
CBSE Class 12 2024 Economics Question Paper with Answer Key PDF for Set 1 (Q.P. Code: 58/3/1) is available for download. The exam was successfully conducted by CBSE on March 18, 2024, in the morning session from 10:30 AM to 1:30 PM. As per the students’ initial reactions, the CBSE Class 12 2024 Economics Set 1 Question Paper was reported as Moderate. The Microeconomics section was considered Easy to Moderate, while the Macroeconomics section was reported as Moderate to Challenging.
Candidates can download the CBSE Class 12 Economics Question Paper with Solution and Answer Key PDFs for Set 1 Question Paper (Code: 58/3/1) using the link below.
| CBSE Class 12 Economics (Set 1- 58/3/1) 2024 Question Paper with Answer Key | Check Solution |
Read the following statements: Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose the correct alternative from those given below:
Assertion (A): Voluntarily unemployed people are those able-bodied people who are not willing to work at the prevailing wage rate.
Reason (R): There exists zero involuntary unemployment at full employment level of equilibrium.
Correct Answer: (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
Step 1: Understanding Voluntary Unemployment.
Assertion (A) correctly states that voluntarily unemployed individuals are those who choose not to work at the prevailing wage rate despite job availability. This can be due to personal choices such as waiting for better opportunities, higher wages, or other factors.
Step 2: Evaluating Full Employment and Involuntary Unemployment.
Reason (R) also holds true as full employment equilibrium implies that there is no involuntary unemployment. This means that all those who are willing to work at the given wage rate have jobs.
Step 3: Analyzing the Explanation.
While Reason (R) is true, it does not directly explain voluntary unemployment. Voluntary unemployment exists due to individual choices rather than market equilibrium conditions.
Conclusion: Hence, both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) does not sufficiently explain Assertion (A).
Identify which of the following statements is incorrect with reference to an economy.
Correct Answer: (D) Sum of Gross National Product (GNP) and Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is always equal to zero.
Step 1: Understanding GNP and GDP.
GNP considers the total value of goods and services produced by nationals, including those produced abroad. GDP refers to the total value of goods and services produced within a country's borders.
Step 2: Evaluating the Options.
Conclusion: The statement in (D) is mathematically and logically incorrect.
Inflationary gap in an economy may exist when at full employment level.
Correct Answer: (A) Actual Aggregate Demand > Potential Aggregate Demand
Step 1: Understanding Inflationary Gap.
An inflationary gap occurs when actual aggregate demand exceeds the economy’s potential output at full employment level, causing upward pressure on prices.
Step 2: Evaluating the Options.
Conclusion: The correct answer is (A).
According to the Reserve Bank of India’s (RBI’s) Statistical Supplement released on 19th May, 2023:
"India’s foreign exchange reserves grew for the third straight week and reached near an approximate level of 600 billion."
The above situation will affect the side of the Balance of Payments (BoP) account of India.
Correct Answer: (A) Increase, Credit
Step 1: Understanding Foreign Exchange Reserves.
Foreign exchange reserves increase due to net inflows of foreign currency into the country, such as from exports, foreign investments, or remittances.
Step 2: Evaluating the Balance of Payments.
These inflows are recorded on the credit side of the BoP account, as they represent an increase in the country’s foreign assets.
Conclusion: The correct answer is (A).
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement 1: Reserve ratio and Credit creation process are inversely related.
Statement 2: The Central Bank of an economy performs the vital function of controlling the credit creation process.
Correct Answer: (C) Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
Step 1: Understanding Reserve Ratio and Credit Creation.
The reserve ratio and credit creation process are inversely related because a higher reserve ratio limits the funds available for lending, reducing credit creation.
Step 2: Role of the Central Bank.
The Central Bank controls credit creation through tools like the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR), Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR), and repo rates.
Conclusion: Both statements are correct, making Option (C) the correct answer.
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement 1: Constant rate of change of consumption (∆C) with respect to change in income (∆Y ) is the reason for the straight-line consumption curve.
Statement 2: Marginal rate of change between consumption and income is defined as Average Propensity to Consume (APC).
In the light of the given statements, choose the correct alternative from the fol- lowing:
Correct Answer: (A) Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
1. Statement 1: This is true because a constant rate of change of consumption with respect to income (∆C/∆Y ) represents the Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC), which is why the consumption curve is straight.
