
CBSE Class 12 2024 Economics Question Paper with Answer Key PDF for Set 3 (Q.P. Code: 58/2/3) is available for download. The exam was successfully conducted by CBSE on March 18, 2024, in the morning session from 10:30 AM to 1:30 PM. As per the students’ initial reactions, the CBSE Class 12 2024 Economics Set 3 Question Paper was reported as Moderate. The Microeconomics section was considered Easy to Moderate, while the Macroeconomics section was reported as Moderate to Challenging.
Candidates can download the CBSE Class 12 Economics Question Paper with Solution and Answer Key PDFs for Set 3 Question Paper (Code: 58/2/3) using the link below.
| CBSE Class 12 Economics (Set 3- 58/2/3) 2024 Question Paper with Answer Key | Check Solution |
Identify which of the following will appear on the debit side in the Capital Account of India’s Balance of Payments:
Correct Answer: (B) Investing in assets abroad by Indians.
Investing in assets abroad by Indians represents an outflow of funds from the economy, which is recorded as a debit entry in the Capital Account of the Balance of Payments.
Identify which of the following is not one of the merits of a fixed exchange rate system:
Correct Answer: (B) Possibility of under or overvaluation of foreign currency.
The possibility of under or overvaluation of foreign currency is a limitation of the fixed exchange rate system, not a merit. Fixed exchange rates provide stability but can lead to currency misvaluation.
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement 1: A consumption function describes the relationship between consumption and savings.
Statement 2: Consumption function consists of two components—autonomous consumption and induced consumption.
Choose the correct alternative:
Correct Answer: (B) Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
Statement 1 is false because the consumption function describes the relationship between consumption and income, not savings. Statement 2 is true because the consumption function consists of autonomous consumption (independent of income) and induced consumption (dependent on income).
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement 1: Economic territory and political frontier of a nation are one and the same thing.
Statement 2: American Embassy in India is a part of the economic territory of India.
Choose the correct alternative:
Correct Answer: (D) Both statements 1 and 2 are false.
Statement 1 is false because a nation's economic territory extends beyond its political frontier, including embassies, consulates, and businesses abroad under its control. Statement 2 is also false because the American Embassy in India is part of the United States' economic territory, not India.
Identify the incorrect statement with reference to Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR):
Correct Answer: (C) It is not binding on the commercial banks.
CRR is mandatory for all commercial banks as prescribed by the Central Bank. Option (C) is incorrect because it suggests that CRR is not binding, which is false.
Study the following figure carefully and choose the correct alternative to fill in the blank:
Balance of Payments Account

Correct Answer: (B) Trade of Services.
The Current Account in the Balance of Payments includes trade in goods (merchandise), trade in services, and transfer payments. Therefore, the correct alternative to fill in the blank is Trade of Services.
Read the following statements:
Assertion (A): The equilibrium level of income is determined when ex-ante spending and ex-ante output are equal.
Reason (R): The equilibrium level of income may or may not be the same as the full employment level of output.
Choose the correct alternative:
Correct Answer: (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
Assertion (A) is true because the equilibrium level of income is achieved when planned (ex-ante) spending equals planned (ex-ante) output, ensuring no unintended inventory changes. Reason (R) is also true because the equilibrium level of income may occur below or above the full employment level due to variations in aggregate demand. However, Reason (R) does not fully explain Assertion (A), as equilibrium income is based on aggregate demand, not necessarily full employment.
Read the following statements:
Assertion (A): The equilibrium level of income is determined when ex-ante spending and ex-ante output are equal.
Reason (R): The equilibrium level of income may or may not be the same as the full employment level of output.
Choose the correct alternative:
Correct Answer: (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
Step 1: Understanding the Equilibrium Level of Income
The equilibrium level of income is achieved when planned (ex-ante) spending equals planned (ex-ante) output, ensuring no unintended inventory changes.
Step 2: Understanding Full Employment Level
The equilibrium level of income may or may not be equal to the full employment output. It can be below full employment if there is insufficient aggregate demand or above full employment in cases of excess demand.
Conclusion: Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) does not fully explain Assertion (A). The equilibrium level of income is based on aggregate demand, while full employment depends on labor market conditions.
