
CBSE Class 12 2025 Economics Question Paper with Solution Pdf available for download here. CBSE conducted the Economics exam on March 19, 2025 from 10:30 AM to 1:30 PM. The total marks for the theory paper are 80. The question paper contains 20% MCQ-based questions, 40% competency-based questions, and 40% short and long answer-type questions. Candidates can use the link below to download the CBSE Class 12 Economics Question Paper with detailed solutions.
| CBSE Class 12 2025 Economics Question Paper with Answer Key | Download PDF | Check Solution |

The monetary policy is formulated by the ______ in the Indian economy.
Monetary policy refers to the actions undertaken by a country's central bank to control the money supply and credit conditions to stimulate or restrain economic activity.
In India, the central bank is the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
The RBI is vested with the responsibility of conducting monetary policy, which is explicitly mandated under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.
The primary objective of India's monetary policy is to maintain price stability while keeping in mind the objective of growth.
Therefore, the Reserve Bank of India is the institution that formulates monetary policy in the Indian economy.
Quick Tip: Remember the key distinction: Monetary Policy is managed by the central bank (RBI in India) and deals with money supply and interest rates. Fiscal Policy is managed by the government and deals with taxation and government spending.
Identify, which of the following is not to be considered while estimating Revenue Deficit of a country.
The formula for Revenue Deficit is: Revenue Deficit = Total Revenue Expenditure – Total Revenue Receipts.
This calculation only includes items from the revenue budget, not the capital budget.
(A) Wages and salaries paid by the government are a part of Revenue Expenditure as they do not create any assets.
(B) Interest payments made by the Central Government are a part of Revenue Expenditure.
(C) Direct Tax Collection is a primary source of Revenue Receipts for the government.
(D) Expenditure incurred on the construction of a flyover is a Capital Expenditure because it leads to the creation of a physical asset for the country.
Since capital expenditure is not considered in the calculation of Revenue Deficit, this option is the correct answer.
Quick Tip: To distinguish between Revenue and Capital items, ask: "Does this transaction create an asset or reduce a liability for the government?" If yes, it's a capital item. If no, it's a revenue item. A flyover is an asset.
In the Keynesian Economics, ______ starts from the origin and is always drawn at an angle of 45°.
In the Keynesian framework, the equilibrium level of income is determined where Aggregate Demand (AD) equals Aggregate Supply (AS).
Aggregate Supply is represented by the national income (Y).
On a diagram with income (Y) on the x-axis and aggregate expenditure (AD) on the y-axis, a 45° line is drawn from the origin.
Every point on this 45° line represents a situation where the value on the x-axis (Income) is equal to the value on the y-axis (Expenditure), i.e., AD = Y (or AS).
This line serves as a line of equality or a reference line to identify the equilibrium point, which occurs where the AD curve intersects this 45° line.
Quick Tip: The 45° line in the Keynesian Cross diagram is also known as the Aggregate Supply (AS) curve. It represents all potential equilibrium points where total spending equals total output/income.
Read the following statements : Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose one of the correct options given below :
Assertion (A) : In case of public goods no one can be excluded from enjoying the benefits.
Reason (R) : Public goods are non-rivalrous and non-excludable in nature.
First, we analyze Assertion (A). It states that no one can be excluded from enjoying the benefits of public goods. This is the definition of the 'non-excludability' characteristic. Hence, Assertion (A) is true.
Next, we analyze Reason (R). It states that public goods are non-rivalrous and non-excludable in nature. These are the two defining characteristics of public goods. Hence, Reason (R) is also true.
Finally, we establish the relationship. Assertion (A) describes the outcome of non-excludability. Reason (R) states that non-excludability is an inherent property of public goods.
The reason why no one can be excluded from a public good's benefits (Assertion A) is precisely because that good is non-excludable in nature (Reason R).
Therefore, both statements are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation for Assertion (A).
Quick Tip: To solve Assertion-Reason questions, follow a three-step process: 1. Check if the Assertion is true. 2. Check if the Reason is true. 3. If both are true, check if the Reason correctly explains the Assertion by asking "Why?" or "Because".
Value Addition = ______ – Value of Intermediate Consumption.
(Choose the correct option(s) to complete the stated formula.)
(i) Domestic sales
(ii) Sales – change in stock
(iii) Value of output
(iv) (Number of units produced) × (Price per unit)
Options:
The fundamental definition of Value Added is the value of total output produced by a firm minus the value of intermediate goods used in production.
The formula is: Value Added = Value of Output - Value of Intermediate Consumption.
So, the blank in the question must be filled by the term 'Value of Output'. This corresponds to statement (iii).
'Value of Output' is the market value of all goods and services produced by a firm during a year.
This can be calculated by multiplying the total quantity of goods produced by their market price. This corresponds to statement (iv): (Number of units produced) × (Price per unit).
Since both (iii) and (iv) correctly represent the term that fills the blank, option (D) is the correct choice.
Quick Tip: Remember the components of Value of Output. It is not just sales. It is calculated as: Value of Output = Sales + Change in Stock (Closing Stock - Opening Stock). Or more fundamentally, it is the price multiplied by the total quantity produced.
Suppose for an economy, autonomous consumption stands as ₹ 100 crore and total consumption is ₹ 130 crores. The value of induced consumption would be ₹ ______ crore.
The total consumption (C) in an economy is the sum of autonomous consumption (\(\bar{C}\)) and induced consumption.
Autonomous consumption is the consumption that occurs even at a zero level of income.
Induced consumption is the portion of consumption that varies with the level of disposable income.
The formula is: Total Consumption (C) = Autonomous Consumption (\(\bar{C}\)) + Induced Consumption.
Given data: C = ₹ 130 crores and \(\bar{C}\) = ₹ 100 crores.
Rearranging the formula to find Induced Consumption: Induced Consumption = C - \(\bar{C}\).
Substituting the values: Induced Consumption = ₹ 130 crores - ₹ 100 crores = ₹ 30 crores.
Quick Tip: Remember the consumption function: C = \(\bar{C}\) + bY, where \(\bar{C}\) is autonomous consumption and 'bY' represents induced consumption (b is MPC, Y is income). The question directly asks for the value of 'bY'.