2. Statement 2: This is false because the average rate of change between consumption and income is referred to as the Average Propensity to Consume (APC), not the marginal rate of change. APC is defined as C/Y , where C is consumption and Y is income.
3. Therefore, Option (A) is correct.
Read the following statements: Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose the correct alternative from those given below:
Assertion (A): In case of an unfavourable Balance of Trade, the Current Account of the nation may be in surplus.
Reason (R): Net invisible receipts of a nation can exceed the Net visible receipts.
Correct Answer: (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
1. Assertion (A): This is true because even with an unfavourable Balance of Trade (i.e., imports exceed exports), the Current Account can be in surplus if the invisibles (services, remittances, etc.) are significant.
2. Reason (R): This is also true as net invisible receipts (like remittances, IT services, and other incomes) can exceed net visible receipts (goods trade).
3. Linking A and R: Reason (R) directly explains Assertion (A) since the high net invisibles can offset the trade deficit, leading to a Current Account surplus.
4. Thus, Option (A) is correct.
On the basis of the given data, estimate the value of National Income:
| S.No. | Items | Amount (in crore) |
|---|---|---|
| (i) | Government Final Consumption Expenditure | 110 |
| (ii) | Private Final Consumption Expenditure | 200 |
| (iii) | Gross Domestic Fixed Capital Formation | 30 |
| (iv) | Net Exports | (−40) |
| (v) | Increase in Stock | 20 |
| (vi) | Consumption of Fixed Capital | 15 |
| (vii) | Indirect Taxes | 60 |
| (viii) | Subsidies | 15 |
| (ix) | Net Factor Income from Abroad | (−40) |
1. National Income (NNPFC) is calculated using the formula:
NNPFC = C + G + I + Net Exports + Net Factor Income from Abroad − Indirect Taxes + Subsidies.
2. Substituting the given values:
3. Substituting into the formula: NNPFC = 200 + 110 + 50 − 40 − 40 − 60 + 15.
4. Simplifying the equation: NNPFC = 200 + 110 + 50 − 40 − 40 − 60 + 15 = 225 crore.
State any three precautions to be taken while estimating National Income by Expenditure Method.
1. Avoid Double Counting: Ensure that intermediate goods or inputs are not counted multiple times to prevent overstating the national income.
2. Exclude Transfer Payments: Payments like pensions, scholarships, and unemployment benefits should not be included as they do not correspond to the production of goods and services.
3. Include Only Final Expenditures: Intermediate consumption, which is used in the production of other goods, should be excluded to avoid duplication.
4. Adjust for Indirect Taxes and Subsidies: Include indirect taxes and subsidies to convert GDP at market price to GDP at factor cost.
Discuss any two factors which directly affect the demand for foreign exchange of a nation.
1. Imports: When a nation imports goods and services from other countries, it needs foreign exchange to make payments in the currency of the exporting country. An increase in imports, such as petroleum, machinery, or electronics, directly raises the demand for foreign exchange.
2. Foreign Travel and Education: Individuals traveling abroad for tourism, education, or business require foreign exchange to cover expenses like accommodation, tuition fees, or other services. The more citizens traveling abroad or studying overseas, the higher the demand for foreign currency.
Elaborate the two components of Aggregate Supply in a two-sector economy.
1. Consumption (C):
2. Savings (S):
In a two-sector economy, Aggregate Supply (AS) is represented as:
AS = C + S
where all income is either consumed or saved.
"Open market operations by Reserve Bank of India (RBI) help in regulating money supply in the economy." Justify the given statement with valid arguments.
1. Regulating Liquidity:
2. Controlling Inflation:
3. Stabilizing Interest Rates:
For a hypothetical economy, the government incurs an additional investment expenditure of ₹5,000 crore. Assuming that the Marginal Propensity to Save (MPS) becomes half from its present level of 20%, estimate the change in income due to this fall in MPS.
Correct Answer: ₹50,000 crore
Step 1: Identify given values.
Step 2: Calculate the multiplier.
Multiplier = 1 / MPS
For new MPS = 0.1:
Multiplier = 1 / 0.1 = 10
Step 3: Compute the change in income.
ΔY = Multiplier × ΔI
ΔY = 10 × 5,000
ΔY = ₹50,000 crore
Conclusion: Due to the fall in MPS, the change in income is ₹50,000 crore.
Explain the concept of circular flow of income in a two-sector economy.
