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Nidhi Bamnawat

| Updated On - Feb 24, 2026

The CBSE Class 12 Accountancy Question Paper 2026 is available for download here. The 2026 CBSE Class 12 Accountancy exam is a 3-hour theory paper. The question paper consists of 34 compulsory questions. Part A carries 56 marks and is compulsory for all students, while Part B (24 marks) includes internal choices between Financial Statement Analysis and Cash Flow Statement units.

CBSE Class 12 Accountancy Question Paper 2026 (Set 67/5/1) with Solution Pdf

CBSE Class 12 Accountancy Question Paper 2026 Download PDF Check Solutions
CBSE Class 12 Accountancy Question Paper 2026 (Set 1 - 67-5-1) with Solution Pdf

Question 1:

Arora and Gurmeet were partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of \(3 : 2\). Starting from \(1^{st}\) October, \(2024\) Arora withdrew \(₹ 30,000\) at the beginning of each quarter for his personal use. Interest on drawings was to be charged @ \(12%\) per annum. Interest on Arora's drawings for the year ended \(31^{st}\) March, \(2025\) was :

  • (A) \(₹ 1,800\)
  • (B) \(₹ 2,700\)
  • (C) \(₹ 450\)
  • (D) \(₹ 3,600\)
Correct Answer: (B) \(₹ 2,700\)
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Interest on drawings is calculated based on the total amount withdrawn during the period and the average time for which the money was utilized.

In this scenario, the withdrawals start from \(1^{st}\) October and the accounting year ends on \(31^{st}\) March, spanning a \(6\) month period.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

The average period for interest calculation when drawings are made at the beginning of each quarter is:
\[ Average Period = \frac{Months left after first drawing + Months left after last drawing}{2} \]
\[ Interest on Drawings = Total Drawings \times \frac{Rate}{100} \times \frac{Average Period}{12} \]


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. Total Period: From \(1^{st}\) October, \(2024\) to \(31^{st}\) March, \(2025 = 6\) months.

2. Number of Quarters: Since there are \(6\) months, there are \(2\) quarters (Oct-Dec and Jan-Mar).

3. Total Drawings: \(₹ 30,000 \times 2\) quarters \(= ₹ 60,000\).

4. Average Period:

- First drawing on \(1^{st}\) October: \(6\) months left.

- Last drawing on \(1^{st}\) January: \(3\) months left.

- Average Period \(= \frac{6 + 3}{2} = 4.5\) months.

5. Interest Calculation:
\[ Interest = 60,000 \times \frac{12}{100} \times \frac{4.5}{12} \]
\[ Interest = 60,000 \times \frac{4.5}{100} = 600 \times 4.5 = ₹ 2,700 \]


Step 4: Final Answer:

The interest on Arora's drawings for the year ended \(31^{st}\) March, \(2025\) is \(₹ 2,700\).
Quick Tip: Always identify the total period for which drawings are made. If the year ends on \(31^{st}\) March and drawings started on \(1^{st}\) October, calculations are only for \(6\) months.
Average Period for beginning of Quarter (\(6\) month duration) \(= (6 + 3) / 2 = 4.5\).


Question 2:

There are two statements Assertion (A) and Reason (R) :

Assertion (A) : At the time of admission of a new partner in a partnership firm, the newly admitted partner brings an agreed amount of capital either in cash or in kind.

Reason (R) : On admission, the new partner gets the right to acquire share in the assets and profits of the partnership firm.

Choose the correct option from the following :

  • (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  • (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct, but Reason (R) is \textbf{not} the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  • (C) Assertion (A) is correct, but Reason (R) is incorrect.
  • (D) Assertion (A) is incorrect, but Reason (R) is correct.
Correct Answer: (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

When a new partner is admitted, they gain ownership rights in the firm. To acquire these rights, they must contribute capital as consideration.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. Assertion (A) is true because a new partner must provide capital (either money or assets) to establish their equity in the firm.

2. Reason (R) is true because the legal outcome of admission is that the partner gains a claim on the firm's assets and a share in future profits.

3. Since the acquisition of rights in assets and profits is the justification for bringing in capital, Reason (R) correctly explains Assertion (A).


Step 4: Final Answer:

Both statements are correct and logically linked. Therefore, (A) is the correct choice.
Quick Tip: In Assertion-Reason questions, read both independently first. If both are true, check if the "Reason" explains the "Why" of the "Assertion". Capital is the price paid for ownership rights.


Question 3:

Merak Ltd. forfeited \(6,000\) equity shares of \(₹ 10\) each for non-payment of final call of \(₹ 3\) per share. The minimum amount per share at which these shares can be reissued will be :

  • (A) \(₹ 3\)
  • (B) \(₹ 7\)
  • (C) \(₹ 10\)
  • (D) \(₹ 6\)
Correct Answer: (A) \(₹ 3\)
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

When shares are forfeited, the company retains the amount already paid. On reissue, the company can offer a discount, but the total amount received (Amount from old holder + Reissue price) cannot be less than the face value.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

Maximum Discount on Reissue \(= Amount already forfeited (paid-up) per share.\)

Minimum Reissue Price \(= Face Value - Maximum Discount.\)


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. Face Value \(= ₹ 10\).

2. Final Call (Unpaid) \(= ₹ 3\).

3. Amount Paid-up (Forfeited amount) \(= 10 - 3 = ₹ 7\) per share.

4. Maximum discount allowed on reissue is \(₹ 7\).

5. Minimum Reissue Price \(= 10 - 7 = ₹ 3\) per share.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The minimum amount per share for reissue is \(₹ 3\).
Quick Tip: For shares reissued as fully paid, the Minimum Reissue Price is always equal to the \textbf{Unpaid amount} on those shares before forfeiture.


Question 4:

Nori Ltd. issued \(20,000, 11%\) debentures of \(₹ 100\) each at a premium of \(10%\), redeemable at a premium of \(5%\). Loss on issue of debentures account will be debited by :

  • (A) \(₹ 20,00,000\)
  • (B) \(₹ 1,00,000\)
  • (C) \(₹ 3,00,000\)
  • (D) \(₹ 2,00,000\)
Correct Answer: (B) \(₹ 1,00,000\)
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

According to the principle of Prudence, a future liability like a redemption premium must be recognized at the time of issue of debentures as a loss.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

Loss on Issue of Debentures \(= Number of Debentures \times Premium on Redemption per unit.\)


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. Total number of debentures \(= 20,000\).

2. Face Value \(= ₹ 100\).

3. Premium on Redemption \(= 5% of ₹ 100 = ₹ 5\).

4. Total Loss on Issue \(= 20,000 \times 5 = ₹ 1,00,000\).

5. Note: The issue premium (\(10%\)) is credited to the Securities Premium account and does not offset this debit.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The Loss on issue account will be debited by \(₹ 1,00,000\).
Quick Tip: The "Loss on Issue" specifically covers the premium payable at redemption. The premium received on issue is treated separately in the Securities Premium Account.


Question 5:

Guru and Prakash were partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of \(7 : 3\). They admitted Anu as a new partner for \(1/4^{th}\) share in the profits of the firm. On the date of Anu's admission, the Profit and Loss Account of Guru and Prakash showed a credit balance of \(₹ 40,000\). The necessary journal entry for its treatment will be :

Correct Answer: (B) Profit and Loss A/c Dr. \(40,000\) To Guru's Capital A/c \(28,000\) To Prakash's Capital A/c \(12,000\)
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Accumulated profits (Credit balance in P\&L) belong to old partners and must be distributed among them in their old profit-sharing ratio at the time of admission.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. Total Profit to distribute \(= ₹ 40,000\).

2. Old Ratio (Guru : Prakash) \(= 7 : 3\).

3. Guru's Share \(= 40,000 \times 7/10 = ₹ 28,000\).

4. Prakash's Share \(= 40,000 \times 3/10 = ₹ 12,000\).

5. Anu (new partner) does not get any share of existing profits.

6. The entry debits P\&L A/c and credits old partners' capital accounts.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The journal entry matches option (B).
Quick Tip: Always distribute Reserves and P\&L balances in the \textbf{Old Ratio} to \textbf{Old Partners} only. New partners never participate in existing accumulations.


Question 6:

Samta, Mamta and Geeta were partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of \(11 : 5 : 4\). On \(31^{st}\) March, \(2025\) Samta died. On Samta's death, the goodwill of the firm was valued at \(₹ 1,80,000\). The necessary journal entry for the treatment of goodwill on Samta's death will be :

Correct Answer: (D) Mamta's Capital A/c Dr. \(55,000\) Geeta's Capital A/c Dr. \(44,000\) To Samta's Capital A/c \(99,000\)
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

On a partner's death, their share of goodwill is compensated by the gaining partners in their gaining ratio.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. Firm's Goodwill \(= ₹ 1,80,000\).