Read the following statements:
Assertion (A): The maximum value of Marginal Propensity to Save (MPS) can be unity.
Reason (R): At the break-even level of income, savings are zero.
Choose the correct alternative:
Correct Answer: (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
Step 1: Understanding Marginal Propensity to Save (MPS)
MPS represents the proportion of additional income that is saved. Theoretically, its maximum value can be 1 (i.e., when the entire additional income is saved). However, in practical scenarios, this rarely happens.
Step 2: Understanding Break-even Income
At the break-even level of income, all earned income is used for consumption, leaving no savings. This explains why savings are zero at this point.
Conclusion: While both statements are true, Reason (R) does not fully explain Assertion (A). Break-even income refers to a specific income level where savings are zero, while MPS relates to the proportion of income saved.
"An increase in the credit creation capacity of commercial banks has a direct impact on the money supply in an economy."
Correct Answer: True
Step 1: Understanding Credit Creation by Banks
Commercial banks play a vital role in the money supply by creating credit. The process of credit creation occurs when banks accept deposits and provide loans, thereby expanding the money supply.
Step 2: Role of the Reserve Ratio
The credit creation capacity of commercial banks depends on the reserve ratio (CRR and SLR) set by the Central Bank. A lower reserve ratio allows banks to lend more, increasing the money supply.
Step 3: Money Multiplier Effect
The credit creation process follows the money multiplier effect, where each deposit leads to multiple rounds of lending and deposit creation, significantly expanding the money supply.
Conclusion: Credit creation by commercial banks directly affects the money supply, making it a crucial factor in monetary policy.
“Accommodating transactions are undertaken to maintain stability in the Balance of Payments Account.”
Correct Answer: True
Step 1: Understanding Accommodating Transactions
Accommodating transactions in the Balance of Payments (BoP) are non-market-driven transactions undertaken by the government or central bank to correct imbalances in the BoP.
Step 2: Purpose of Accommodating Transactions
These transactions bridge gaps in the BoP when there is a deficit in the current account or capital account. They help maintain stability in foreign exchange reserves and economic stability.
Step 3: Examples of Accommodating Transactions
Conclusion: Accommodating transactions ensure that BoP imbalances do not adversely affect economic stability, making them an essential tool for economic management.
On the basis of the data given below, estimate the value of Gross National Product at Factor Cost (GNPFC):
| Items | Amount (in crore) |
|---|---|
| Wages and Salaries | 2,000 |
| Rent and Interest | 800 |
| Corporate Tax | 500 |
| Undistributed Profit | 300 |
| Dividend | 200 |
| Depreciation | 150 |
| Net Factor Income from Abroad | -50 |
Correct Answer: GNPFC = 3,900 crore
Step 1: Formula for GNPFC
GNPFC = Wages & Salaries + Rent & Interest + Corporate Tax + Undistributed Profit + Dividend + Depreciation + Net Factor Income from Abroad
Step 2: Substituting the Values
GNPFC = 2000 + 800 + 500 + 300 + 200 + 150 + (-50)
Step 3: Calculation
GNPFC = 3,900 crore
Conclusion: The Gross National Product at Factor Cost (GNPFC) is 3,900 crore.
"If actual demand for final goods falls short of the actual output of final goods corresponding to full employment level, it may lead to an unintended accumulation of inventories." Do you agree? Justify.
Correct Answer: Yes
Step 1: Understanding Demand and Output
If the actual demand for final goods is lower than the full employment output, firms are unable to sell all their produced goods.
Step 2: Impact on Inventory
Since unsold goods accumulate, this results in unintended inventory build-up, forcing firms to cut production in the future.
Step 3: Consequences
Conclusion: A demand shortfall leads to excess inventory accumulation, negatively impacting economic stability.
"An increase in the credit creation capacity of commercial banks has a direct impact on the money supply in an economy." Discuss.
Correct Answer: True
Step 1: Role of Credit Creation
Commercial banks create money by issuing loans. When banks lend money, the funds are re-deposited into the banking system, leading to further lending.
Step 2: Money Multiplier Effect
Each loan creates new deposits, which further increase lending capacity, leading to an overall expansion of the money supply.