1. Two-Sector Model:
2. Factor Payments:
3. Expenditure Flow:
4. Continuous Exchange:
"Gross Domestic Product (GDP) and sum of Gross Value Added (GVA) in an economy are always equal." Justify the given statement with valid arguments.
1. Understanding GDP:
2. Understanding GVA:
3. Relationship Between GDP and GVA:
GDP = GVA + Taxes on Products − Subsidies on Products
Conclusion: The two measures are equivalent when adjustments are appropriately made.
“Gross Domestic Product (GDP) Deflator is represented by the ratio of Real GDP and Nominal GDP.”
Do you agree with the given statement? Justify your answer with valid arguments and a hypothetical numerical example.
1. Definition: The GDP Deflator is a measure of the price level changes in an economy. It is calculated as:
GDP Deflator = (Nominal GDP / Real GDP) × 100
2. Explanation:
3. Numerical Example:
| Year | Price (in ) | Output (in units) | Real GDP | Nominal GDP | GDP Deflator |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| 2010 | 10 | 100 | 1,000 | 1,000 | (1000/1000) × 100 = 100 |
| 2015 | 15 | 100 | 1,000 | 1,500 | (1500/1000) × 100 = 150 |
4. From the above table:
State the meaning of ‘Income from Property and Entrepreneurship’.
1. Definition: Income from Property and Entrepreneurship refers to the factor income earned through ownership of assets (property) and entrepreneurial efforts in the production process.
2. Components:
3. These incomes are part of the factor incomes included in the calculation of National Income.
On the basis of the given information, calculate the values of the following:
(i) Fiscal Deficit
(ii) Primary Deficit
| S.No. | Items | Amount (in crore) |
|---|---|---|
| (i) | Capital Expenditure | 30 |
| (ii) | Revenue Receipts | 20 |
| (iii) | Revenue Deficit | 20 |
| (iv) | Interest Payments | 10 |
| (v) | Non-Debt Creating Capital Receipts | 50% of Revenue Receipts |
1. Non-Debt Creating Capital Receipts:
Non-Debt Creating Capital Receipts = (50/100) × Revenue Receipts = (50/100) × 20 = 10 crore.
2. Fiscal Deficit:
Fiscal Deficit = Revenue Deficit + Capital Expenditure − Non-Debt Creating Capital Receipts.
Substituting the values: Fiscal Deficit = 20 + 30 − 10 = 40 crore.
3. Primary Deficit:
Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit − Interest Payments.
Substituting the values: Primary Deficit = 40 − 10 = 30 crore.
State any two examples of private goods.
1. Mobile phones.
2. Personal vehicles.
Distinguish between ‘Public Provision’ and ‘Public Production’.
| Public Provision | Public Production |
|---|---|
| Refers to the supply of goods and services by the government, funded through taxes or other sources. | Refers to the production of goods and services by government-owned entities. |
| Example: Free education in government schools. | Example: Electricity production by state-owned enterprises. |
| May involve private sector participation for delivery. | Entirely managed and controlled by the government. |
Read the following statements: Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose the correct alternative from those given below:
Assertion (A): The agricultural sector under the British rule was primarily the base of the sectoral growth of India.
Reason (R): British rulers wanted to take maximum advantage of the Indian agricultural output, for growth of industries in England.
Correct Answer: (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
1. Assertion (A): This is true because the agricultural sector was the backbone of India’s economy under British rule, providing raw materials for industries.
2. Reason (R): This is also true as the British exploited Indian agriculture to fuel their industrial growth in England.
3. However, Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A) because the agricultural sector’s role was significant due to its structural composition in the Indian economy, not just because of British exploitation.
4. Therefore, Option (B) is correct.
Identify which of the following options are not true with reference to the Chinese economy:
(i) In 1958, communes were established. (ii) In the foreign sector, Special Economic Zones (SEZ) were set up. (iii) Better health facilities reduced mortality rate in China.
Correct Answer: (None of these/All are correct)
1. Statement (i): This is true as communes, or collective farming units, were introduced in 1958 under the Great Leap Forward.
2. Statement (ii): This is *also true* as Special Economic Zones (SEZs) were set up to attract foreign investment and boost export-oriented industries.
3. Statement (iii): This is true since better health facilities significantly reduced mortality rates in China, contributing to improved life expectancy.
4. Therefore, *all* statements are individually true. The question asks which options are *not true*. Since all statements are true, none of the provided A, B, C, or D options are correct. A new option (None of these/All are correct) needs to be added and selected as the correct answer.
