Detailed Explanation:
Case 1: Pea Plant (Mendelian Complete Dominance)
Trait: Flower colour. Violet (V) is dominant, White (v) is recessive.
Cross: VV (Violet) \(\times\) vv (White).
\(F_1\) generation: All Vv (Violet).
\(F_1\) selfing (Vv \(\times\) Vv):
\(F_2\) Genotypic ratio = 1 VV : 2 Vv : 1 vv.
\(F_2\) Phenotypic ratio = 3 Violet : 1 White.
Comment: In peas, one allele is completely dominant over the other. Heterozygotes show the dominant phenotype.
Case 2: \textbf{Antirrhinum} (Snapdragon) (Incomplete Dominance)
Trait: Flower colour. Red (RR) and White (rr).
Cross: RR (Red) \(\times\) rr (White).
\(F_1\) generation: All Rr (Pink).
\(F_1\) selfing (Rr \(\times\) Rr):
\(F_2\) Genotypic ratio = 1 RR : 2 Rr : 1 rr.
\(F_2\) Phenotypic ratio = 1 Red : 2 Pink : 1 White.
Comment: In Antirrhinum, neither allele is completely dominant. The heterozygote (Rr) expresses a blended, intermediate phenotype (Pink).
Step 4: Final Answer:
Pea shows a 3:1 phenotypic ratio (complete dominance). Antirrhinum shows a 1:2:1 phenotypic ratio (incomplete dominance).
Quick Tip: In incomplete dominance, the phenotypic and genotypic ratios are identical (1:2:1) in the \(F_2\) generation.
Answer the following questions :
How does a chromosomal disorder differ from a Mendelian disorder ? Write one example for each.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Genetic disorders are broadly classified based on whether they affect a single gene or whole chromosomes.
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
Define the basis of each disorder type and provide NCERT examples.
Step 3: Detailed Explanation:
Mendelian Disorders: These are caused by alteration or mutation in a single gene. They follow Mendelian principles of inheritance and can be traced in a family by pedigree analysis.
Example: Haemophilia, Sickle-cell anaemia, Cystic fibrosis.
Chromosomal Disorders: These are caused by the absence, excess, or abnormal arrangement of one or more whole chromosomes. They occur due to failure in cell division (aneuploidy or polyploidy) and generally do not follow simple Mendelian inheritance patterns.
Example: Down's syndrome, Turner's syndrome, Klinefelter's syndrome.
Step 4: Final Answer:
Mendelian targets single genes; Chromosomal involves whole chromosomes.
Quick Tip: Mendelian disorders can be dominant or recessive, autosomal or sex-linked. Chromosomal disorders are major chromosomal shifts visible in a karyotype.
Name the phenomenon that leads to situations like `XO' abnormality in humans. Also name this genetic disorder. How are individuals with an XO chromosomal abnormality affected ? Write its symptoms as well as karyotype.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
`XO' indicates a missing sex chromosome, a classic example of aneuploidy.
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
Identify the phenomenon, syndrome, and symptoms associated with the 45, XO condition.
Step 3: Detailed Explanation:
- Phenomenon: Aneuploidy. Specifically, it occurs due to non-disjunction (failure of segregation) of chromatids during cell division cycle, resulting in the loss of a chromosome.
- Name of Genetic Disorder: Turner's syndrome.
- Karyotype: 45, with XO (or \(44 Autosomes + X0\)).
- Symptoms/Effects: The affected individuals are sterile females. They have rudimentary (underdeveloped) ovaries. They lack secondary sexual characters (e.g., poor breast development) and often have short stature.
Step 4: Final Answer:
Caused by Non-disjunction (Aneuploidy); disorder is Turner's syndrome; results in sterile females with 45 chromosomes.
Quick Tip: Aneuploidy implies loss or gain of chromosomes (e.g. 45 or 47). Polyploidy implies increase in a whole set of chromosomes (e.g. 3n, 4n).