2. Samta's Share \(= 11/20\).

3. Samta's share of goodwill \(= 1,80,000 \times 11/20 = ₹ 99,000\).

4. Since no new ratio is given, Gaining Ratio between Mamta and Geeta is their old ratio \(= 5 : 4\).

5. Distribution:

- Mamta's share \(= 99,000 \times 5/9 = ₹ 55,000\).

- Geeta's share \(= 99,000 \times 4/9 = ₹ 44,000\).

6. Entry: Gaining Partners Dr. to Sacrificing Partner.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The entry in option (D) correctly reflects the calculation.
Quick Tip: Remember: Gaining Ratio \(= New Ratio - Old Ratio\). If New Ratio is not mentioned, Old Ratio between remaining partners becomes Gaining Ratio.


Question 7:

Mansi and Uma were partners in a firm and their capitals were \(₹ 4,00,000\) and \(₹ 2,00,000\) respectively. Normal rate of return in a similar business was \(15%\) and the goodwill of the firm was valued at \(₹ 4,00,000\). If goodwill was calculated at four years purchase of super profits, the average profits of the firm were :

  • (A) \(₹ 90,000\)
  • (B) \(₹ 60,000\)
  • (C) \(₹ 1,00,000\)
  • (D) \(₹ 1,90,000\)
Correct Answer: (D) \(₹ 1,90,000\)
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Super profit is the difference between average profit and normal profit. Goodwill is derived by multiplying Super Profit by the number of years' purchase.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

1. \(Goodwill = Super Profit (SP) \times Number of years purchase\)

2. \(Normal Profit (NP) = Capital Employed \times Normal Rate of Return / 100\)

3. \(Average Profit = Super Profit + Normal Profit\)


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. Calculate Super Profit (SP):
\[ 4,00,000 = SP \times 4 \implies SP = ₹ 1,00,000 \]

2. Calculate Normal Profit (NP):

Capital Employed \(= 4,00,000 + 2,00,000 = ₹ 6,00,000\).
\[ NP = 6,00,000 \times 15/100 = ₹ 90,000 \]

3. Calculate Average Profit (AP):
\[ AP = SP + NP = 1,00,000 + 90,000 = ₹ 1,90,000 \]


Step 4: Final Answer:

The average profit of the firm is \(₹ 1,90,000\).
Quick Tip: Work backwards from Goodwill to find Super Profit first. Then calculate Normal Profit from capital to reach the Average Profit.


Question 8:

Reserve capital is that portion of the __________ capital that can be called only in the event of winding up of the company.

  • (A) called-up
  • (B) uncalled
  • (C) paid-up
  • (D) subscribed
Correct Answer: (B) uncalled
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Reserve capital is a part of uncalled capital that a company decides not to call except in the event of its liquidation to protect creditors.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. Subscribed capital consists of "called-up" (demanded) and "uncalled" (not yet demanded).

2. If a company passes a special resolution to keep a portion of uncalled capital for winding up only, it is called Reserve Capital.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The blank is filled with "uncalled".
Quick Tip: Do not confuse \textbf{Reserve Capital} (part of uncalled capital) with \textbf{Capital Reserve} (profits from capital transactions).


Question 9:

The debentures which do not carry a specific rate of interest are known as :

  • (A) Irredeemable debentures
  • (B) Bearer debentures
  • (C) Specific coupon rate debentures
  • (D) Zero coupon rate debentures
Correct Answer: (D) Zero coupon rate debentures
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Some debentures do not pay periodic interest. Instead, they are issued at a heavy discount and redeemed at face value.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. Zero coupon rate debentures do not have a stated interest (coupon) rate.

2. The difference between the low issue price and high maturity value is the effective interest.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The correct option is (D).
Quick Tip: "Zero coupon" literally means zero periodic interest payments. All return is realized at maturity.


Question 10:

John, Honey and Racob were partners in a firm sharing profits and losses equally. On \(31^{st}\) July, \(2025\) John died. His share in the profits of the firm from the date of last balance sheet till the date of his death will be :

  • (A) Debited to Profit and Loss Account
  • (B) Credited to Profit and Loss Account
  • (C) Debited to Profit and Loss Suspense Account
  • (D) Credited to Profit and Loss Suspense Account
Correct Answer: (C) Debited to Profit and Loss Suspense Account
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

When a partner dies during the year, their estimated profit share up to the date of death is recorded using a temporary account as the final accounts are not yet closed.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. The entry to credit the deceased partner for their share of profit is:

\textit{P\&L Suspense A/c ... Dr.

\textit{To Deceased Partner's Capital A/c

2. This "Suspense" account appears on the asset side of the balance sheet until the year-end adjustment.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The share is debited to Profit and Loss Suspense Account.
Quick Tip: If the profit sharing ratio of remaining partners changes, the profit share is adjusted through the Gaining Partners' Capital Accounts instead of P\&L Suspense.


Question 11:

Shashi, Maya and Komal were partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of \(5 : 3 : 2\). On \(31^{st}\) March, \(2025\) Komal retired. The new profit sharing ratio between Shashi and Maya was decided as \(3 : 5\). The gain or sacrifice of Shashi and Maya on Komal's retirement was :

  • (A) Shashi's sacrifice \(1/8\); Maya's gain \(13/40\)
  • (B) Shashi's gain \(1/8\); Maya's sacrifice \(13/40\)
  • (C) Shashi's sacrifice \(1/8\); Maya's sacrifice \(13/40\)
  • (D) Shashi's gain \(1/8\); Maya's gain \(13/40\)
Correct Answer: (A) Shashi's sacrifice \(1/8\); Maya's gain \(13/40\)
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Gain or Sacrifice is found by comparing the new share with the old share of the continuing partners.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
\[ Gain / Sacrifice = New Share - Old Share \]


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. Old Shares: Shashi \(= 5/10\), Maya \(= 3/10\), Komal \(= 2/10\).

2. New Shares: Shashi \(= 3/8\), Maya \(= 5/8\).

3. Shashi: \(3/8 - 5/10 = (15 - 20)/40 = -5/40 = -1/8\) (Sacrifice).

4. Maya: \(5/8 - 3/10 = (25 - 12)/40 = 13/40\) (Gain).


Step 4: Final Answer:

Matches option (A).
Quick Tip: A negative result in the (New - Old) formula indicates a sacrifice. Always use a common denominator (LCM) for fraction calculations.


Question 12:

Alok, Sarah and Aditya were partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of \(5 : 3 : 2\). On \(1^{st}\) January, \(2025\) Alok advanced a loan of \(₹ 2,00,000\) to the firm. In the absence of a partnership agreement, the amount of interest on loan due to Alok on \(31^{st}\) March, \(2025\) will be :

  • (A) \(₹ 20,000\)
  • (B) \(₹ 12,000\)
  • (C) \(₹ 3,000\)
  • (D) \(₹ 5,000\)
Correct Answer: (C) \(₹ 3,000\)
View Solution





Step 1: Concept:
As per the Indian Partnership Act, 1932, in the absence of a partnership deed, interest on partner's loan is allowed at \(6%\) per annum.

Step 2: Calculation:
Loan = ₹ 2,00,000

Rate = \(6%\) p.a.

Time = 3 months \((= \frac{3}{12} year)\)
\[ Interest = 2,00,000 \times \frac{6}{100} \times \frac{3}{12} = ₹ 3,000 \]

Final Answer: Interest due = ₹ 3,000. Quick Tip: Interest on partner's loan is a charge against profit, meaning it must be paid even if the firm incurs a loss. Default rate is always \(6%\) p.a.


Question 13:

Sudama, Sharma and Varun were partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of \(6 : 4 : 3\). Sharma retired from the firm on \(31^{st}\) March, \(2025\). The gaining ratio of Sudama and Varun will be :

  • (A) \(3 : 2\)
  • (B) \(2 : 1\)
  • (C) \(1 : 2\)
  • (D) \(2 : 3\)
Correct Answer: (B) \(2 : 1\)
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

When a partner retires and no new ratio is given, the gaining ratio between the remaining partners is their old profit-sharing ratio.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

1. Old Ratio (Sudama : Sharma : Varun) \(= 6 : 4 : 3\).

2. Sharma retires.

3. Remaining partners are Sudama and Varun.

4. Their relative ratio is \(6 : 3\).

5. Simplified ratio \(= 2 : 1\).


Step 3: Final Answer:

Gaining ratio is \(2 : 1\).
Quick Tip: In simple retirement cases, just remove the retiring partner's share. The remaining numbers give the new and gaining ratio.