Which of the following is/are not an objective of regulated agricultural market?
(i) To discourage improvement of marketing infrastructure for farmers. (ii) To make marketing systems efficient and effective for farmers to get the best price for their products. (iii) To discourage farmers to improve the quantity and quality of their produce.
Correct Answer: (A) (i) and (iii)
1. Statement (i): This is not an objective because improving marketing infrastructure is essential to support farmers and enhance their income.
2. Statement (ii): This is a valid objective, as efficient and effective marketing systems help farmers achieve better pricing.
3. Statement (iii): This is not an objective because encouraging farmers to improve the quantity and quality of their produce is crucial for overall agricultural growth.
4. Therefore, Statements (i) and (iii) are not objectives.
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement 1: Land ceiling was one of the Government policies to promote equity in the agriculture sector.
Statement 2: Land reforms resulted in the abolition of the Zamindari system in the post-independence period.
Correct Answer: (C) Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
Step 1: Land Ceiling as a Policy.
Land ceiling was implemented to limit land ownership and distribute surplus land to landless farmers, promoting equity in agriculture.
Step 2: Abolition of Zamindari System.
Post-independence land reforms abolished the exploitative Zamindari system, giving ownership rights to tenants and small farmers.
Conclusion: Both statements are correct as they describe key policies aimed at reducing inequality and promoting fairness in the agricultural sector.
Read the following statements: Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose the correct alternative.
Assertion (A): Goods and Services Tax (GST) was implemented by the Government of India on 8th November, 2016.
Reason (R): GST was introduced to implement a unified indirect tax system in India.
Correct Answer: (D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Step 1: Verify the Implementation Date.
GST was implemented on 1st July, 2017, not on 8th November, 2016, making Assertion (A) false.
Step 2: Verify the Purpose of GST.
Reason (R) is true as GST aimed to unify the indirect tax system in India by replacing multiple indirect taxes with a single tax structure.
Conclusion: Since Assertion (A) is incorrect but Reason (R) is correct, the correct answer is (D).
Identify which of the following is not a member nation of G20.
Correct Answer: (D) Bangladesh
Step 1: Understanding G20 Membership.
The G20 (Group of Twenty) is an international forum of 19 countries and the European Union, focusing on global economic issues.
Step 2: Identifying Members.
Argentina, Australia, and Brazil are members of the G20, while Bangladesh is not.
Conclusion: Bangladesh, despite being a growing economy, is not a G20 member but participates in discussions as an invited country.
Production of varied forms of crops against one specialized crop is called diversification of ______.
Correct Answer: (C) Crops
Step 1: Understanding Crop Diversification.
Crop diversification refers to cultivating multiple crops in a given area instead of depending on a single crop.
Step 2: Benefits of Crop Diversification.
Conclusion: Crop diversification is the correct term, making option (C) the correct answer.
Identify which of the following is not a Human Development Indicator (HDI).
Correct Answer: (D) Unemployment
Step 1: Understanding HDI Components.
Step 2: Why Unemployment is Not Included?
Unemployment is an economic indicator but not directly used in HDI calculations.
Conclusion: Since HDI focuses on health, education, and income, unemployment is not an HDI measure.
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement 1: Human development is based on the idea that education and health are integral to human well-being.
Statement 2: Human capital treats humans as a means to an end.
Correct Answer: (C) Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
Step 1: Understanding Human Development.
Human development focuses on well-being, with education and health as essential components.
Step 2: Understanding Human Capital.
Human capital treats education and health as investments to improve productivity and economic growth.
Conclusion: Both statements correctly describe different perspectives on human progress.
“Trade and Investment Policy of India had undergone comprehensive changes in the post-reform period of 1991.”
Do you agree with the given statement? Justify your answer with any two valid arguments.
1. Liberalization of Trade Policies:
2. Promotion of Foreign Direct Investment (FDI):
Discuss any two salient features of Indian industrial sector during the period of 1950 – 1990.
1. Dominance of Public Sector:
2. License Raj:
“In India, National Education Policy 2020 has stressed a lot on in-service training of the teachers.”
(i) Identify the source of Human Capital Formation (HCF) indicated in the afore- said statement.
(ii) Elaborate the likely impacts of this source on the economic development of India.