As the Banker to the Bank, Reserve Bank of India performs all functions except ______.
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) acts as the central bank and has several key functions. The question focuses on its role as the 'Banker to the Banks'.
(B) Maintaining current accounts for commercial banks is a core function of the RBI as the banker to banks. Banks keep their cash reserves with the RBI.
(C) Clearing and settlement of interbank transactions (acting as a clearing house) is another crucial function in its role as banker to banks.
(D) Facilitating governmental transactions is a function of the RBI, but in its role as 'Banker to the Government', not 'Banker to the Bank'. However, it is a function of the RBI.
(A) The RBI does not deal directly with the general public. The purchase and sale of securities on behalf of the public is a function of commercial banks. The RBI conducts Open Market Operations (buying/selling securities) with banks and financial institutions, not with individuals.
Therefore, this is the function the RBI does not perform.
Quick Tip: The RBI has three main agency roles: Banker to the Government, Banker to the Banks, and managing foreign exchange. It does not have a direct banking relationship with the general public.
Read the following statements : Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose one of the correct options given below :
Assertion (A): If the value of Marginal Propensity to Save is 0.5, Marginal Propensity to Consume will be equal to Marginal Propensity to Save.
Reason (R) : Sum of Marginal Propensity to Consume and Marginal Propensity to Save always equals to unity.
First, we analyze Reason (R). It states that the sum of Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC) and Marginal Propensity to Save (MPS) is always unity (1).
This is a fundamental identity in Keynesian economics: MPC + MPS = 1. So, Reason (R) is true.
Next, we analyze Assertion (A). It states that if MPS = 0.5, then MPC will be equal to MPS.
Using the identity from Reason (R), we can calculate MPC: MPC = 1 - MPS.
Substituting the given value: MPC = 1 - 0.5 = 0.5.
In this case, MPC = 0.5 and MPS = 0.5, so MPC is indeed equal to MPS. Thus, Assertion (A) is also true.
The calculation in Assertion (A) is a direct application of the rule stated in Reason (R). Therefore, Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
Quick Tip: Always remember the fundamental macroeconomic identities: MPC + MPS = 1 and APC + APS = 1. They are crucial for solving numerical and conceptual problems related to consumption and saving.
The budget under, which the government may spend an amount equal to the revenue it collects is referred as ______ Budget.
A government budget is a statement of estimated government receipts and estimated government expenditure during a fiscal year.
The relationship between total expenditure and total receipts determines the type of budget.
If Government Expenditure > Government Receipts, it is a Deficit Budget.
If Government Receipts > Government Expenditure, it is a Surplus Budget.
If Government Expenditure = Government Receipts, it is a Balanced Budget.
The question describes a situation where the amount spent (expenditure) is equal to the revenue collected (receipts). This is the definition of a Balanced Budget.
Quick Tip: A balanced budget is often seen as a sign of fiscal discipline, but deficit budgets are commonly used by governments to stimulate economic growth during a recession through increased spending.
To arrive at the value of equilibrium level of income, there must exists an equality between ex-ante ______ and ex-ante ______.
(Choose the correct option to fill up the blank)
(i) Aggregate Demand, Aggregate Supply
(ii) Aggregate Demand, Savings
(iii) Aggregate Demand, Investment
(iv) Savings, Investment
Options:
The equilibrium level of income in an economy is determined where planned aggregate expenditure equals planned aggregate output. There are two main approaches to determine this equilibrium.
Approach 1: Aggregate Demand - Aggregate Supply (AD-AS) Approach.
Equilibrium is achieved when planned Aggregate Demand (AD) is equal to planned Aggregate Supply (AS). This corresponds to statement (i).
Approach 2: Saving - Investment (S-I) Approach.
Equilibrium is also achieved when planned Savings (S) are equal to planned Investment (I). This corresponds to statement (iv).
The question asks for the valid equalities that must exist. Both the AD=AS and S=I conditions are valid representations of macroeconomic equilibrium.
The options provided are combinations of the statements (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv). We need to select the option that identifies the correct equilibrium conditions.
Option (B) states that conditions (i) and (iv) are the valid equalities. Since both AD = AS and S = I are correct conditions for equilibrium, this option is the correct choice.
Quick Tip: The Saving-Investment approach (S=I) is derived from the AD-AS approach. Since AS = Y and Y = C+S, and AD = C+I, setting AD=AS gives C+I = C+S, which simplifies to I=S. Both are fundamentally the same condition.
State the meaning and significance of Gross Domestic Product (GDP) deflator.
Meaning of GDP Deflator:
The GDP Deflator is an index of price changes of all goods and services that are included in the Gross Domestic Product (GDP).
It is calculated as the ratio of Nominal GDP (GDP at current prices) to Real GDP (GDP at constant prices), multiplied by 100.
Formula: GDP Deflator = \(\frac{Nominal GDP}{Real GDP} \times 100\).
Significance of GDP Deflator:
It is a comprehensive measure of inflation as it covers all goods and services produced in an economy, unlike CPI or WPI which are based on a select basket of goods.
It helps in converting Nominal GDP into Real GDP, thereby allowing for a true measure of economic growth by removing the effect of price changes.
Quick Tip: The GDP deflator is also known as the implicit price deflator. A value of 110 means that the general price level has risen by 10% since the base year.
"The government generally levies higher Goods and Services Tax (GST) on socially undesirable products like cigarettes, tobacco, liquor etc." Identify and explain the indicated government budget objective in the above statement.
The government budget objective indicated in the statement is the Reallocation of Resources.
Explanation:
The government aims to influence the allocation of resources to achieve social and economic objectives.
By levying higher taxes (like GST) on socially harmful goods such as cigarettes and tobacco, the government makes them more expensive.
This discourages their consumption and, in turn, discourages their production and shifts resources away from them towards more socially desirable sectors.
Conversely, the government can encourage the production of certain goods by providing tax concessions or subsidies.
Quick Tip: Government uses its fiscal policy (taxation and subsidies) as a tool to direct the flow of resources in an economy, promoting merit goods and discouraging the consumption of demerit goods.