Question 14:

Hari, Murari and Abhi were partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of \(8 : 7 : 4\). Murari retired from the firm on \(31^{st}\) March, \(2025\). Hari and Abhi decided to share profits in the future in the ratio of \(2 : 1\). The gaining ratio of Hari and Abhi was :

  • (A) \(1 : 2\)
  • (B) \(8 : 7\)
  • (C) \(2 : 1\)
  • (D) \(7 : 4\)
Correct Answer: (C) \(2 : 1\)
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Gaining ratio is calculated as New Share minus Old Share for the continuing partners.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

1. Old Shares: Hari \(= 8/19\), Abhi \(= 4/19\).

2. New Shares: Hari \(= 2/3\), Abhi \(= 1/3\).

3. Hari's gain \(= 2/3 - 8/19 = (38 - 24)/57 = 14/57\).

4. Abhi's gain \(= 1/3 - 4/19 = (19 - 12)/57 = 7/57\).

5. Ratio \(= 14/57 : 7/57 = 2 : 1\).


Step 3: Final Answer:

Gaining ratio is \(2 : 1\).
Quick Tip: Always ensure common denominators when subtracting fractions for gain/loss calculations.


Question 15:

Munna and Sonu were partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of \(4 : 1\). Their fixed capitals were \(₹ 40,00,000\) and \(₹ 30,00,000\) respectively. During the year ended \(31^{st}\) March, \(2025\), Munna withdrew \(₹ 50,000\) for personal use. Interest on drawings was to be charged @ \(6%\) p.a. The journal entry for charging interest on Munna's drawings will be :

Correct Answer: (D) Munna's Current A/c Dr. \(1,500\) To Interest on Drawings A/c \(1,500\)
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

When Fixed Capitals are maintained, all drawings and interest adjustments are made in the Current Account.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

1. Interest \(= 50,000 \times 6/100 \times 6/12 = ₹ 1,500\) (assuming average \(6\) months).

2. Partner's account is debited as it is a loss to the partner.

3. Since capitals are fixed, we must debit "Current Account".


Step 3: Final Answer:

Option (D) is the correct journal entry.
Quick Tip: Under Fixed Capital Method, the Capital Account only changes with fresh capital or permanent withdrawal. Everything else goes to the Current Account.


Question 16:

Sujata and Laxmi were partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of \(2 : 1\). On \(1^{st}\) April, \(2025\), they admitted Raghu as a new partner for \(1/5^{th}\) share in the profits of the firm. On the date of Raghu's admission, it was found that the equipment is undervalued by \(₹ 90,000\). After revaluation, the Balance Sheet of Sujata, Laxmi and Raghu showed equipment at \(₹ 3,00,000\). The value of equipment shown in the books of the firm of Sujata and Laxmi before Raghu's admission was :

  • (A) \(₹ 3,90,000\)
  • (B) \(₹ 2,10,000\)
  • (C) \(₹ 3,00,000\)
  • (D) \(₹ 90,000\)
Correct Answer: (B) \(₹ 2,10,000\)
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

"Undervalued" means the value in the books is lower than the actual market value. To correct it, the value must be increased.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

1. New revalued amount \(= ₹ 3,00,000\).

2. Amount of undervaluation corrected \(= ₹ 90,000\).

3. Old value \(= New value - undervaluation amount.\)

4. Old value \(= 3,00,000 - 90,000 = ₹ 2,10,000\).


Step 3: Final Answer:

The old book value was \(₹ 2,10,000\).
Quick Tip: To find the original value from a revalued figure: if undervalued, subtract the correction; if overvalued, add the correction.


Question 17:

On \(1^{st}\) April, \(2024\), DD Ltd. issued \(2,000, 9%\) Debentures of \(₹ 50\) each at a premium of \(5%\), redeemable at a premium of \(₹ 10\) per debenture after five years. Interest on the debentures was to be paid on half-yearly basis on \(30^{th}\) September and \(31^{st}\) March. Interest on the debentures for the year ended \(31^{st}\) March, \(2025\) will be :

  • (A) \(₹ 4,500\)
  • (B) \(₹ 9,000\)
  • (C) \(₹ 9,450\)
  • (D) \(₹ 4,725\)
Correct Answer: (B) \(₹ 9,000\)
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Interest on debentures is always calculated on the nominal (face) value.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

1. Total Face Value \(= 2,000 \times ₹ 50 = ₹ 1,00,000\).

2. Interest Rate \(= 9%\) p.a.

3. Annual Interest \(= 1,00,000 \times 9/100 = ₹ 9,000\).


Step 3: Final Answer:

The annual interest is \(₹ 9,000\).
Quick Tip: Ignore premiums or discounts on issue and redemption when calculating debenture interest. Always use Face Value.


Question 18:

Universal Ltd. took over machinery of \(₹ 3,30,000\), furniture of \(₹ 1,60,000\) and liabilities of \(₹ 80,000\) from Amol Ltd. for a purchase consideration of \(₹ 4,50,000\). The payment to Amol Ltd. was made by issue of \(10%\) Debentures of \(₹ 50\) each at a discount of \(10%\). The number of debentures issued to Amol Ltd. was :

  • (A) \(1,000\)
  • (B) \(4,500\)
  • (C) \(45,000\)
  • (D) \(10,000\)
Correct Answer: (D) \(10,000\)
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Number of debentures issued is the Purchase Consideration divided by the Issue Price per debenture.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

1. Purchase Consideration \(= ₹ 4,50,000\).

2. Face Value \(= ₹ 50\).

3. Discount \(= 10%\) of \(50 = ₹ 5\).

4. Issue Price \(= 50 - 5 = ₹ 45\).

5. Number of Debentures \(= 4,50,000 / 45 = 10,000\).


Step 3: Final Answer:

Matches option (D).
Quick Tip: Calculate Issue Price first: \(Face Value - Discount\) or \(Face Value + Premium.\)


Question 19:

At the time of forfeiture of shares, 'Share Capital Account' is debited with :

  • (A) Paid-up amount on forfeited shares
  • (B) Called-up amount on forfeited shares
  • (C) Face value of shares forfeited
  • (D) Unpaid amount on forfeited shares
Correct Answer: (B) Called-up amount on forfeited shares
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Forfeiture reverses the previous entry. We debit capital with the amount previously credited, which is the amount called.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

1. Journal entry: Share Capital A/c Dr (with called-up value).

2. To Share Forfeiture A/c (paid-up) and To Calls in arrears (unpaid).


Step 3: Final Answer:

Share Capital is debited with called-up amount.
Quick Tip: Always debit capital with the \textbf{Called-up} value at the time of forfeiture.


Question 20:

Sushil and Sapna were partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of \(3 : 2\). On \(31^{st}\) March, \(2025\), the firm was dissolved. On the date of dissolution there existed a balance of \(₹ 1,20,000\) in sundry creditors account. The sundry creditors were payable after three months. They were paid immediately at a discount of \(12%\) p.a. The amount paid to sundry creditors was :

  • (A) \(₹ 1,20,000\)
  • (B) \(₹ 1,23,600\)
  • (C) \(₹ 1,16,400\)
  • (D) \(₹ 1,34,400\)
Correct Answer: (C) \(₹ 1,16,400\)
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Liabilities settled early at a pro-rata discount require a time-based calculation.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

1. Creditors \(= ₹ 1,20,000\).

2. Discount \(= 12%\) p.a. for \(3\) months.

3. Discount amount \(= 1,20,000 \times 12/100 \times 3/12 = ₹ 3,600\).

4. Net payment \(= 1,20,000 - 3,600 = ₹ 1,16,400\).


Step 3: Final Answer:

Matches option (C).
Quick Tip: Always check if the discount is "p.a.". If so, multiply by the time fraction.


Question 21:

Raha, Naveen and Vandana were partners in a firm sharing profits and losses equally. Naveen retired on 31\(^{st}\) March, 2025. The balance in his capital account after making the necessary adjustments on account of reserves and revaluation of assets and reassessment of liabilities was ₹ 1,27,000. Naveen was paid ₹ 1,50,000 in full settlement of his claim. The value of goodwill of the firm on the date of Naveen’s retirement was:

  • (A) ₹ 1,50,000
  • (B) ₹ 23,000
  • (C) ₹ 69,000
  • (D) ₹ 4,50,000
Correct Answer: (C) ₹ 69,000
View Solution

Logic:
The difference between the final settlement amount and the adjusted capital balance is treated as the retiring partner's share of "Hidden Goodwill."

Step 1: Determine Naveen’s share of Goodwill \[ Share of Goodwill = Amount Paid - Adjusted Capital Balance \] \[ Naveen's Share = 1,50,000 - 1,27,000 = 23,000 \]

Step 2: Identify the Profit Sharing Ratio
Since profits are shared equally among three partners, Naveen’s share is \(\frac{1}{3}\).

Step 3: Calculate the Firm's Total Goodwill
To find the total value, multiply the retiring partner's share by the reciprocal of his profit ratio: \[ Total Goodwill = 23,000 \times \frac{3}{1} = 69,000 \]

Final Answer: \[ \boxed{69,000} \] Quick Tip: Hidden Goodwill Formula: Partner's Share = Actual Payment \(-\) Adjusted Capital. Firm's Value = Partner's Share \(\div\) Partner's Profit Fraction.