Draw the structure of an antibody molecule and label any four of its parts.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Antibodies are immunoglobulins (\(H_2L_2\)) produced by B-lymphocytes.
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
Describe the standard Y-shaped diagram and its distinct regions.
Step 3: Detailed Explanation:
An antibody molecule consists of four polypeptide chains bound together forming a 'Y' shape.
- Heavy Chains (H): Two longer inner chains.
- Light Chains (L): Two shorter outer chains attached to the heavy chains.
- Disulphide Bonds: Connect the heavy-light chains and heavy-heavy chains.
- Antigen Binding Site: Located at the tips (N-terminals) of both the heavy and light chains.
(Students are expected to physically draw a Y-shaped structure and label: Light chain, Heavy chain, Disulphide bond, and Antigen binding site).
Step 4: Final Answer:
Structure is \(H_2L_2\) linked by disulphide bonds with terminal antigen-binding sites.
Quick Tip: Remember to label the variable region at the top (fork of the Y) and the constant region at the stem.
Differentiate between active and passive immunity. Write any three differences.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Immunity is classified based on whether the host's body produces the antibodies or receives them pre-made.
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
Provide three distinct contrasting points.
Step 3: Detailed Explanation:
1. Source of Antibodies: In Active Immunity, antibodies are produced within the host's own body in response to an antigen. In Passive Immunity, ready-made antibodies are directly given to protect the body.
2. Response Time: Active immunity is slow to develop and takes time to give its full effective response. Passive immunity provides immediate relief and fast action.
3. Memory Cells: Active immunity leads to the generation of memory B and T cells, providing long-lasting protection. Passive immunity does not generate memory cells, and its protection is temporary (lasts only as long as the injected antibodies survive).
4. Example: Active: Vaccination (injecting dead microbes). Passive: Colostrum (IgA from mother to infant) or Anti-tetanus serum.
Step 4: Final Answer:
Active creates its own antibodies slowly with memory; passive receives direct antibodies fast without memory.
Quick Tip: Snake antivenom is a classic example of artificial passive immunity.
(I) Write the scientific names of the two species of filarial worms causing filariasis.
(II) How do they affect the body of infected persons ?
(III) How does the disease spread ?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Filariasis (Elephantiasis) is a severe disease caused by helminthic infection.
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
Address all three sub-questions sequentially based on pathogen, symptoms, and transmission.
Step 3: Detailed Explanation:
(I) Pathogens: The two species are Wuchereria bancrofti and Wuchereria malayi.
(II) Effect on body: The worms live in the lymphatic vessels, usually of the lower limbs. They cause a slowly developing chronic inflammation of the organs where they reside for many years. This results in massive swelling (elephantiasis) of the legs and sometimes severe deformities of the genital organs.
(III) Spread: The disease is transmitted to a healthy person through the bite of the female mosquito vectors (primarily Culex mosquitoes).
Step 4: Final Answer:
W. bancrofti/malayi; cause chronic lymphatic inflammation; spread by female mosquito bite.
Quick Tip: Always underline scientific names separately in exams if writing by hand (Wuchereria bancrofti).
Mention the source and the role of the following in providing defence against infection in the human body :
(I) Histamine
(II) Interferons
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Histamines and interferons are specific biochemical molecules involved in the body's immune responses.
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
Identify the secreting cells and the physiological function of each molecule.
Step 3: Detailed Explanation:
(I) Histamine:
- Source: Secreted by mast cells and basophils.
- Role: It acts as a vasodilator and increases vascular permeability. It is primarily involved in triggering inflammatory responses and allergic reactions (like sneezing, watery eyes) to trap and isolate foreign antigens.
(II) Interferons:
- Source: Secreted by virus-infected cells.
- Role: Interferons are cytokine barrier proteins. They diffuse to nearby uninfected cells and coat them, providing protection by inhibiting viral replication, thereby preventing the further spread of the viral infection.