Two friends Ramesh (a software engineer) and Pihu (a bakery owner) are discussing their contribution to the nation's economy through tax payments. Ramesh earns ₹ 8,00,000 per year, which makes him liable to pay income tax. Pihu pays Goods and Service Tax (GST) on the sale of cakes and pastries. On the basis of the given text, identify whether Ramesh is paying a direct tax or an indirect tax. Explain valid differences between two types of taxes.
Ramesh is paying a Direct Tax (Income Tax).
Pihu is paying an Indirect Tax (GST).
Differences between Direct and Indirect Taxes:
1. Incidence and Impact: In a direct tax, the 'impact' (initial burden) and 'incidence' (final burden) of the tax fall on the same person. Ramesh cannot shift the burden of his income tax to someone else.
In an indirect tax, the impact and incidence are on different persons. Pihu (the seller) initially pays the GST to the government but shifts the final burden to her customers by including it in the price of cakes.
2. Nature: Direct taxes are generally progressive in nature, meaning the tax rate increases as the income of the taxpayer increases.
Indirect taxes are generally regressive in nature, as they are levied at the same rate on all individuals, irrespective of their income, thus imposing a larger relative burden on the poor.
Quick Tip: The key to differentiating between direct and indirect taxes is to ask: "Can the burden of the tax be shifted to someone else?" If no, it's a direct tax. If yes, it's an indirect tax.
On the basis of the given image, explain the steps which may be taken by the Government of India to control the indicated macro-economic issue.
The macro-economic issue indicated in the image is Inflation.
The Government of India can use its Fiscal Policy to control inflation. The steps include:
1. Decrease in Government Expenditure: The government can reduce its own spending on public works, defence, subsidies, etc.
A reduction in government spending leads to a decrease in the aggregate demand in the economy, which helps to curb inflationary pressures.
2. Increase in Taxes: The government can increase both direct taxes (like income tax) and indirect taxes (like GST).
An increase in taxes reduces the disposable income of households and profits of businesses, which leads to a decrease in consumption and investment demand, thus lowering aggregate demand.
Quick Tip: To control inflation (excess demand), the government implements a contractionary fiscal policy. This involves either cutting government spending or raising taxes to reduce the overall demand in the economy.
Define 'Open Market Operations'.
Open Market Operations (OMO) refer to the buying and selling of government securities (like bonds) by the central bank (Reserve Bank of India) in the open market.
It is a quantitative tool of monetary policy used to regulate the money supply in the economy.
When the central bank sells securities, it absorbs liquidity from the market, reducing the money supply.
When the central bank buys securities, it injects liquidity into the market, increasing the money supply.
Quick Tip: Remember: Sale of securities by RBI \faArrowRight reduces money supply (combats inflation). Purchase of securities by RBI \faArrowRight increases money supply (combats deflation).
Justify the following statement with valid arguments: Money supply in an economy is an example of a stock variable.
The statement is correct. Money supply is a stock variable.
Justification:
A stock variable is a variable that is measured at a particular point in time.
A flow variable, in contrast, is measured over a period of time.
Money supply refers to the total stock of money (currency with public + demand deposits) held by the public in an economy at a specific point in time (e.g., as on 31st March 2023).
Since it is measured at a specific moment and not over a duration (like a day, week, or year), it is a stock variable.
Quick Tip: To identify a stock vs. flow variable, ask "when" it is measured. If the answer is "at a point in time" (like a balance sheet), it's a stock. If it's "over a period of time" (like an income statement), it's a flow. Examples of stock: wealth, capital. Examples of flow: income, investment.
Justify the following statement with valid arguments: The Central Bank provides several Banking services to the government.
The statement is correct. The Central Bank acts as a banker, agent, and financial advisor to the government.
Justification:
1. As a Banker: The central bank (RBI) maintains the accounts of the central and state governments. It accepts deposits from the government and makes payments on its behalf. It also provides short-term loans (ways and means advances) to the government to manage temporary mismatches in receipts and expenditures.
2. As an Agent: The central bank manages the public debt on behalf of the government. It is responsible for issuing new loans, paying interest on existing debt, and redeeming matured loans.
3. As a Financial Advisor: The central bank advises the government on various economic and financial matters, such as formulating monetary and fiscal policies, managing foreign exchange, and financing development plans.
Quick Tip: The Central Bank's function as 'Banker to the Government' is analogous to how commercial banks serve the general public. It provides a complete range of banking services, but its client is the government.
Assuming for a hypothetical economy, Central Bank increases the Reserve Ratio from 20% to 25% and the total primary deposits stand at ₹ 1,000. Explain the effect of rise in Reserve Ratio on credit creation by commercial banks.
The rise in the Reserve Ratio will reduce the credit creation capacity of commercial banks.
The credit creation capacity is determined by the money multiplier, whose formula is: Money Multiplier = \(\frac{1}{Reserve Ratio}\).
Case 1: Reserve Ratio = 20% or 0.20
Money Multiplier = \(\frac{1}{0.20}\) = 5.
Total Credit Creation = Primary Deposits × Money Multiplier = ₹ 1,000 × 5 = ₹ 5,000.
Case 2: Reserve Ratio = 25% or 0.25
Money Multiplier = \(\frac{1}{0.25}\) = 4.
Total Credit Creation = Primary Deposits × Money Multiplier = ₹ 1,000 × 4 = ₹ 4,000.
Effect:
By increasing the Reserve Ratio from 20% to 25%, the central bank forces commercial banks to hold a larger portion of their deposits as reserves.
This reduces the amount of excess reserves available for lending, thereby decreasing the value of the money multiplier from 5 to 4.
Consequently, the total credit creation capacity of the banking system decreases from ₹ 5,000 to ₹ 4,000.
Quick Tip: There is an inverse relationship between the legal reserve ratio (LRR) and the money multiplier. When the central bank wants to reduce the money supply and credit in the economy (to fight inflation), it increases the LRR.
Suppose for an economy, government proposes project for construction of expressways with an incremental investment of ₹ 1200 crore. Assuming, 80% of increase in income is spent on consumption. Estimate the following on the basis of above information :
(a) Change in income (ΔY).