Question 22:

Namita, Narendra and Kunwar were partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of \(3:1:1\). The firm closes its books on 31\(^{st}\) March every year. Kunwar died on 30\(^{th}\) September, 2025. His share in the profits of the firm from 1\(^{st}\) April, 2025 to 30\(^{th}\) September, 2025 was calculated as per the provisions of the partnership deed which amounted to ₹ 15,600. On the date of Kunwar’s death, the Balance Sheet of the firm showed General Reserve of ₹ 40,000 and Profit and Loss Account (Dr.) ₹ 80,000. Pass necessary journal entries on Kunwar’s death in the books of the firm.

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Accounting Treatment:
Upon the death of a partner, we must account for:
1. Accrued profit up to the date of death (using P\&L Suspense A/c).
2. Distribution of accumulated reserves (credits to partners).
3. Writing off accumulated losses (debits to partners).

Calculation Base:
Profit Sharing Ratio = \(3:1:1\) (Total = 5)


1. Entry for Estimated Profit (till date of death)
Kunwar’s share is given as ₹ 15,600. \[ Profit and Loss Suspense A/c Dr. 15,600 \] \[ To Kunwar’s Capital A/c 15,600 \]
(Being Kunwar's share of profit credited to his account)


2. Distribution of General Reserve (₹ 40,000)

Namita: \(40,000 \times \frac{3{5} = 24,000\)
Narendra: \(40,000 \times \frac{1}{5} = 8,000\)
Kunwar: \(40,000 \times \frac{1}{5} = 8,000\)
\[ General Reserve A/c Dr. 40,000 \] \[ To Namita’s Capital A/c 24,000 \] \[ To Narendra’s Capital A/c 8,000 \] \[ To Kunwar’s Capital A/c 8,000 \]


3. Writing off Accumulated Loss (P\&L Dr. Balance ₹ 80,000)

Namita: \(80,000 \times \frac{3}{5} = 48,000\)
Narendra: \(80,000 \times \frac{1}{5} = 16,000\)
Kunwar: \(80,000 \times \frac{1}{5} = 16,000\)
\[ Namita’s Capital A/c Dr. 48,000 \] \[ Narendra’s Capital A/c Dr. 16,000 \] \[ Kunwar’s Capital A/c Dr. 16,000 \] \[ To Profit and Loss A/c 80,000 \] Quick Tip: Death of a Partner: \textbf{Profit:} P\&L Suspense \(\rightarrow\) Deceased Partner's Capital. \textbf{Reserves:} Old Ratio distribution (Credit side). \textbf{Losses:} Old Ratio distribution (Debit side).


Question 23:

Naik, Vinay and Vibhuti were partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of \(4:2:3\). On 31\(^{st}\) March, 2025, Naik retired. General Reserve = ₹ 45,000. Revaluation resulted in a loss of ₹ 18,000. Goodwill of the firm was valued at ₹ 1,80,000 and adjusted without opening goodwill account. Amount payable to Naik was transferred to his loan account. Pass necessary journal entries.

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Working Notes:
Ratio = \(4:2:3\) (Total = 9). Naik (4/9) retires.
The Gaining Ratio between Vinay and Vibhuti remains \(2:3\).


1. Allocation of General Reserve
Total Reserve = ₹ 45,000.

Naik: \(45,000 \times \frac{4}{9} = 20,000\)
Vinay: \(45,000 \times \frac{2}{9} = 10,000\)
Vibhuti: \(45,000 \times \frac{3}{9} = 15,000\)
\[ General Reserve A/c Dr. 45,000 \] \[ To Naik’s Capital A/c 20,000 \] \[ To Vinay’s Capital A/c 10,000 \] \[ To Vibhuti’s Capital A/c 15,000 \]


2. Recording Revaluation Loss
Total Loss = ₹ 18,000.

Naik: \(18,000 \times \frac{4}{9} = 8,000\)
Vinay: \(18,000 \times \frac{2}{9} = 4,000\)
Vibhuti: \(18,000 \times \frac{3}{9} = 6,000\)
\[ Naik’s Capital A/c Dr. 8,000 \] \[ Vinay’s Capital A/c Dr. 4,000 \] \[ Vibhuti’s Capital A/c Dr. 6,000 \] \[ To Revaluation A/c 18,000 \]


3. Adjusting Retiring Partner's Share of Goodwill
Firm's Goodwill = ₹ 1,80,000.
Naik's Share = \(1,80,000 \times \frac{4}{9} = 80,000\).
This is borne by Vinay and Vibhuti in their gaining ratio (\(2:3\)).

Vinay: \(80,000 \times \frac{2}{5} = 32,000\)
Vibhuti: \(80,000 \times \frac{3}{5} = 48,000\)
\[ Vinay’s Capital A/c Dr. 32,000 \] \[ Vibhuti’s Capital A/c Dr. 48,000 \] \[ To Naik’s Capital A/c 80,000 \]


4. Settlement of Naik's Capital
The total adjusted balance of Naik is transferred to his Loan Account. \[ Naik’s Capital A/c Dr. [Total Adjusted Balance] \] \[ To Naik’s Loan A/c [Total Adjusted Balance] \] Quick Tip: \textbf{Goodwill adjustment:} Gaining Partner Capital Dr. / Retiring Partner Capital Cr. (in Gaining Ratio).


Question 24:

Kiara Ltd. purchased assets worth ₹ 12,40,000 and took over liabilities of ₹ 3,40,000 of Amrit Ltd. for a purchase consideration of ₹ 11,00,000. Kiara Ltd. paid half the amount by cheque. The balance was settled by issuing 9% debentures of ₹ 100 each at a premium of 10%. Pass necessary journal entries in the books of Kiara Ltd.

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Working Notes:

Purchase Consideration (PC) = ₹ 11,00,000.
Payment by Cheque (50% of PC) = ₹ 5,50,000.
Payment by Debentures (Remaining 50%) = ₹ 5,50,000.
Issue Price of Debenture = ₹ 100 + 10% premium = ₹ 110.
Number of Debentures to be issued = \(\frac{5,50,000}{110} = 5,000\) units.



Journal Entries in the books of Kiara Ltd.

1. For Acquisition of Business \[ Sundry Assets A/c Dr. 12,40,000 \] \[ To Sundry Liabilities A/c 3,40,000 \] \[ To Amrit Ltd. (Vendor) 9,00,000* \]
\textit{*Note: Since PC (11L) is more than Net Assets (9L), the balancing figure of 2L is Goodwill. Correct entry follows: \[ Sundry Assets A/c Dr. 12,40,000 \] \[ Goodwill A/c Dr. 2,00,000 \] \[ To Sundry Liabilities A/c 3,40,000 \] \[ To Amrit Ltd. 11,00,000 \]

2. Partial Payment via Bank \[ Amrit Ltd. Dr. 5,50,000 \] \[ To Bank A/c 5,50,000 \]

3. Settlement via Debentures at Premium \[ Amrit Ltd. Dr. 5,50,000 \] \[ To 9% Debentures A/c (5,000 \(\times\) 100) 5,00,000 \] \[ To Securities Premium A/c (5,000 \(\times\) 10) 50,000 \] Quick Tip: When business purchased: Debit Business Purchase A/c Record assets and liabilities separately Issue debentures at premium/discount accordingly


Question 25:

On 1\(^{st}\) April, 2024, Zara Ltd. issued 8,000, 9% debentures of ₹ 100 each at a discount of 10%. The company had a balance of ₹ 50,000 in Securities Premium Account on the same date. Pass necessary journal entries for the issue of debentures and to write off discount on issue of debentures.

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Calculation:

Nominal Value = \(8,000 \times 100 = 8,00,000\).
Discount (10%) = \(80,000\).
Cash Received = \(7,20,000\).



Journal Entries

1. Issue of Debentures at Discount \[ Bank A/c Dr. 7,20,000 \] \[ Discount on Issue of Debentures A/c Dr. 80,000 \] \[ To 9% Debentures A/c 8,00,000 \]

2. Writing off the Discount
Available Securities Premium is ₹ 50,000. This is used first; any remainder is usually charged to Statement of P\&L. \[ Securities Premium A/c Dr. 50,000 \] \[ Statement of Profit and Loss Dr. 30,000 \] \[ To Discount on Issue of Debentures A/c 80,000 \] Quick Tip: Discount/Loss on issue must be written off in the year it is incurred, prioritizing Securities Premium Reserve before P\&L.


Question 26:

Nandini, Shweta and Hiren were partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of \(9:7:4\). On 1\(^{st}\) April, 2025, Shweta retired. On the date of Shweta’s retirement, there existed a balance of ₹ 1,00,000 in Workmen’s Compensation Fund. Pass necessary journal entries for treatment of Workmen’s Compensation Fund on Shweta’s retirement in each of the following cases:

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Old Ratio: \(9:7:4\) (Total parts = 20)


Case (i): Claim (₹ 1,20,000) > Fund (₹ 1,00,000)
There is a shortfall of ₹ 20,000, which is treated as a loss via Revaluation A/c.