(i)
(ii)
(a) Enhanced Workforce Productivity:
(b) Accelerated Economic Growth:
(c) Reduction in Social Inequalities:
(d) Improved Social Outcomes:
From the given data, compare and analyze India and China’s sectoral contri- bution towards Gross Value Added (GVA).
| Sector | Contribution to GVA (%) India | China | Pakistan |
Distribution of Workforce (%) India | China | Pakistan |
|---|---|---|
| Agriculture | 16 | 7 | 24 | 43 | 26 | 41 |
| Industry | 30 | 41 | 19 | 25 | 28 | 24 |
| Services | 54 | 52 | 57 | 32 | 46 | 35 |
| Total | 100 | 100 | 100 | 100 | 100 | 100 |
1. Sectoral Contribution and Workforce Distribution in India:
2. Sectoral Contribution and Workforce Distribution in China:
3. Comparison Between India and China:
State and elaborate whether the following statements are true or false, with valid arguments:
1. Organic Farming has essentially become the need of the hour.
Organic farming has become an essential practice due to its numerous environmental, health, and economic benefits. It reduces dependence on chemical fertilizers and pesticides, ensuring long-term soil fertility and promoting biodiversity.
Reasons for Organic Farming as a Necessity:
Conclusion: Given these benefits, organic farming is indeed the need of the hour.
2. In the recent past, the Government of India has taken crucial steps, like Jan-Dhan Yojana, for efficient allocation of financial resources.
The Government of India introduced the Pradhan Mantri Jan-Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) to promote financial inclusion and ensure efficient allocation of financial resources.
Impact of PMJDY:
Conclusion: The statement is true, as Jan-Dhan Yojana has significantly improved financial accessibility and economic inclusivity.
Define worker-population ratio and describe its usefulness.
Definition:
The worker-population ratio represents the proportion of employed individuals to the total population of a country. It is expressed as:
Worker-Population Ratio = (Total Workers / Total Population) × 100
Usefulness:
Conclusion: A higher worker-population ratio suggests better employment opportunities, while a lower ratio indicates underutilization of labor, requiring policy intervention.
State the meaning of ‘Disguised Unemployment’.
Definition:
Disguised unemployment occurs when more workers are engaged in a task than necessary, leading to no additional contribution to productivity.
Example:
If a small farm requires only three laborers to produce a given output but five laborers are working, the extra two laborers do not contribute to productivity. This situation is termed disguised unemployment.
Implications:
Conclusion: Disguised unemployment is common in agriculture, where excess labor does not contribute to productivity.
Study the given image carefully:

Identify the situation depicted in the image and suggest the impact of the indicated situation in the Indian economy.
1. Situation Depicted:
The image highlights the prevalence of unemployment and underemployment in the informal sector of the Indian economy. A large segment of India’s workforce is engaged in low-paying, insecure jobs with minimal benefits.
2. Impact on the Indian Economy:
Conclusion: Addressing informal sector unemployment requires labor market reforms, social security measures, and skill development programs.
It is necessary to generate employment in the formal sector rather than in the informal sector. Justify the given statement.
1. Importance of Formal Sector Employment:
2. Challenges of the Informal Sector:
The real motive behind infrastructural development in India was to strengthen British interests.
Do you agree with the given statement? Justify your answer with valid argu- ments.
Agree: The British introduced infrastructure developments primarily to serve their economic and administrative needs rather than benefiting India’s long-term economic progress.
Justification:
Navratna policy has facilitated the maintenance, promotion, and disinvest- ment of Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs).
Justify the given statement with a valid explanation.
Navratna Policy: Introduced to grant financial and operational autonomy to well-performing PSUs, enabling them to compete globally and improve efficiency.
Justification:
Every coin has two sides — debate over farm subsidies is one such classic example of the same.
Justify the given statement with two arguments each in favor and against the con- tinuation of farm subsidies.
Arguments in Favor of Farm Subsidies:
Arguments Against Farm Subsidies:
State the importance of “Growth with Equity” as an objective of Indian eco- nomic planning.
State the meaning of green growth and net zero emissions.
• Green Growth:
• Net Zero Emissions:
Discuss briefly the interconnection between green growth and net zero emis- sions.
• Reduction of Greenhouse Gas Emissions:
• Economic Growth and Sustainable Investment:
• Long-term Environmental Benefits:
Illustrate any one factor to promote net zero emission.
• Example: Investing in Renewable Energy Sources.
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