(b) Change in consumption (ΔC).
Given information:
Increase in Investment (ΔI) = ₹ 1,200 crore.
Percentage of increased income spent on consumption (MPC) = 80% = 0.8.
First, we calculate the Marginal Propensity to Save (MPS).
MPS = 1 - MPC = 1 - 0.8 = 0.2.
Next, we calculate the Investment Multiplier (k).
k = \(\frac{1}{MPS}\) = \(\frac{1}{0.2}\) = 5.
(a) Change in income (ΔY)
The formula for change in income is: ΔY = k × ΔI.
ΔY = 5 × ₹ 1,200 crore.
ΔY = ₹ 6,000 crore.
(b) Change in consumption (ΔC)
The formula for change in consumption is: ΔC = MPC × ΔY.
ΔC = 0.8 × ₹ 6,000 crore.
ΔC = ₹ 4,800 crore.
Quick Tip: The investment multiplier shows the magnificent effect of a change in investment on the total income. A small initial investment can lead to a much larger increase in national income, with the size of the effect depending on the MPC.
On the basis of the data given below, estimate the value of National Income (\(NNP\)_{FC).
We will use the Expenditure Method to calculate National Income (NNP\(_{FC}\)).
Step 1: Calculate Gross Domestic Product at Market Price (GDP\(_{MP}\))
GDP\(_{MP}\) = Private Final Consumption Exp. (1) + Government Final Consumption Exp. (2) + Gross Domestic Capital Formation (3+4) + Net Exports (8).
First, calculate Gross Domestic Capital Formation (GDCF):
GDCF = Gross domestic fixed capital formation (3) + Addition to stock (4)
GDCF = ₹ 1,000 + ₹ 400 = ₹ 1,400 crore.
Now, calculate GDP\(_{MP}\):
GDP\(_{MP}\) = ₹ 2,000 + ₹ 1,500 + ₹ 1,400 + ₹ 700 = ₹ 5,600 crore.
Step 2: Calculate National Income (NNP\(_{FC}\))
NNP\(_{FC}\) = GDP\(_{MP}\) - Consumption of fixed capital (5) - Net Indirect Taxes (7) + Net Factor Income from Abroad (6).
NNP\(_{FC}\) = ₹ 5,600 - ₹ 50 - ₹ 200 + ₹ 100.
NNP\(_{FC}\) = ₹ 5,350 crore.
Quick Tip: Remember the formula conversions: Gross to Net (minus Depreciation/Consumption of fixed capital), Domestic to National (plus NFIA), and Market Price to Factor Cost (minus Net Indirect Taxes). Follow the steps systematically.
Differentiate between Real flow and Money flow.
\begin{tabular{|l|l|
\hline
Basis & Real Flow
\hline
Meaning & It is the flow of factor services (land, labour, etc.) from households to firms
& and the corresponding flow of goods and services from firms to households.
\hline
Involvement & It involves the exchange of physical goods and services.
\hline
Alternative Name & It is also known as the Physical Flow.
\hline
\end{tabular
\begin{tabular{|l|l|
\hline
Basis & Money Flow
\hline
Meaning & It is the flow of factor payments (rent, wages, etc.) from firms to households
& and the corresponding flow of consumption expenditure from households to firms.
\hline
Involvement & It involves the exchange of money.
\hline
Alternative Name & It is also known as the Nominal Flow.
\hline
\end{tabular
Quick Tip: Think of the circular flow of income. Real flow is the inner loop (actual goods and services moving). Money flow is the outer loop (money moving in the opposite direction to pay for the real flow).
Gauhar, has recently completed her fashion designing studies and started a boutique. To produce dresses for sale, she purchased various materials, including a sewing machine, fabric, buttons and thread. These items are essential for producing the dresses. Classify the material purchased by Gauhar as Final or Intermediate goods, giving valid reasons in support of the classifications.
1. Sewing Machine:
Classification: Final Good (specifically, a producer's capital good).
Reason: The sewing machine is a fixed asset for the boutique. It will be used in the production process for several years and is not for resale. It has crossed the production boundary and is ready for use by its final user (Gauhar, the producer).
2. Fabric, Buttons, and Thread:
Classification: Intermediate Goods.
Reason: These items are raw materials that will be used up entirely in the production process of making dresses. They will lose their individual identity and become part of the final product (the dress) which will then be sold. They have not yet crossed the production boundary.
Quick Tip: The distinction between final and intermediate goods depends on their end use, not the nature of the good itself. A car sold to a household is a final good; the same car sold to a taxi company is also a final (capital) good. But tires sold to a car factory are intermediate goods.
"National Income is always equal to Domestic income in a two sector economy." Defend or refute the given statement with valid reasons.
The given statement is correct. I will defend the statement.
Reasons:
The relationship between National Income (NI) and Domestic Income (DI) is given by the formula:
National Income = Domestic Income + Net Factor Income from Abroad (NFIA).
A two-sector economy consists of only households and firms.
By definition, a two-sector economy is a closed economy, meaning it has no economic transactions with the rest of the world.
Since there are no international transactions, there is no factor income earned from abroad and no factor income paid to abroad.
Therefore, Net Factor Income from Abroad (NFIA) is zero in a two-sector economy.
This makes National Income equal to Domestic Income.
Quick Tip: Remember the composition of different economic models: 2-sector (Firms, Households), 3-sector (Firms, Households, Government), and 4-sector (Firms, Households, Government, Rest of the World). NFIA only becomes a factor in a 4-sector (open) economy.
Define Balance of Payments.
Based on the provided text, the Balance of Payments (BoP) is a systematic summary of the economic transactions of an economy with the rest of the world, over a given period of time.
It is a statement of accounts that records all monetary transactions between the residents of a country and the rest of the world.
Quick Tip: The BoP account always balances in an accounting sense. A 'deficit' or 'surplus' in BoP refers to the balance of autonomous transactions, which is then offset by accommodating transactions (like changes in official reserves).
Differentiate between the two accounts of Balance of Payments.
The two main accounts of the Balance of Payments are the Current Account and the Capital Account.