Entries: \[ Workmen’s Compensation Fund A/c Dr. 1,00,000 \] \[ Revaluation A/c (Shortfall) Dr. 20,000 \] \[ To Provision for Workmen’s Comp. Claim 1,20,000 \] \[ Nandini’s Capital A/c Dr. (20k \(\times\) 9/20) 9,000 \] \[ Shweta’s Capital A/c Dr. (20k \(\times\) 7/20) 7,000 \] \[ Hiren’s Capital A/c Dr. (20k \(\times\) 4/20) 4,000 \] \[ To Revaluation A/c 20,000 \]


Case (ii): Claim (₹ 80,000) < Fund (₹ 1,00,000)
There is a surplus of ₹ 20,000 to be distributed among partners.

Entries: \[ Workmen’s Compensation Fund A/c Dr. 1,00,000 \] \[ To Provision for Workmen’s Comp. Claim 80,000 \] \[ To Nandini’s Capital A/c 9,000 \] \[ To Shweta’s Capital A/c 7,000 \] \[ To Hiren’s Capital A/c 4,000 \]


Case (iii): Claim (₹ 1,00,000) = Fund (₹ 1,00,000)
The entire fund is utilized; nothing remains for the partners.

Entry: \[ Workmen’s Compensation Fund A/c Dr. 1,00,000 \] \[ To Provision for Workmen’s Comp. Claim 1,00,000 \] Quick Tip: \textbf{Workmen's Compensation Rule:} 1. Provision is made up to the claim amount. 2. Excess Fund \(\rightarrow\) Credit Partners. 3. Shortfall \(\rightarrow\) Debit Partners via Revaluation.


Question 27:

Pass necessary journal entries for the issue of debentures for the following transactions:

(i) XS Ltd. issued 40,000, 9% Debentures of ₹ 100 each at a premium of 10%, redeemable at a premium of 5%.

(ii) YG Ltd. issued 50,000, 9% Debentures of ₹ 100 each at par, redeemable at a premium of 10%.

Correct Answer:
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

When debentures are issued, the terms of redemption must be considered at the time of issue to adhere to the Prudence Concept. If debentures are redeemable at a premium, this future liability is recognized immediately as a loss.

Loss on Issue of Debentures A/c is debited with the amount of premium payable on redemption.
Premium on Redemption of Debentures A/c is credited with the same amount (Liability).


Step 2: Journal Entries:

(i) Books of XS Ltd.

Face Value: ₹ 100
Issue Price: ₹ 100 + 10% = ₹ 110 (Premium of ₹ 10)
Redemption Price: ₹ 100 + 5% = ₹ 105 (Premium of ₹ 5)
Total Loss on Issue: ₹ 5 per debenture (due to redemption premium).






(ii) Books of YG Ltd.

Face Value: ₹ 100
Issue Price: ₹ 100 (At Par)
Redemption Price: ₹ 100 + 10% = ₹ 110 (Premium of ₹ 10)
Total Loss on Issue: ₹ 10 per debenture.



Quick Tip: The \textbf{Securities Premium} Account records the premium received from investors at the time of issue. The \textbf{Premium on Redemption} Account records the premium payable to investors at maturity. These are two distinct accounts and should not be netted off.


Question 28:

Jain and Gupta were partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 3 : 1. On \(1^{st}\) April, 2024, Agarwal was admitted as a new partner for \(1/5^{th}\) share in the profits of the firm with a minimum guaranteed amount of ₹ 75,000. Any deficiency arising out of this account will be borne by Jain and Gupta in the ratio of 1 : 3. During the year ended \(31^{st}\) March, 2025, the firm earned a net profit of ₹ 3,00,000.
Prepare Profit and Loss Appropriation Account of Jain, Gupta and Agarwal for the year ended \(31^{st}\) March, 2025.

Correct Answer:
View Solution




Step 1: Calculate Profit Shares and Deficiency
1. Agarwal's Share:
\[ Share = 3,00,000 \times \frac{1}{5} = ₹ 60,000 \]
2. Deficiency:
\[ Guaranteed Amount - Actual Share = 75,000 - 60,000 = ₹ 15,000 \]
3. Remaining Profit for Old Partners:
\[ 3,00,000 - 60,000 = ₹ 2,40,000 \]
4. Distribution of Remaining Profit (3:1):

Jain: \(2,40,000 \times \frac{3}{4} = ₹ 1,80,000\)
Gupta: \(2,40,000 \times \frac{1}{4} = ₹ 60,000\)

5. Distribution of Deficiency (Ratio 1:3):

Jain bears: \(15,000 \times \frac{1}{4} = ₹ 3,750\)
Gupta bears: \(15,000 \times \frac{3}{4} = ₹ 11,250\)


Step 2: Profit and Loss Appropriation Account



Quick Tip: Read the guarantee clause carefully. Here, the deficiency is borne in a specific ratio (1:3), which is different from the profit-sharing ratio (3:1). Always apply the specific ratio for deficiency distribution.


Question 29:

Annu, Bandhu, Sheelu and Golu were partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 4 : 3 : 2 : 1. On \(1^{st}\) April, 2025, they decided to share the future profits equally. For this purpose the goodwill of the firm was valued at ₹ 4,00,000. Calculate gain or sacrifice of the partners on change in profit sharing ratio and pass a single adjustment journal entry for the treatment of goodwill.

Correct Answer:
View Solution




Step 1: Calculate Sacrifice or Gain
Formula: Sacrifice = Old Share - New Share

Old Ratio: 4 : 3 : 2 : 1 (Total 10)
New Ratio: 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 (Total 4)



Annu: \(\frac{4}{10} - \frac{1}{4} = \frac{8 - 5}{20} = \frac{3}{20}\) (Sacrifice)
Bandhu: \(\frac{3}{10} - \frac{1}{4} = \frac{6 - 5}{20} = \frac{1}{20}\) (Sacrifice)
Sheelu: \(\frac{2}{10} - \frac{1}{4} = \frac{4 - 5}{20} = -\frac{1}{20}\) (Gain)
Golu: \(\frac{1}{10} - \frac{1}{4} = \frac{2 - 5}{20} = -\frac{3}{20}\) (Gain)


Step 2: Calculate Adjustment Amount
Total Goodwill = ₹ 4,00,000.

Sheelu (Gain): \(4,00,000 \times \frac{1}{20} = ₹ 20,000\) (Debit)
Golu (Gain): \(4,00,000 \times \frac{3}{20} = ₹ 60,000\) (Debit)
Annu (Sacrifice): \(4,00,000 \times \frac{3}{20} = ₹ 60,000\) (Credit)
Bandhu (Sacrifice): \(4,00,000 \times \frac{1}{20} = ₹ 20,000\) (Credit)


Step 3: Journal Entry



Quick Tip: In a change of profit-sharing ratio, Gaining Partners compensate Sacrificing Partners. The entry is always:
\textbf{Gaining Partners' Capital A/c ... Dr.
To Sacrificing Partners' Capital A/c}


Question 30:

The Registered capital of Diwan Ltd. is :

  • (A) ₹ 1,00,00,000
  • (B) ₹ 1,00,000
  • (C) ₹ 50,00,000
  • (D) ₹ 50,000
Correct Answer: (A) ₹ 1,00,00,000
View Solution



Registered Capital (or Authorised Capital) is the total capital mentioned in the Memorandum of Association. \[ Registered Capital = Total No. of Shares \times Face Value \] \[ 1,00,000 \times 100 = ₹ 1,00,00,000 \] Quick Tip: Registered Capital is the ceiling limit of capital a company can issue.


Question 31:

The Issued capital of Diwan Ltd. is :

  • (A) ₹ 1,00,00,000
  • (B) ₹ 1,00,000
  • (C) ₹ 50,00,000
  • (D) ₹ 50,000
Correct Answer: (C) ₹ 50,00,000
View Solution



Issued Capital refers to the shares offered to the public for subscription. \[ Issued Capital = Shares Issued \times Face Value \] \[ 50,000 \times 100 = ₹ 50,00,000 \] Quick Tip: Issued Capital is always equal to or less than Authorised Capital.


Question 32:

Calls in arrears of the company amounted to :

  • (A) ₹ 21,000
  • (B) ₹ 70,000
  • (C) Nil
  • (D) ₹ 49,000
Correct Answer: (A) ₹ 21,000
View Solution



1. Calculate Final Call Amount:
\[ Total - (App + 1st Call) = 100 - (30 + 40) = ₹ 30 \]
2. Calculate Arrears:
Nawal failed to pay the final call on 700 shares.
\[ 700 shares \times ₹ 30 = ₹ 21,000 \] Quick Tip: Calls in Arrears is calculated on the amount called up but not paid.