Step 3: Reserve Ratio Impact
A lower reserve ratio (CRR & SLR) allows banks to lend more, increasing money supply.
Conclusion: Credit creation plays a vital role in money supply expansion, directly influencing economic activity.
For a hypothetical economy, assume the government increased infrastructural investment by ₹30,000 crore. 80% of additional income is consumed in the economy. Estimate the increase in income and the corresponding increase in consumption expenditure.
Correct Answer: Increase in Income = ₹1,50,000 crore, Increase in Consumption Expenditure = ₹1,20,000 crore
Step 1: Given Data
Step 2: Calculate the Multiplier (K)
Formula: K = 1 / (1 - MPC)
K = 1 / (1 - 0.8) = 1 / 0.2 = 5
Step 3: Calculate Increase in Income (ΔY)
ΔY = K × ΔI
ΔY = 5 × 30,000 = ₹1,50,000 crore
Step 4: Calculate Increase in Consumption Expenditure (ΔC)
ΔC = MPC × ΔY
ΔC = 0.8 × 1,50,000 = ₹1,20,000 crore
Conclusion: An investment increase of ₹30,000 crore leads to an income rise of ₹1,50,000 crore and a consumption expenditure increase of ₹1,20,000 crore.
| Direct Tax | Indirect Tax |
|---|---|
| Imposed directly on the income or wealth of individuals and entities. | Imposed on goods and services; paid indirectly by consumers. |
| Example: Income Tax, Corporate Tax. | Example: GST, Excise Duty. |
| Collected directly by the government from taxpayers. | Collected by intermediaries (like sellers) and paid to the government. |
Conclusion: Direct taxes are income-based, while indirect taxes are consumption-based. Examples: Income Tax (direct) and GST (indirect).
Reallocation of Resources: The government, through its budgetary policies, reallocates resources to fulfill socio-economic objectives.
Conclusion: Reallocation of resources ensures balanced economic development through taxation, subsidies, and direct public sector participation.
| Items | Amount (in Crore) |
|---|---|
| Tax Receipts | 1,200 |
| Revenue Expenditure | 3,700 |
| Non-Tax Receipts | 2,000 |
| Recovery of Loans | 145 |
| Capital Expenditure | 500 |
| Disinvestment | 120 |
| Interest Payments | 1,070 |
(a) Revenue Deficit:
Revenue Deficit = Revenue Expenditure − Revenue Receipts
Revenue Receipts = Tax Receipts + Non-Tax Receipts = 1,200 + 2,000 = 3,200
Revenue Deficit = 3,700 − 3,200 = 500 crore.
(b) Fiscal Deficit:
Fiscal Deficit = Total Expenditure − Total Receipts (excluding borrowings)
Total Expenditure = Revenue Expenditure + Capital Expenditure = 3,700 + 500 = 4,200
Total Receipts (excluding borrowings) = Revenue Receipts + Recovery of Loans + Disinvestment = 3,200 + 145 + 120 = 3,465
Fiscal Deficit = 4,200 − 3,465 = 735 crore.
| Public Provision | Public Production |
|---|---|
| Supply of goods and services by the government, funded through taxes or other sources. | Production of goods and services by government-owned entities. |
| Example: Free education in government schools. | Example: Production of electricity by state-owned companies. |
| May involve private sector participation for delivery. | Entirely managed and controlled by the public sector. |
Decisions taken by factors of production in the production process often affect stakeholders indirectly. Such impacts at times are huge but are not accounted for in national income estimation. Economists call them externalities, which can be positive or negative.
In this regard, many economists suggest carbon pricing as an important tool to ensure ecological balance. Carbon pricing tries to control greenhouse gas emissions by either placing a fee on emissions or offering subsidies for lesser emissions. Through instruments like carbon tax, green cess, eco tax, etc., economists suggest moving towards greener technology, eliminating negative externalities.