Current Account:
It records transactions related to the export and import of goods (visible trade) and services (invisible trade), unilateral transfers, and income receipts and payments.
These transactions do not cause a change in the assets or liabilities of the country.
It shows the net income generated by the country in a given period.
Capital Account:
It records all transactions that cause a change in the assets or liabilities of the residents of a country or its government.
It includes items like foreign direct investment (FDI), portfolio investment, loans, and banking capital.
It shows the financing of the deficit or the deployment of the surplus from the current account.
Quick Tip: A simple way to differentiate: Current Account transactions are like a company's income statement (flows of income/expenditure). Capital Account transactions are like its balance sheet (changes in assets/liabilities).
Give the meaning of Balance of Payments deficit with formula.
Meaning:
A Balance of Payments (BoP) deficit refers to a situation where the total inflows of foreign currency on account of autonomous transactions are less than the total outflows of foreign currency on account of such transactions.
Autonomous transactions are those economic transactions which are undertaken for the motive of profit.
This deficit in the overall balance must be financed by accommodating transactions, typically by a decrease in the country's official foreign exchange reserves.
Formula:
Overall Balance = Current Account Balance + Capital Account Balance + Errors \& Omissions.
A BoP deficit exists when the Overall Balance is negative.
Quick Tip: A BoP deficit simply means that a country has sent more money out than it has taken in from autonomous transactions. The central bank must cover this shortfall, usually by selling foreign currency from its reserves.
______ of agriculture refers to production of crops for sale in the open market rather than for self consumption purpose.
The statement describes the shift from subsistence farming (producing for self-consumption) to market-oriented farming (producing for sale).
This process is known as the commercialisation of agriculture.
It implies that agricultural production becomes a business activity rather than just a means of livelihood.
Therefore, option (A) is the correct term for the described phenomenon.
Quick Tip: Commercialisation of agriculture involves producing cash crops for the market. Diversification means shifting into different crops or non-farm activities. Modernisation involves using new technology.
Read the following statements carefully :
Statement 1 : In 1978, commune lands were divided into small plots to the individual households for cultivation.
Statement 2: Under commune system, professionals were sent to work and learn from the country side.
In the light of the given statements, choose the correct option from the following :
The statements refer to economic policies in China.
Statement 1 describes the beginning of the Household Responsibility System, which was a key agricultural reform initiated in China in the late 1970s (specifically starting around 1978). This reform involved de-collectivization, where commune land was leased to individual households. So, Statement 1 is true.
Statement 2 describes a practice that occurred during the Great Leap Forward and the Cultural Revolution in China, where urban professionals and intellectuals were sent to rural areas to work alongside peasants. This was part of the commune system's ideology. So, Statement 2 is also true.
Since both statements accurately describe historical policies related to the commune system in China, option (C) is correct.
Quick Tip: Remember key phases of Chinese economic history: the Great Leap Forward (late 1950s, focus on communes), the Cultural Revolution (1966-76), and the Economic Reforms (starting late 1970s) which began to dismantle the commune system.
Identify, the options that emphasize the role of information and technology.
(i) Achieving sustainable development
(ii) Attainment of food security
(iii) Disseminates information regarding emerging technologies.
Let's analyze the role of Information and Technology (IT) in each statement.
(i) IT plays a crucial role in achieving sustainable development by enabling efficient resource management, monitoring pollution, and promoting green technologies.
(ii) IT helps in attaining food security through precision agriculture, better weather forecasting, efficient supply chain management, and providing market information to farmers.
(iii) The primary function of IT is to process and disseminate information. This inherently includes spreading knowledge about new and emerging technologies to a wider audience.
Since IT contributes to all three aspects mentioned, all three options emphasize its role. Therefore, option (D) is the correct choice.
Quick Tip: Information Technology is a cross-cutting enabler. When faced with such questions, consider how IT can be applied to each area. It almost always plays a role in monitoring, efficiency, and communication, making it relevant to most modern development goals.
Read the following statements: Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose one of the correct options given below :
Assertion (A): Under the land reforms, Indian government fixed the minimum land size which could be owned by an individual.
Reason (R) : The purpose of land ceiling was to avoid the concentration of land ownership in a few hands.
First, let's analyze Assertion (A). It states that the government fixed a \textit{minimum land size. This is incorrect. The policy of land ceilings involved fixing the \textit{maximum amount of land that could be owned by an individual or family. The goal was to take surplus land and redistribute it. Thus, Assertion (A) is false.
Next, let's analyze Reason (R). It states that the purpose of land ceiling was to avoid the concentration of land ownership in a few hands. This is the exact objective of land ceiling legislation – to promote equity in land distribution. Thus, Reason (R) is true.
Since the Assertion is false and the Reason is true, option (D) is the correct choice.
Quick Tip: Be careful with keywords like "minimum" and "maximum". Land Ceilings set a maximum limit on land holdings. Consolidation of Holdings aimed to address the problem of fragmented and small land plots, which is different from setting a minimum size.
______ are the people who operate their own farms / enterprises.
The question asks for the term used to describe people who operate their own businesses or farms.
(A) Hired workers and (C) Regular Salaried Employees work for others for a wage or salary.
(B) Casual Wage Workers are employed on a daily basis and do not have regular work.
(D) Self-Employed individuals are those who use their own resources (labour, capital, land) to run their own enterprise or farm and earn a livelihood from it.
This matches the description in the question perfectly.
Quick Tip: The workforce is broadly divided into two categories: self-employed and wage-employed. Wage-employed can be further divided into regular salaried employees and casual wage workers.
Agricultural marketing is a process that involves the ______ of agricultural commodities.
(i) Privatisation
(ii) Processing
(iii) Assembling
(iv) Grading
Agricultural marketing refers to all the activities, agencies, and policies involved in the movement of farm produce from the farms to the consumers.
Let's analyze the options:
(ii) Processing: This involves converting raw produce into a more usable form (e.g., wheat into flour). This is part of marketing.
(iii) Assembling: This involves collecting the produce from various farms for further processing or sale. This is a key step in marketing.
(iv) Grading: This involves sorting the produce into different lots based on quality, size, etc. This adds value and is part of marketing.