Question 33:

`Share Forfeiture Account' will appear in the `Notes to Accounts' at :

  • (A) ₹ 21,000
  • (B) ₹ 70,000
  • (C) Nil
  • (D) ₹ 49,000
Correct Answer: (D) ₹ 49,000
View Solution



Share Forfeiture Account represents the amount actually received on the forfeited shares (excluding premiums, if any). \[ Amount Paid per share = App + 1st Call = 30 + 40 = ₹ 70 \] \[ Total Forfeited = 700 \times 70 = ₹ 49,000 \] Quick Tip: This balance is shown in the Notes to Accounts under Share Capital as an addition to Subscribed Capital until the shares are reissued.


Question 34:

The amount of `Share Capital' presented in the Balance Sheet of Diwan Ltd. will be :

  • (A) ₹ 49,30,000
  • (B) ₹ 50,00,000
  • (C) ₹ 49,79,000
  • (D) ₹ 49,49,000
Correct Answer: (C) ₹ 49,79,000
View Solution



Step 1: Subscribed and Fully Paid Capital
Number of active shares = \(50,000 - 700 (forfeited) = 49,300\).
\[ 49,300 \times 100 = ₹ 49,30,000 \]
Step 2: Add Share Forfeiture
Add the balance of Share Forfeiture A/c (for the 700 shares).
\[ + ₹ 49,000 \]
Step 3: Total
\[ 49,30,000 + 49,000 = ₹ 49,79,000 \] Quick Tip: When shares are forfeited but not reissued, their forfeited amount is added to the subscribed capital.


Question 35:

If all the forfeited shares are reissued at ₹ 30 per share, fully paid-up, the amount transferred to `Capital Reserve' will be :

  • (A) ₹ 49,000
  • (B) ₹ 70,000
  • (C) ₹ 21,000
  • (D) Nil
Correct Answer: (D) Nil
View Solution



Step 1: Determine Profit on Forfeiture
Amount forfeited per share = ₹ 70.
Step 2: Determine Loss (Discount) on Reissue
Reissued as fully paid (₹ 100) for ₹ 30.
Discount = \(100 - 30 = ₹ 70\) per share.
Step 3: Calculate Capital Reserve
\[ Capital Reserve = (Profit on Forfeiture - Discount on Reissue) \times No. of Shares \]
\[ (70 - 70) \times 700 = 0 \] Quick Tip: Capital Reserve is the net profit after covering the reissue discount. If the discount equals the forfeited amount, the Capital Reserve is Nil.


Question 36:

Asha and Indra were partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 3 : 2. Their Balance Sheet on \(31^{st}\) March, 2025 was as follows: (Balance Sheet Data Omitted)

On \(1^{st}\) April, 2025, Suraj was admitted for \(1/4^{th}\) share in the profits of the firm on the following terms :

(i) Suraj will bring capital proportionate to his share in the profits of the firm.

(ii) Goodwill of the firm was valued at ₹ 1,00,000 and Suraj will bring his share of goodwill premium in cash.

(iii) Furniture was taken over by Asha at ₹ 1,00,000.

(iv) A liability of ₹ 5,000 included in creditors was not likely to arise.

(v) Plant and Machinery was revalued at ₹ 4,35,000.

Prepare Revaluation Account and Partners' capital accounts on Suraj's admission. Show the calculation of proportionate capital clearly.

Correct Answer:
View Solution




Step 1: Prepare Revaluation Account

Plant & Machinery: Book Value ₹ 4,05,000 \(\rightarrow\) ₹ 4,35,000 (Gain ₹ 30,000).
Creditors: Liability written back (Gain ₹ 5,000).
Furniture: Book Value ₹ 1,20,000. Taken by Asha at ₹ 1,00,000.
Loss on Furniture = \(1,20,000 - 1,00,000 = ₹ 20,000\).



\

Step 2: Partners' Capital Accounts

Goodwill Premium: Firm's Goodwill = ₹ 1,00,000. Suraj's Share (\(1/4\)) = ₹ 25,000. Distributed to Asha and Indra in Sacrifice Ratio (3:2).
General Reserve: ₹ 50,000 distributed 3:2.
Furniture: Asha debited by agreed value ₹ 1,00,000.






Step 3: Calculation of Proportionate Capital

Adjusted Capital of Asha = \(4,00,000 + 30,000 + 9,000 + 15,000 - 1,00,000 = ₹ 3,54,000\).
Adjusted Capital of Indra = \(3,00,000 + 20,000 + 6,000 + 10,000 = ₹ 3,36,000\).
Total Adjusted Capital of Old Partners = \(3,54,000 + 3,36,000 = ₹ 6,90,000\).
Combined Profit Share of Old Partners = \(1 - 1/4 = 3/4\).
Total Capital of New Firm = \(6,90,000 \times \frac{4}{3} = ₹ 9,20,000\).
Suraj's Capital Contribution = \(9,20,000 \times \frac{1}{4} = ₹ 2,30,000\). Quick Tip: When calculating proportionate capital, always ensure all adjustments (Revaluation, Reserves, Goodwill, Asset takovers) are processed in the old partners' accounts first.


Question 37:

Ajanta Ltd. invited applications for issuing 30,000 equity shares of ₹ 10 each at a premium of ₹ 5 per share. The amount was payable as follows :
On Application and Allotment -- ₹ 10 per share (including premium)
On first and final call -- Balance
Applications for 50,000 shares were received. Applications for 10,000 shares were rejected and their application money was refunded. Pro-rata allotment was made to the remaining applicants. Excess money received with application was adjusted towards sums due on first and final call. Sonu, an applicant of 4,000 shares, paid his entire share money with application. Vedika, to whom 300 shares were allotted, failed to pay the first and final call. After giving her the mandatory notice, her shares were forfeited.
Pass necessary journal entries for the above transactions in the books of Ajanta Ltd.

Correct Answer:
View Solution




Step 1: Working Notes

Issue Details: 30,000 shares. Price ₹ 15 (10 Cap + 5 Prem).
Installments: App & Allot ₹ 10 (5 Cap + 5 Prem). Call ₹ 5.
Pro-rata Ratio: Applied 50k - Rejected 10k = 40k. Allotted 30k. Ratio 4:3.
Sonu (Calls in Advance):

Applied 4,000. Allotted \(4,000 \times \frac{3}{4} = 3,000\) shares.
Call money due = \(3,000 \times 5 = 15,000\).
Excess App money = \((4,000 - 3,000) \times 10 = 10,000\).
Remaining Call liability = \(15,000 - 10,000 = 5,000\).
Since he paid "entire share money", he paid this remaining 5,000 at the time of application as Calls in Advance.

Vedika (Calls in Arrears):

Allotted 300. Applied \(300 \times \frac{4}{3} = 400\).
Paid App = \(400 \times 10 = 4,000\).
Due on App = \(300 \times 10 = 3,000\).
Excess = 1,000 (Adjusted to Call).
Call Due = \(300 \times 5 = 1,500\).
Arrears = \(1,500 - 1,000 = 500\).



Step 2: Journal Entries



Quick Tip: When an applicant pays the "entire share money", verify if their pro-rata excess covers the future calls. Any amount paid beyond the pro-rata excess and application due is "Calls in Advance".


Question 38:

(i) Rao Ltd. forfeited 750 equity shares of ₹ 10 each for non-payment of first call of ₹ 3 per share (including premium of ₹ 1 per share). The second and final call of ₹ 3 per share was not yet made. Of the forfeited shares, 500 were re-issued for ₹ 2,500, ₹ 7 per share paid-up. Pass necessary journal entries...

(ii) Lily Ltd. forfeited 2,000 equity shares of ₹ 10 each for non-payment of first and final call of ₹ 2 per share. 750 of the forfeited shares were reissued to Ashok for ₹ 10,000 as fully paid-up. The remaining shares were reissued to Sudha at ₹ 9 per share fully paid-up. Pass necessary journal entries...

Correct Answer:
View Solution




Part (i) - Books of Rao Ltd.

Forfeiture: 750 shares. Face ₹ 10.
Uncalled = ₹ 3. Called up = \(10 - 3 = ₹ 7\).
Unpaid = 1st Call ₹ 3 (₹ 2 Cap + ₹ 1 Prem).
Since Premium is unpaid, Securities Premium is debited.
Paid amount (Capital only) = Called (7) - Unpaid Cap (2) = ₹ 5 per share.
Reissue: 500 shares. Paid up ₹ 7. Price ₹ 2500/500 = ₹ 5.
Discount = \(7 - 5 = ₹ 2\).
Gain = Forfeited (5) - Discount (2) = ₹ 3 per share.







Part (ii) - Books of Lily Ltd.

