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Sanghamitra Deb

Content Writer | Updated On - Dec 9, 2025

CBSE Class 12 2025 Economics Question Paper with Solution Pdf available for download here. CBSE conducted the Economics exam on March 19, 2025 from 10:30 AM to 1:30 PM. The total marks for the theory paper are 80. The question paper contains 20% MCQ-based questions, 40% competency-based questions, and 40% short and long answer-type questions. Candidates can use the link below to download the CBSE Class 12 Economics Question Paper with detailed solutions.

CBSE Class 12 Economics (Set 2 - 58/7/2) Question Paper 2025 with Solutions

CBSE Class 12 2025 Economics Question Paper with Answer Key Download PDF Check Solution
CBSE Class 12 Economics Question Paper 2025 with Solutions Set 2 58 7 2

Question 1:

The 45° line in Keynesian economics indicates ________________.

  • (A) Income > Consumption
  • (B) Savings > Investments
  • (C) Consumption > Income
  • (D) Income = Consumption
Correct Answer: (D) Income = Consumption
View Solution



In Keynesian economic models, a graph is used to show the relationship between aggregate expenditure and national income.


The horizontal axis represents National Income (Y), and the vertical axis represents Aggregate Expenditure (AE).


A 45-degree line drawn from the origin represents all points where the value on the vertical axis is equal to the value on the horizontal axis.


This line serves as a reference where Aggregate Expenditure equals National Income (AE = Y).


In a simple two-sector model, where AE consists only of consumption (C), this line represents all points where Income = Consumption.
Quick Tip: The 45° line is often called the "line of reference." The economy's equilibrium is found where the Aggregate Expenditure (AE) curve intersects this 45° line, as this is the point where total spending equals total income/output.


Question 2:

Aggregate expenditure in the economy during an accounting year is also known as __________.

  • (A) Autonomous investment
  • (B) Aggregate supply
  • (C) Aggregate demand
  • (D) Induced investment
Correct Answer: (C) Aggregate demand
View Solution



Aggregate Expenditure (AE) is defined as the total planned spending on all final goods and services produced within an economy.


The components of aggregate expenditure are Consumption (C), Investment (I), Government Spending (G), and Net Exports (NX).


Aggregate Demand (AD) represents the total demand for final goods and services in an economy at a given time.


In the context of the Keynesian model, Aggregate Expenditure is the measure of Aggregate Demand. The terms are often used interchangeably to represent the total spending in the economy.
Quick Tip: While AE and AD are used synonymously in introductory courses, there is a technical difference. The AE model typically assumes a fixed price level, while the AD curve illustrates the relationship between total spending and the overall price level.


Question 3:

Read the following statements carefully :

Statement 1: Open Market Operations refers to purchase/sale of Government Securities (G-Sec) by the Central Bank.

Statement 2: To decrease money supply, Central Bank will sell the Government Securities to commercial banks.

In the light of the given statements, choose the correct option from the following:

  • (A) Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
  • (B) Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
  • (C) Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
  • (D) Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.
Correct Answer: (C) Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
View Solution



Statement 1 accurately defines Open Market Operations (OMO). It is a monetary policy tool where the Central Bank buys or sells government securities in the open market to regulate the money supply. Thus, Statement 1 is true.


Statement 2 describes how OMO is used to contract the money supply. When the Central Bank sells securities to commercial banks, the banks pay for them by drawing on their reserves. This reduces the commercial banks' reserves, curtails their ability to lend, and thus decreases the money supply in the economy. Thus, Statement 2 is true.


Since both statements are correct, option (C) is the right choice.
Quick Tip: Remember the inverse relationship in OMOs: To \textbf{increase} money supply, the Central Bank \textbf{buys} securities. To \textbf{decrease} money supply, the Central Bank \textbf{sells} securities.


Question 4:

Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC) exhibits the slope of __________ function.

  • (A) Saving
  • (B) Consumption
  • (C) Production
  • (D) Cost
Correct Answer: (B) Consumption
View Solution



The consumption function shows the relationship between total consumption and gross national income.


A linear consumption function is expressed as \(C = a + bY\), where 'C' is consumption, 'a' is autonomous consumption, 'Y' is income, and 'b' is the Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC).


The MPC is the change in consumption resulting from a one-unit change in income, i.e., \(MPC = \Delta C / \Delta Y\).


In the equation of a line, \(y = mx + c\), 'm' represents the slope.


By comparing the consumption function \(C = bY + a\) to the general equation of a line, it is clear that 'b' (the MPC) represents the slope of the consumption function.
Quick Tip: Similarly, the Marginal Propensity to Save (MPS) is the slope of the saving function. A key relationship to remember is that MPC + MPS = 1.


Question 5:

Suppose, the consumption function is given as :

C = 205 + 0.9 Y (where C = Total Consumption and Y = National Income)

The value of Investment Multiplier (K) would be ____________________________.