(i) Privatisation is a broad economic policy of transferring ownership from the public to the private sector. It is not a step in the process of agricultural marketing itself.
Therefore, processing, assembling, and grading are all integral parts of the agricultural marketing process. Option (D) is the correct choice.
Quick Tip: The process of agricultural marketing includes harvesting, gathering/assembling, grading, packaging, transportation, storage, processing, and finally, distribution and sale.
______ is based on the idea that education and health are integral to human well-being.
The question emphasizes that education and health are "integral to human well-being," meaning they are valuable in themselves, as ends, not just as means to an end.
(C) Human Capital perspective treats education and health as investments to increase labour productivity and economic growth. It sees them as a means to an end.
(B) Human Development perspective, pioneered by Mahbub ul Haq, views education and health as fundamental components of human well-being and freedom. It focuses on expanding human choices and capabilities, where education and health are core elements, regardless of their impact on productivity.
This aligns perfectly with the statement.
Quick Tip: Remember the key difference: Human Capital sees people as a means to increase production. Human Development sees people (and their well-being) as the ultimate end of development.
In recent years, all the adults are encouraged to open bank accounts as a part of a scheme known as ______.
The scheme mentioned is aimed at financial inclusion by encouraging the opening of bank accounts.
(A) The Pradhan Mantri Jan-Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) is a national mission for financial inclusion to ensure access to financial services, namely banking/savings \& deposit accounts, remittance, credit, insurance, pension in an affordable manner. This matches the description.
(B) Jan-Aushadhi Yojana is related to providing quality generic medicines at affordable prices.
(D) Jan-Arogya Yojana (part of Ayushman Bharat) is a health insurance scheme.
(C) Jan-Soochna Yojana is a portal for public information.
Therefore, the correct scheme is Jan-Dhan Yojana.
Quick Tip: Associate the names of major government schemes with their core purpose: Jan-Dhan (Dhan = wealth/money) for bank accounts, Jan-Aushadhi (Aushadhi = medicine) for generic drugs, Jan-Arogya (Arogya = health) for health insurance.
The given chart indicates the problem of ______ in the Indian Economy, post 1990-92.
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The chart shows two lines representing the growth rates of GDP and Employment from 1951 to 2012.
Upon observing the trend, especially in the periods after 1990, it is clear that the line for GDP growth is consistently and significantly higher than the line for employment growth.
This indicates that while the economy (GDP) was growing at a healthy rate, the growth in employment opportunities was lagging far behind.
This phenomenon, where an economy experiences economic growth without a corresponding increase in employment, is termed "Jobless Growth".
Therefore, the chart clearly indicates the problem of Jobless Growth in the Indian economy.
Quick Tip: Jobless Growth is a situation where the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) of a country increases, but the level of employment does not increase or even declines. It's characterized by a widening gap between GDP growth and employment growth.
Read the following statements carefully :
Statement 1 : Environmental concerns of waste generation and pollution have become critical, due to reversal of demand and supply relationship.
Statement 2: Environmental crisis happens, when the rate of resource extraction is less than that of regeneration of resource.
In the light of the given statements, choose the correct option from the following :
Let's analyze Statement 1. "Reversal of demand and supply relationship" in the context of the environment means that historically, the demand for environmental resources was less than their supply (or regenerative capacity). Now, the situation has reversed; demand exceeds supply. This overuse and the absorptive capacity of the environment being exceeded leads to waste generation and pollution issues. So, Statement 1 is true.
Let's analyze Statement 2. It says an environmental crisis happens when the rate of resource extraction is \textit{less than the rate of regeneration. This is incorrect. This situation would be sustainable. An environmental crisis occurs when the rate of resource extraction is \textit{greater than the rate of regeneration of the resource. So, Statement 2 is false.
Since Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false, option (A) is the correct choice.
Quick Tip: The core of environmental crisis is based on two conditions: 1) Rate of resource extraction > Rate of resource regeneration. 2) Rate of waste generation > Absorptive capacity of the environment. Statement 2 presents the opposite of the first condition.
Define liberty indicator.
Liberty indicators are measures used to assess the extent of civil and political freedom available to the citizens of a country.
They go beyond economic indicators like GDP to measure aspects of development related to democratic participation and constitutional rights.
They are qualitative in nature and help in understanding the degree of social and political freedom people enjoy.
Quick Tip: Liberty indicators are often associated with the Human Development Index (HDI) framework, which acknowledges that development is more than just economic growth. They help to measure the "freedom" aspect of development.
State any two liberty indicators.
Two liberty indicators are:
1. The extent of constitutional protection given to the rights of citizens, such as freedom of speech, expression, and assembly.
2. The extent of citizens' participation in social and political decision-making, often measured by the level of democracy, free and fair elections, and the independence of the judiciary.
Quick Tip: Think about what makes a society "free". This will lead you to indicators like protection of fundamental rights, rule of law, independence of the media, and the ability of people to participate in governance.
Medhya and Danish both had their own farms. Medhya invested in a few agricultural courses, learnt modern farming techniques and trained her labourers on best practices related to soil fertility, crop management, pest control etc. Whereas, Danish invested heavily in, by purchasing advanced farming machinery, irrigation systems and high quality seeds. Do you agree that, Danish had made investment in human capital ? Give valid reason in support of your answer.
No, I do not agree that Danish made an investment in human capital.
Reason:
Danish invested in physical capital. Physical capital refers to tangible, man-made assets like machinery, equipment, and infrastructure that are used in the production process. Advanced farming machinery, irrigation systems, and even high-quality seeds fall under this category.
Medhya, on the other hand, made an investment in human capital. Human capital refers to the stock of skill, knowledge, expertise, education, and health embodied in the workforce. By investing in agricultural courses and training herself and her labourers, Medhya was enhancing the skills and knowledge of the people involved in farming.
Therefore, Danish's investment was in physical assets, not in improving the skills of human beings.
Quick Tip: Differentiate between the two types of capital: Human Capital is an investment in people (education, training, health). Physical Capital is an investment in things (machines, buildings, tools).