Definition: Externalities refer to the unintended side effects of economic activities on third parties that are not directly involved in the production or consumption of goods or services.
| Positive Externalities | Negative Externalities |
|---|---|
| Occurs when an economic activity benefits third parties. | Occurs when an economic activity imposes costs on third parties. |
| Leads to under-consumption or under-production since benefits are not fully captured. | Leads to over-consumption or over-production since costs are not fully borne by producers. |
| Encouraged by subsidies, tax benefits, and public investment. | Controlled through regulations, pollution taxes, and penalties. |
| Example: Free vaccination programs reduce disease transmission. | Example: Industrial pollution harms nearby communities. |
Step 1: Role of Carbon Pricing
Step 2: Importance of Carbon Pricing
Conclusion: Carbon pricing is essential for reducing emissions, promoting clean energy, and achieving ecological balance.
China was able to control its rapid population growth rate owing to:
Correct Answer: (B) One-Child Policy
The One-Child Policy was introduced in China in 1979 to address its rapid population growth. It restricted most families to having only one child, significantly reducing the population growth rate over time. However, it also led to challenges such as an aging population and gender imbalance.
During the British rule, India’s foreign trade had various features except:
Correct Answer: (C) Free trade from India to the rest of the world
During British rule, India’s foreign trade was controlled by restrictive policies aimed at serving British economic interests. There was no free trade from India to the rest of the world as trade policies were designed to maintain the British monopoly over exports and imports. Although India had a large export surplus, the proceeds were primarily used to meet the administrative and military expenses of the British.
Modernization is an important economic planning objective that focuses on:
Correct Answer: (C) (i) and (iii)
Modernization in economic planning focuses on:
Equal distribution of income falls under economic equity, not modernization.
_______ farming is a system that is helpful in restoring, maintaining, and enhancing the ecological balance.
Correct Answer: (B) Organic
Organic farming promotes ecological balance by avoiding synthetic fertilizers and pesticides, using crop rotation, composting, and biological pest control. This method supports sustainable agriculture by conserving soil fertility and reducing pollution.
The present-day rapid industrial growth in China can be traced back to the economic reforms introduced in 1978, where:
Correct Answer: (C) (i) and (ii)
China's 1978 reforms began in agriculture, foreign trade, and investment, setting the stage for rapid industrial growth. The policy of dual pricing allowed state-set prices to coexist with market-driven prices, encouraging private sector growth. Instead of revoking Special Economic Zones (SEZs), China introduced them to attract foreign investment.
Read the following statements: Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose the correct alternative:
Assertion (A): In the recent past, the Indian economy has been facing the problem of jobless growth.
Reason (R): Jobless growth refers to a situation where an economy is able to produce more goods and services without generating additional employment.
Correct Answer: (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
India has experienced jobless growth where GDP increases but employment does not expand at the same rate. While technological advancements contribute to jobless growth, other factors such as a shift towards capital-intensive industries, lack of skill development, and automation also play a role, making Reason (R) a partial explanation.
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement 1: India, Pakistan, and China have similar physical endowments but totally different political systems.
Statement 2: Both India and Pakistan laid great emphasis on creating a large private sector.
Correct Answer: (A) Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
India, Pakistan, and China share similar geographical features but have different political systems. India initially emphasized a mixed economy with a strong public sector, and Pakistan also focused on state-led initiatives, rather than prioritizing a large private sector.
Identify the sources of Human Capital Formation:

Correct Answer: (D) Expenditure on Health and Expenditure on Migration
Human Capital Formation involves developing skills, knowledge, and health to increase productivity. Expenditure on health ensures a productive workforce, while migration allows skilled labor to move to better opportunities.
From the type of workers given in Column I, identify the correct nature of work in Column II:
| Column I | Column II |
|---|---|
| 1. Cement shop owner | (iii) Self-employed |
| 2. Construction worker | (ii) Casual wage worker |
| 3. Civil engineer | (i) Regular salaried |
Correct Answer: (C) 1-(iii); 2-(ii); 3-(i)
Explanation:
After the implementation of economic reforms, Pakistan experienced slowdown of growth due to various reasons including:
Correct Answer: (C) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Pakistan faced several challenges post-reforms:
"Micro-credit programmes have helped to fill in the gaps in the formal credit system." Justify the statement.
Micro-credit programmes bridge the gap between formal credit systems and underserved populations by providing small, collateral-free loans.
Key Contributions of Micro-Credit Programmes:
"Information Technology can play a crucial role in rural development." Discuss.
Ways IT Contributes to Rural Development:
Interpret the given picture and explain any one strategy to prevent ecological disasters.