Step 4: Final Answer:
Histamine from mast cells causes inflammation; Interferons from virus-infected cells protect nearby cells from viruses.
Quick Tip: Interferons do not kill viruses; they protect surrounding non-infected cells.
Briefly explain the events of fertilisation and implantation in an adult human female.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Reproduction involves the fusion of gametes followed by embryonic development and attachment to the uterus.
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
Chronologically sequence the events from sperm entry to blastocyst attachment.
Step 3: Detailed Explanation:
Fertilisation:
- A sperm comes in contact with the zona pellucida layer of the ovum in the ampullary region of the fallopian tube.
- It induces changes in the membrane that block the entry of additional sperms (preventing polyspermy).
- The acrosome secretions help the sperm enter the ovum cytoplasm. This induces the completion of the secondary oocyte's meiotic division.
- The haploid nucleus of the sperm and ovum fuse to form a diploid zygote.
Implantation:
- The zygote undergoes rapid mitotic divisions called cleavage as it moves towards the uterus, forming 2, 4, 8, 16 daughter cells called blastomeres.
- The 8 to 16 cell stage is called a morula.
- The morula continues dividing and transforms into a hollow structure called a blastocyst.
- The blastocyst has an outer layer of cells (trophoblast) and an inner group of cells (inner cell mass).
- The trophoblast attaches to the endometrium of the uterus. The uterine cells rapidly divide and cover the blastocyst, leading to its embedding in the wall. This is called implantation, which leads to pregnancy.
Step 4: Final Answer:
Fertilisation forms a zygote; cleavage forms a blastocyst; trophoblast attaches to endometrium.
Quick Tip: Implantation occurs roughly 7 days after fertilisation.
Arrange the following hormones in sequence of their secretion in a pregnant woman :
hCG; LH; FSH; Relaxin.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Hormones are secreted sequentially to regulate the menstrual cycle, initiate pregnancy, and facilitate childbirth.
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
Analyze the reproductive timeline from follicle maturation to late pregnancy.
Step 3: Detailed Explanation:
1. FSH (Follicle Stimulating Hormone): Secreted early in the menstrual cycle to stimulate follicle development.
2. LH (Luteinizing Hormone): Surges mid-cycle to trigger ovulation and the formation of the corpus luteum.
3. hCG (Human Chorionic Gonadotropin): Secreted by the placenta shortly after implantation to maintain the corpus luteum during early pregnancy.
4. Relaxin: Secreted in the later stages of pregnancy to help relax pelvic ligaments for childbirth.
Step 4: Final Answer:
The sequence is FSH, LH, hCG, Relaxin.
Quick Tip: hCG and Relaxin are hormones produced in a woman ONLY during pregnancy.
Mention the source and the functions of the above mentioned hormones.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Each reproductive hormone has a specific endocrine source and target organ.
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
Match each hormone to its gland and its primary physiological role in reproduction.
Step 3: Detailed Explanation:
1. FSH:
- Source: Anterior Pituitary gland.
- Function: Stimulates the growth and maturation of ovarian follicles and secretion of estrogens.
2. LH:
- Source: Anterior Pituitary gland.
- Function: LH surge induces rupture of the Graafian follicle (ovulation) and maintains the corpus luteum.
3. hCG:
- Source: Placenta.
- Function: Acts similarly to LH; it rescues the corpus luteum from degenerating, ensuring continuous secretion of progesterone essential to maintain the endometrium for pregnancy.
4. Relaxin:
- Source: Ovary / Placenta (later stages of pregnancy).
- Function: Relaxes the pelvic ligaments and softens the cervix to facilitate parturition (childbirth).
Step 4: Final Answer:
Refer to the detailed explanation for sources and functions.
Quick Tip: The presence of hCG in the urine is the chemical basis for common pregnancy test kits.
*The article might have information for the previous academic years, please refer the official website of the exam.