"Expenditure on preventive medicine, curative medicine and social medicine helps in building human capital and economic development.” Do you agree with the given statement ? Give valid arguments in support of your answer.
Yes, I agree with the given statement.
Arguments:
1. Increases Labour Productivity and Efficiency: A healthy person can work longer and more efficiently than a sick person. Expenditure on medicine (preventive, curative, and social) leads to a healthier workforce, which increases productivity and contributes to higher output (GDP).
2. Increases Labour Force Participation: Better health and higher life expectancy increase the number of years a person can actively participate in the workforce. This increases the overall supply of labour in the economy.
3. Facilitates Investment in Education: A healthy child can attend school more regularly and learn more effectively. Thus, investment in health complements investment in education, leading to a more skilled and knowledgeable workforce in the future. Good health is a prerequisite for acquiring skills.
Quick Tip: Expenditure on health is a crucial component of human capital formation. A healthy workforce is not just more productive but also more adaptable and able to acquire new skills, which is essential for long-term economic development.
"The British introduced many infrastructural development project, which was largely driven by its own self-serving interest". Briefly explain any two main causes behind the infrastructural development undertaken by the colonial government.
The infrastructural development undertaken by the British in India was primarily motivated by colonial interests. Two main causes were:
1. To Facilitate Exploitation of Raw Materials: The British developed infrastructure, particularly railways and ports, to connect the raw material-producing areas in the Indian hinterland with the ports. This was done to ensure the easy and cheap transport of raw materials like cotton, jute, and indigo from India to feed the industries in Britain.
2. To Maintain and Strengthen Colonial Control: Infrastructure like railways, roads, and the telegraph system was crucial for the effective administration and military control of the vast Indian territory. Railways enabled the rapid movement of troops to quell uprisings and maintain law and order, while the telegraph system improved communication for administrative and military purposes, strengthening the British hold over India.
Quick Tip: When analyzing colonial policies, always look for the underlying motive of benefiting the home country (Britain). Infrastructure development was not for the welfare of Indians but to make the process of colonial exploitation more efficient.
“In the recent times through various schemes and policies, the Government of India has taken vital initiatives to generate employment directly / indirectly." Justify the statement giving valid arguments.
The statement is justified. The Government of India has launched several schemes to generate employment:
1. Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA):
This is a direct employment generation program that legally guarantees 100 days of wage employment in a financial year to any rural household whose adult members volunteer to do unskilled manual work.
2. Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY):
This is an indirect initiative that aims to provide skill training to a large number of Indian youth to make them employable and earn their livelihood. By enhancing skills, it facilitates employment generation.
3. Make in India Initiative:
This program aims to boost the manufacturing sector and attract investment. By encouraging domestic and foreign companies to manufacture in India, it indirectly creates a large number of jobs in the industrial sector.
Quick Tip: When discussing employment generation, differentiate between direct schemes (like MGNREGA where the government itself provides jobs) and indirect schemes (like Make in India or skill development programs that create an environment for job growth).
"Micro credit programmes have been very helpful in supporting rural development and improving livelihoods in India." Do you agree with the given statement ? Give valid reasons in support of your answer.
Yes, I agree with the statement. Micro-credit programmes have played a significant role in rural development.
Reasons:
1. Financial Inclusion: These programmes provide timely and affordable credit to the rural poor, especially women, who often lack access to the formal banking system due to a lack of collateral. Self-Help Groups (SHGs) are a prime example.
2. Livelihood Promotion: Micro-credit enables the poor to start small self-employment ventures (like poultry, handicrafts, or a small shop). This helps in generating sustainable livelihoods and reduces dependence on agriculture.
3. Women Empowerment: A significant proportion of micro-credit beneficiaries are women. Access to credit gives them financial independence, enhances their decision-making power within the household, and improves their social standing.
Quick Tip: The success of micro-credit is often linked to the Self-Help Group-Bank Linkage Programme (SHG-BLP). Remember that it's not just about credit, but also about encouraging savings and building a support network among members.
On the basis of the given data, compare and analyse the Distribution of workforce and its contribution to Gross Value added in India and China.
The given data reveals significant structural differences between the Indian and Chinese economies.
Comparison of Workforce Distribution:
1. Agriculture: India has a much larger proportion of its workforce engaged in agriculture (43%) compared to China (26%). This indicates a higher dependence on agriculture for livelihood in India.
2. Services: China has a significantly higher proportion of its workforce in the services sector (46%) compared to India (32%). This points towards a more advanced structural transformation in China.
3. Industry: Both countries have a comparable share of the workforce in the industrial sector (India 25%, China 28%).
Comparison of Contribution to GVA:
1. Agriculture: In India, 43% of the workforce contributes only 16% to the GVA. In China, 26% of the workforce contributes only 7% to the GVA.
2. Industry: China's industrial sector contributes a massive 41% to its GVA, whereas India's contribution is lower at 30%.
3. Services: The services sector is the largest contributor to GVA in both countries, with India at 54% and China at 52%.
Analysis:
The data highlights the problem of low productivity and disguised unemployment in Indian agriculture. A large segment of the Indian workforce (43%) is producing a relatively small output (16% of GVA).
China, on the other hand, has more successfully shifted its workforce from low-productivity agriculture to the high-productivity industry and services sectors. The high GVA contribution from its industrial sector (41%) with only 28% of the workforce is a testament to its manufacturing strength.
Quick Tip: When analyzing such data, the key is to compare the percentage of workforce with the percentage of GVA contribution for each sector. A large gap, where the workforce percentage is much higher than the GVA percentage (like in Indian agriculture), indicates low productivity.
"To promote green revolution, the Indian government provided fertilizer subsidies to the farmers." Briefly explain any two arguments in favour of such subsidies.
Two arguments in favour of fertilizer subsidies are:
1. Adoption of New Technology: The Green Revolution was based on the use of High Yielding Variety (HYV) seeds, which required significant amounts of chemical fertilizers and irrigation. Subsidies made these fertilizers affordable for a majority of farmers, especially small and marginal ones, encouraging them to adopt the new technology and increase production.
2. Ensuring Food Security: By making a critical input (fertilizers) cheaper, the government aimed to boost overall agricultural productivity and output. This was essential to make India self-sufficient in food grains and ensure food security for its large population, thereby avoiding famines.