Forfeiture: 2000 shares. Fully called. Unpaid ₹ 2. Paid ₹ 8.
Reissue 1 (Ashok): 750 shares. Fully paid (10). Price 10,000 (13.33). Premium issue.
Profit on Ashok's shares = Full forfeited amount = \(750 \times 8 = 6,000\).
Reissue 2 (Sudha): 1250 shares. Fully paid (10). Price 9. Discount 1.
Profit on Sudha's shares = \((8 - 1) \times 1250 = 7 \times 1250 = 8,750\).
Total Capital Reserve = \(6,000 + 8,750 = 14,750\).



Quick Tip: If shares are reissued at a premium, no amount is debited to the Forfeited Shares Account. The entire original forfeited amount on those shares is transferred to Capital Reserve.


Question 39:

Promil, Kamlesh and Ritika were partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 5 : 3 : 2. From \(1^{st}\) April, 2025 they decided to share future profits in the ratio of 2 : 3 : 5. On \(31^{st}\) March, 2025, their Balance Sheet was as follows : (Balance Sheet Data Omitted)

It was agreed that :

(i) Land and Building will be valued at ₹ 6,62,000.

(ii) A provision of 5% on debtors will be made for bad and doubtful debts.

(iii) Goodwill of the firm will be valued at ₹ 1,80,000 and the same will be treated without opening goodwill account.

(iv) The value of stock will be reduced to ₹ 2,00,000.

Showing your working clearly, pass necessary journal entries for the above transactions in the books of the firm.

Correct Answer:
View Solution




Step 1: Calculate Sacrifice or Gain
Old Ratio (P:K:R) = 5 : 3 : 2. New Ratio (P:K:R) = 2 : 3 : 5.

Promil: \(\frac{5}{10} - \frac{2}{10} = \frac{3}{10}\) (Sacrifice)
Kamlesh: \(\frac{3}{10} - \frac{3}{10} = 0\) (Nil)
Ritika: \(\frac{2}{10} - \frac{5}{10} = -\frac{3}{10}\) (Gain)


Step 2: Goodwill Adjustment
Firm's Goodwill = ₹ 1,80,000.

Gaining Partner (Ritika) Debit: \(1,80,000 \times \frac{3}{10} = ₹ 54,000\).
Sacrificing Partner (Promil) Credit: \(1,80,000 \times \frac{3}{10} = ₹ 54,000\).


Step 3: Revaluation Calculations

Land & Building: \(6,62,000 - 5,60,000 = +1,02,000\) (Gain).
Provision for Doubtful Debts: \(5%\) of \(1,20,000 = 6,000\) (Loss).
Stock: \(2,00,000 - 2,40,000 = -40,000\) (Loss).
Net Profit on Revaluation: \(1,02,000 - (6,000 + 40,000) = ₹ 56,000\).




Quick Tip: Always distribute accumulated profits/losses (like General Reserve) in the \textbf{Old Ratio} unless the question specifically states they are to be retained in the books (via an adjustment entry).


Question 40:

Mr. Rinku and Mrs. Pinky were partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 3 : 2. On \(31^{st}\) March, 2025, their balance sheet was as follows : (Balance Sheet Data Omitted)

On the above date the firm was dissolved and the following transactions took place :

(i) Mr. Rinku agreed to pay Mrs. Rinku's loan and took away stock for ₹ 16,000.

(ii) Mrs. Pinky took half of the investments at 10% less. Debtors realised ₹ 44,000, Building realised ₹ 4,00,000, Creditors were paid ₹ 5,000 less and the remaining investments were sold for ₹ 19,000. An old furniture not recorded in the books of the firm was taken over by Mrs. Pinky for ₹ 18,000. Realisation expenses amounted to ₹ 6,000.

Prepare Realisation Account.

Correct Answer:
View Solution




Step 1: Transfer Assets and Liabilities

Assets (Dr.): Stock (20k), Investments (30k), Debtors (50k), Building (340k). Total = 4,40,000.
Liabilities (Cr.): Creditors (86k), Mrs. Rinku's Loan (20k), Investment Fluctuation Fund (12k), Provision for Doubtful Debts (5k). Total = 1,23,000.


Step 2: Asset Realisation \& Takeovers (Credit Side)

By Mr. Rinku's Capital (Stock): ₹ 16,000.
By Mrs. Pinky's Capital:

Half Investments (\(30,000 \times 1/2 = 15,000\)) less 10% (\(1,500\)) = 13,500.
Unrecorded Furniture = 18,000.
Total = 31,500.

By Bank A/c (Assets Realised):

Debtors: 44,000.
Building: 4,00,000.
Remaining Investments: 19,000.
Total = 4,63,000.



Step 3: Liability Payments (Debit Side)

To Mr. Rinku's Capital (Mrs. Rinku's Loan): ₹ 20,000.
To Bank A/c (Liabilities Paid):

Creditors (\(86,000 - 5,000\)): 81,000.
Pinky's Husband's Loan (External Liability): 30,000.
Realisation Expenses: 6,000.
Total = 1,17,000.




Quick Tip: External liabilities (like Partner's Spouse's Loan) must be paid off even if the question is silent. "Pinky's Husband's Loan" is an external liability, whereas "Mrs. Pinky's Loan" (if it existed) would be a partner's loan settled separately.


Question 41:

From the following information obtained from the books of accounts of Ananda Ltd., calculate `Quick Ratio' of the company :

Total Current Assets (including stock and prepaid expenses) ₹ 2,00,000; Stock ₹ 20,000; Prepaid expenses ₹ 10,000; Current liabilities ₹ 1,70,000.

  • (A) 20 : 17
  • (B) 1 : 1
  • (C) 18 : 17
  • (D) 19 : 17
Correct Answer: (B) 1 : 1
View Solution



Step 1: Calculate Quick Assets (Liquid Assets) \[ Quick Assets = Current Assets - Stock - Prepaid Expenses \] \[ Quick Assets = 2,00,000 - 20,000 - 10,000 = ₹ 1,70,000 \]
Step 2: Calculate Quick Ratio \[ Quick Ratio = \frac{Quick Assets}{Current Liabilities} \] \[ Quick Ratio = \frac{1,70,000}{1,70,000} = 1 : 1 \] Quick Tip: Quick Ratio is also known as Acid Test Ratio or Liquid Ratio. Ideally, it should be 1:1.


Question 42:

`Analysis of financial statements is useful and significant to different users.' Which of the following users is concerned with a firm's long-term solvency and survival ?

  • (A) Labour unions
  • (B) Trade payables
  • (C) Finance manager
  • (D) Lenders
Correct Answer: (D) Lenders
View Solution



Long-term lenders (like banks, debenture holders) are primarily concerned with the company's ability to repay the principal amount in the long run and service the interest regularly. This is referred to as long-term solvency. Trade payables are concerned with short-term liquidity. Quick Tip: Different users have different objectives. "Solvency" usually refers to long-term financial health, while "Liquidity" refers to short-term obligations.


Question 43:

Statement I : In case of non-financial enterprises, payment of interest and dividend are classified as financing activities.

Statement II : In case of financial enterprises, payment of interest and dividend are classified as investing activities.

Choose the correct option from the following :

  • (A) Both the statements are true.
  • (B) Both the statements are false.
  • (C) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.
  • (D) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true.
Correct Answer: (C) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.
View Solution




Statement I: True. For non-financial firms, interest and dividends are costs of raising funds, hence Financing Activities.
Statement II: False. For financial enterprises, paying interest is an operating expense (Operating Activity). Paying dividend is a distribution of profit to owners, so it is a Financing Activity (not Investing). Quick Tip: Dividend Paid is \textbf{always} a Financing Activity for all enterprises (Financial or Non-Financial) because it relates to share capital.


Question 44:

During the year ended \(31^{st}\) March, 2025, H.P. Ltd. paid an interim dividend of ₹ 50,00,000. From the following, choose the correct option for the purpose of preparing `Cash Flow Statement' :

  • (A) ₹ 50,00,000 paid as interim dividend during the year will be shown as outflow of cash under financing activities and added back to net profit to calculate cash flows from operating activities.
  • (B) ₹ 50,00,000 paid as interim dividend during the year will be shown as outflow of cash under financing activities and deducted from net profit to calculate cash flows from operating activities.
  • (C) ₹ 50,00,000 paid as interim dividend during the year will be shown as outflow from financing activities only.
  • (D) ₹ 50,00,000 paid as interim dividend during the year will be added back to net profit to calculate cash flows from operating activities only.
Correct Answer: (A) ₹ 50,00,000 paid as interim dividend... shown as outflow... and added back to net profit...
View Solution



1. Financing Activity: Payment of dividend is a return on capital, so it is a cash outflow under Financing Activities.
2. Operating Activity: Net Profit starts from the difference in surplus. Since interim dividend was appropriated (deducted) to arrive at the closing surplus, it must be added back to determine the "Net Profit before Tax and Extraordinary Items". Quick Tip: Items appropriated from profit (like Dividends, Transfers to Reserves) are added back to current year's profit to find Operating Profit before Working Capital Changes.