The image depicts industrial pollution contributing to environmental degradation.
Possible Solutions:
Discuss any two benefits accruing from human capital formation.
On the basis of the data given below, discuss the shift in output and employment sector-wise, in India and China:
| Sector | Contribution to GVA (%) | Distribution of Workforce (%) |
|---|---|---|
| Agriculture | India: 16 | China: 7 | Pakistan: 24 | India: 43 | China: 26 | Pakistan: 41 |
| Industry | India: 30 | China: 41 | Pakistan: 19 | India: 25 | China: 28 | Pakistan: 24 |
| Services | India: 54 | China: 52 | Pakistan: 57 | India: 32 | China: 46 | Pakistan: 35 |
(a) Discuss any two factors that led to stagnation in the Indian agriculture sector during British rule.
(a)(i) “Amita is a regular worker in a private firm with 12 hired workers.” Is she working in the formal or informal sector? Justify.
Amita works in the formal sector because:
State any two sources of data on unemployment in India.
1. Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS): Provides comprehensive data on employment and unemployment trends.
2. Census of India: Collects detailed demographic data, including economic activity and unemployment statistics.
Elaborate the need to promote women’s education in India.
1. Economic Growth: Educating women enhances workforce participation and productivity.
2. Social Development: Women’s education improves healthcare, child welfare, and community progress.
“The participation rate of people in economic activities in rural areas is more than that in urban areas.” Justify the given statement.
1. Rural areas have higher participation in primary activities like agriculture due to lack of alternative employment opportunities.
2. Urban areas rely more on mechanization, requiring fewer workers for economic activities.
Define disguised unemployment. State its implications on output and employ- ment in a country.
1. Definition: Disguised unemployment refers to a situation where more people are employed than necessary, resulting in zero marginal productivity.
2. Implications:
• Reduced efficiency in labor utilization.
• Lowers potential GDP by keeping excess workers in low-productive sectors like agriculture.
India’s industrial policy since independence has been shaped broadly in terms of the Industrial Policy Resolution of 1948. It emphasized on the sole responsibility of the government in the matter of promoting, assisting, and regulating the development of industries in the national interest. It envisaged an active and dominant role of public sector.
The next Industrial Policy Resolution was placed before the Parliament by the Prime Minister on 30th April, 1956. It suggested that, “There is a need for adoption of the socialist pattern of economy as the national objective, along with the need for planned and rapid development. It required that all industries of basic and strategic importance, or in public utility services, should be in the public sector.
Other industries which are essential and require investment on a massive scale (which only the State could provide) have also to be in the public sector. Thus, the State has to assume direct responsibility for the future development of industries.”
This Resolution classifies industries into three categories:
• The first category given in Schedule A, consists of industries the future development of which will be the exclusive responsibility of the State.
• In the second category given in Schedule B, are industries which will be progressively State- owned. However, in them, private enterprise will also be expected to participate.
• The third category comprises all the remaining industries, the further development of which will be left to the initiative and enterprise of the private sector.
On the basis of the given text and common understanding, answer the following questions:
(i) The Government of India, in the initial years of economic development, empha- sized on a greater role of the public sector in the industrial development.” Justify the statement, giving reasons in support of your answer.
(ii) Outline and discuss the classification of industries into various categories as per Industrial Policy Resolution, 1956.
(i)
1. In the initial years post-independence, India’s focus was on building a socialist pattern of economy to address socio-economic inequalities and achieve self-reliance.
2. The Industrial Policy Resolutions of 1948 and 1956 emphasized the role of the public sector in controlling basic and strategic industries, ensuring equitable distribution of resources and wealth.
3. This approach aimed at reducing the dominance of private monopolies and promoting rapid industrialization under state supervision.
(ii)
1. Schedule A:
• Includes industries of strategic and national importance, such as defense, atomic energy, and railways.
• These industries were to be exclusively owned and operated by the State.
2. Schedule B:
• Includes industries that were to be progressively state-owned, with private sector participation allowed under government regulations.
• Example: Chemical industries, machine tools.
3. Schedule C:
• Includes all other industries not covered under Schedules A and B.
• Their development was left to private enterprises, though the government provided guidance and support.
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