Quick Tip: The main argument for subsidies, especially at the start of a technological shift like the Green Revolution, is to reduce the risk and cost for farmers to encourage adoption. However, a counter-argument is that they can lead to overuse and environmental damage.
As per a news report dated, 8th Oct. 2021, the Government of India sold its entire 100% stake in Air India. Tata sons, the original founder of Air India won the bid and purchased the airline for ₹ 18,000 crore.
(1) Identify the step taken by the Government of India.
(2) State any two ways in which identified step can be executed by the government.
(1) Identification of the Step:
The step taken by the Government of India is Privatisation or Disinvestment. Specifically, since the government sold its entire 100% stake, it is a case of complete privatisation.
(2) Two Ways of Execution:
Privatisation or disinvestment can be executed in the following ways:
a) Strategic Sale: This involves selling a significant portion (usually more than 51%) of a Public Sector Undertaking (PSU) along with the transfer of management control to a single private entity or group. The sale of Air India to the Tata Group is an example of a strategic sale.
b) Public Offer/Sale of Shares: This involves selling the shares of a PSU to the general public and financial institutions through the stock market. This is also known as a minority disinvestment if the government retains majority ownership (more than 51%).
Quick Tip: Remember the distinction: Disinvestment means the government is selling a part of its equity in a PSU but may retain control. Privatisation implies a sale that results in the transfer of ownership and management control to the private sector.
"After 1991, reforms in external sector led to an increase in foreign exchange inflows". Justify the given statement with valid argument.
The statement is correct. The external sector reforms post-1991 significantly increased foreign exchange inflows.
Arguments:
1. Devaluation of the Rupee: In 1991, the rupee was devalued against foreign currencies. This made Indian exports cheaper for foreigners and imports more expensive for Indians. The resulting increase in exports led to a greater inflow of foreign exchange.
2. Trade Liberalisation: The reforms dismantled the complex system of tariffs and quotas. The removal of quantitative restrictions and a sharp reduction in import duties encouraged both exports and imports, leading to greater integration with the world economy and attracting foreign currency.
3. Opening up to Foreign Investment: The reforms liberalised the norms for Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) and Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI). This encouraged multinational corporations and foreign institutional investors to invest in India, leading to a massive inflow of foreign capital.
Quick Tip: The three main pillars of external sector reforms were: Devaluation, Dismantling of trade barriers (tariffs and quotas), and Deregulation of foreign investment rules. All three contributed to improving the foreign exchange reserve position.
"During the planning period, public sector was given a dominant role in Indian Economy." Justify the rationale behind this step taken by the Government of India.
The dominant role given to the public sector during the planning period (post-independence up to 1991) was justified by the following rationale:
1. Lack of Private Capital and Incentive: At the time of independence, Indian private entrepreneurs lacked the massive capital required to invest in heavy industries and infrastructure projects (like steel plants, power generation, etc.). These projects also had long gestation periods and low initial returns, making them unattractive for the private sector.
2. Goal of Equitable Development: The Indian planners aimed for "growth with social justice." It was believed that a dominant public sector would ensure that the benefits of development were distributed equitably, prevent the concentration of economic power in a few hands, and develop backward regions of the country.
3. Building a Strong Industrial Base: The government needed to create a strong industrial base for the country. The public sector was seen as the primary instrument to develop core and heavy industries, which were essential for the overall industrialization of the economy as envisioned in the Second Five Year Plan (Mahalanobis Model).
Quick Tip: The rationale for a dominant public sector post-1947 can be summarized in three points: huge capital requirement, social welfare objectives, and the need for nation-building infrastructure.
Define Sustainable Agriculture.
As per the provided text, sustainable agriculture refers to those farming practices that meet today's requirements while preserving resources for the future generation.
This means adopting methods that protect the environment, reduce dependence on chemical inputs, use water and land efficiently, and ensure socio-economic equity for farmers.
Quick Tip: Sustainable agriculture is essentially the application of the broader concept of sustainable development to the agricultural sector. The key idea is balancing present needs with the needs of future generations.
"Sustainable Agriculture practices, like organic farming may seem costly initially, but offer long term benefits." Discuss the long term benefits these practices can offer.
Sustainable agricultural practices like organic farming offer significant long-term benefits, as mentioned in the text:
1. Improved Productivity and Soil Health: In the long run, organic farming improves the soil structure and fertility by increasing its organic matter content. This leads to better water retention, reduced soil erosion, and sustainable productivity without reliance on chemical fertilizers.
2. Environmental Stewardship: By eliminating or drastically reducing the use of chemical pesticides and fertilizers, these practices prevent the pollution of soil, water, and air. This helps in preserving biodiversity and maintaining ecological balance.
3. Economic Benefits for Farmers: While initial yields might be lower, farmers benefit in the long term from lower input costs (no chemical fertilizers/pesticides). Additionally, organic produce often commands a premium price in the market, leading to higher net income. Healthier soil also reduces the risk of crop failure.
Quick Tip: The long-term benefits of sustainable agriculture are threefold: ecological (environmental protection), economic (lower costs, premium price), and social (better health for consumers and farmers).
State any two strategies to promote sustainable development in a developing country like India.
Two key strategies to promote sustainable development in India are:
1. Shift to Non-Conventional Sources of Energy: India needs to reduce its dependence on thermal power, which uses coal and causes heavy pollution. A key strategy is to harness clean and renewable energy sources like solar power (through schemes like the National Solar Mission), wind energy, and hydropower. This helps in economic development without compromising environmental quality.
2. Promotion of Organic Farming and Integrated Pest Management (IPM): To make agriculture more sustainable, the government can promote practices that reduce reliance on chemical inputs. This includes encouraging farmers to use organic manure and bio-fertilizers instead of chemical fertilizers, and using bio-pesticides or IPM techniques instead of chemical pesticides. This protects soil health and reduces water pollution.
Quick Tip: Strategies for sustainable development often focus on two areas: clean energy to power industries and cities, and sustainable land use (including agriculture and forestry) to manage natural resources effectively.
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