Question 45:

Which of the following is a financing activity for the purpose of preparing a Cash Flow Statement ?

  • (A) Interest received
  • (B) Dividend received
  • (C) Royalties received
  • (D) Interest paid on debentures
Correct Answer: (D) Interest paid on debentures
View Solution




Interest/Dividend received: Investing Activity (Return on Investment).
Royalties received: Operating Activity (Revenue).
Interest paid on debentures: Financing Activity (Cost of servicing debt capital). Quick Tip: Identify the nature of the transaction: Does it relate to Assets (Investing), Operations (Operating), or Capital/Debt (Financing)?


Question 46:

The following information is obtained from the books of Devdutt Ltd. :
Working capital -- ₹ 4,00,000
Trade Payables -- ₹ 50,000
Other Current liabilities -- ₹ 1,00,000
Current assets of Devdutt Ltd. are :

  • (A) ₹ 2,50,000
  • (B) ₹ 4,50,000
  • (C) ₹ 5,00,000
  • (D) ₹ 5,50,000
Correct Answer: (D) ₹ 5,50,000
View Solution



Step 1: Calculate Total Current Liabilities (CL) \[ CL = Trade Payables + Other Current Liabilities \] \[ CL = 50,000 + 1,00,000 = ₹ 1,50,000 \]
Step 2: Calculate Current Assets (CA)
Formula: \(Working Capital = CA - CL\) \[ CA = Working Capital + CL \] \[ CA = 4,00,000 + 1,50,000 = ₹ 5,50,000 \] Quick Tip: Working Capital refers to the excess of Current Assets over Current Liabilities.


Question 47:

The following information was extracted from the Statement of Profit and Loss of Chaman Ltd. for the year ended \(31^{st}\) March, 2025 :



Prepare a Comparative Statement of Profit and Loss.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Comparative Statement of Profit and Loss

for the years ended \(31^{st\) March, 2024 and 2025



Quick Tip: Percentage Change is calculated as: \(\frac{Absolute Change}{Previous Year Figure} \times 100\). Always be careful with the base year (Previous Year) when calculating percentages.


Question 48:

Under which major head and sub-heads (if any) will the following items be presented in the Balance Sheet of a company as per Schedule III, Part I of the Companies Act, 2013 ?

(i) Demand deposits with banks

(ii) Long-term loans

(iii) Livestock

Correct Answer:
View Solution





Quick Tip: "Livestock" is a tangible asset (biological asset) and is classified under Property, Plant and Equipment (PPE) in the Balance Sheet.


Question 49:

`Net Asset Turnover ratio' of a company is 2 times. State with reason whether the following transactions will increase, decrease or not affect the ratio :

(i) Cash sales ₹ 3,00,000

(ii) Issue of equity shares ₹ 10,00,000

(iii) Issue of 9% debentures ₹ 5,00,000

(iv) Credit purchase of goods ₹ 50,000

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Formula: \(Net Asset Turnover Ratio = \frac{Revenue from Operations}{Capital Employed (Net Assets)}\)


(i) Cash sales ₹ 3,00,000: Increase.
Reason: Revenue from Operations increases by ₹ 3,00,000. Capital Employed (Net Assets) increases only by the profit element of the sale (Cash increases, Stock decreases). Since the percentage increase in Revenue is usually higher than the percentage increase in Capital Employed, the ratio improves.

(ii) Issue of equity shares ₹ 10,00,000: Decrease.
\textit{Reason: Capital Employed (Shareholder's Funds) increases by ₹ 10,00,000. Revenue remains unchanged. Increase in denominator decreases the ratio.

(iii) Issue of 9% debentures ₹ 5,00,000: Decrease.
\textit{Reason: Capital Employed (Debt + Equity) increases by ₹ 5,00,000. Revenue remains unchanged. Increase in denominator decreases the ratio.

(iv) Credit purchase of goods ₹ 50,000: No Change.
\textit{Reason: Net Assets = Total Assets - Current Liabilities. Purchase of goods increases Stock (Current Asset) and Creditors (Current Liability) by the same amount. Thus, Net Assets (Capital Employed) remain unchanged. Revenue is also unchanged. Quick Tip: \textbf{Net Assets is equivalent to \textbf{Capital Employed}. It can be calculated as:
(Non-Current Assets + Working Capital) OR (Shareholder's Funds + Non-Current Liabilities).


Question 50:

From the following information, calculate `Proprietary Ratio' and `Debt-to-Equity Ratio' :


Correct Answer:
View Solution




Step 1: Calculate Components
1. Shareholder's Funds (Equity):
\[ Equity SC + Pref SC + Reserves = 3,00,000 + 1,00,000 + 1,00,000 = ₹ 5,00,000 \]
2. Total Debt (Long-term):
\[ Long-term Borrowings = ₹ 1,50,000 \]
3. Total Assets:
\[ Plant \& Machinery + Investments + Current Assets = 3,50,000 + 1,00,000 + 2,00,000 = ₹ 6,50,000 \]

Step 2: Calculate Ratios
1. Proprietary Ratio:
\[ Proprietary Ratio = \frac{Shareholder's Funds}{Total Assets} = \frac{5,00,000}{6,50,000} = \frac{50}{65} = 0.77 : 1 \]

2. Debt-to-Equity Ratio:
\[ Debt-to-Equity Ratio = \frac{Long-term Debt}{Shareholder's Funds} = \frac{1,50,000}{5,00,000} = \frac{3}{10} = 0.30 : 1 \] Quick Tip: Proprietary Ratio indicates the proportion of Total Assets funded by the owners. A higher ratio indicates higher financial safety.


Question 51:

From the following information obtained from the books of `Informatics India Ltd.', calculate `Cash from Operations' :

Net Profit for year ended \(31^{st}\) March, 2025 after providing depreciation was ₹ 60,000 and after writing off goodwill ₹ 2,000 was ₹ 3,40,000.

Additional Information :

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Calculation of Cash Flow from Operating Activities

Quick Tip: For Cash from Operations: \textbf{Add} Non-cash expenses (Depreciation, Goodwill w/o). \textbf{Add} Decrease in Current Assets and Increase in Current Liabilities. \textbf{Less} Increase in Current Assets and Decrease in Current Liabilities.


Question 52:

Which of the following is not a feature of Tailored accounting software ?

  • (A) Designed specially for large enterprises
  • (B) Requires minimal or no support from system
  • (C) Requires special training before use
  • (D) Needs technical installation efforts
Correct Answer: (B) Requires minimal or no support from system
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding Tailored Accounting Software

Tailored accounting software (also known as customized software) refers to software that is modified to meet the specific requirements of a particular user or organization. It sits between "Ready-to-Use" and "Custom-Built" software in terms of complexity and cost.

Step 2: Analyze the Options

(A) Designed specially for large enterprises: This is a feature. Large enterprises often have unique business processes that standard software cannot handle, necessitating tailored solutions.
(B) Requires minimal or no support from system: This is NOT a feature. Tailored software is complex and modified. Unlike ready-to-use software (which requires minimal support), tailored software typically requires significant and ongoing technical support from the vendor for maintenance, updates, and troubleshooting.
(C) Requires special training before use: This is a feature. Since the software is customized to specific workflows, standard training is not enough. Specialized training for staff is mandatory.
(D) Needs technical installation efforts: This is a feature. It is not "plug-and-play"; it requires specific technical installation and configuration procedures. Quick Tip: To differentiate accounting software types: \textbf{Ready-to-Use:} Low cost, easy to use, minimal support (e.g., Tally). \textbf{Tailored:} Medium/High cost, requires training, requires vendor support (e.g., Modified SAP modules).


Question 53:

When an arithmetic expression or function is executed, the value produced is known as :

  • (A) Horizontal value
  • (B) Vertical value
  • (C) Derived value
  • (D) Basic value
Correct Answer: (C) Derived value
View Solution




Step 1: Define Value Types in Data Processing

Basic Value: This refers to raw data that is entered directly into the database or system (e.g., Units Sold = 50, Price per Unit = 10).
Derived Value: This is a value that is not entered directly but is generated by performing calculations or applying functions to basic values (e.g., Total Sales = Units Sold \(\times\) Price per Unit = 500).


Step 2: Conclusion

Since the question refers to a value produced by executing an arithmetic expression or function, it is clearly a result derived from other data. Hence, it is a Derived value. Quick Tip: In Computerised Accounting (and DBMS), \textbf{Real-time processing} often relies on calculating \textbf{Derived values} instantly rather than storing them, to save space and ensure data consistency.

CBSE Class 12 Accountancy - Sure Shot Questions

*The article might have information for the previous academic years, please refer the official website of the exam.

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