  • (A) 0.09
  • (B) 10.0
  • (C) 0.9
  • (D) 9.0
Correct Answer: (B) 10.0
View Solution



The given consumption function is \(C = 205 + 0.9 Y\).


From this equation, we can identify the Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC), which is the coefficient of Y.


So, MPC = 0.9.


The formula for the investment multiplier (K) is \(K = \frac{1}{1 - MPC}\).


Now, we substitute the value of MPC into the formula:

\(K = \frac{1}{1 - 0.9}\)

\(K = \frac{1}{0.1}\)

\(K = 10.0\)


Thus, the value of the investment multiplier is 10.0.
Quick Tip: The investment multiplier can also be calculated using the Marginal Propensity to Save (MPS), where \(K = 1/MPS\). In this case, \(MPS = 1 - MPC = 1 - 0.9 = 0.1\), so \(K = 1/0.1 = 10\).


Question 6:

Commercial banks are regarded as money creators because :

  • (A) they purchase securities from the Central Bank.
  • (B) loans provided by them create deposits.
  • (C) they act as a banker to the government.
  • (D) they regulate the lending rate in the economy.
Correct Answer: (B) loans provided by them create deposits.
View Solution



Commercial banks create money through the process of credit creation.


When a commercial bank grants a loan to a borrower, it does not provide the loan in cash.


Instead, the bank opens a deposit account in the name of the borrower and credits the loan amount to this account.


This newly created deposit is a part of the money supply (as demand deposits are a component of M1 money supply).


Since the act of lending directly results in the creation of a new deposit, it is said that "loans create deposits," which is the mechanism of money creation.
Quick Tip: The amount of money commercial banks can create is limited by the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) set by the Central Bank. The total money creation is determined by the money multiplier, which is the reciprocal of the CRR (1/CRR).


Question 7:

Read the following statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R) carefully. Choose the correct option from those given below :

Assertion (A): Shipping service provided by an Indian company to foreign companies will be recorded in current account of Balance of Payments (BOP).

Reason (R) : Current account of Balance of Payments (BOP) does not alter the status of the asset or liabilities of the residents of India.

  • (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  • (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  • (C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  • (D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Correct Answer: (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
View Solution



Let's evaluate the Assertion (A). Shipping services provided to foreigners is an export of a service. Exports of goods and services are recorded on the credit side of the Current Account of the BOP. Therefore, Assertion (A) is true.


Now let's evaluate the Reason (R). The current account records transactions related to the export and import of goods and services, and unilateral transfers. These are flow transactions that do not create or liquidate foreign assets or liabilities for the country's residents. Transactions that alter asset/liability status are recorded in the capital account. Therefore, Reason (R) is also true.


However, Reason (R) is a general definition of the current account. It does not specifically explain why shipping services, in particular, are included. The correct explanation for Assertion (A) would be that shipping is a type of service export. Since both statements are independently true but (R) does not explain (A), option (B) is the correct choice.
Quick Tip: Remember the key distinction: The Current Account deals with the trade of goods, services, and transfers (flows), while the Capital Account deals with transactions in financial assets and liabilities (changes in stock).


Question 8:

_________________ releases data of money supply in India.

  • (A) Corporation Bank
  • (B) Reserve Bank of India
  • (C) Commercial Banks
  • (D) State Bank of India
Correct Answer: (B) Reserve Bank of India
View Solution



The central bank of a country is typically responsible for managing and regulating the money supply.


In India, the central bank is the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).


The RBI is the sole authority for issuing currency and also for compiling, publishing, and analyzing data on the money supply and its various components (like M1, M2, M3, M4).


Therefore, the Reserve Bank of India is the institution that releases data on the money supply in India.
Quick Tip: The RBI publishes data on money supply fortnightly in its publication, the 'RBI Bulletin'. This data is crucial for economists and policymakers to monitor the health of the economy.


Question 9:

Using the given information, complete the following table :


  • (A) 125, 100
  • (B) 125, 110
  • (C) 6.5, 125
  • (D) 100, 6.5
Correct Answer: (C) 6.5, 125
View Solution



The relationship between Nominal GDP, Real GDP, and the GDP deflator is given by the formula:
\(GDP \ Deflator = (\frac{Nominal \ GDP}{Real \ GDP}) \times 100\).


First, let's find the value for (i) Real GDP for 2014-2015.

We rearrange the formula: \(Real \ GDP = (\frac{Nominal \ GDP}{GDP \ Deflator}) \times 100\).

Given: Nominal GDP = 6.5, GDP Deflator = 100.
\(Real \ GDP (i) = (\frac{6.5}{100}) \times 100 = 6.5\).


Next, let's find the value for (ii) GDP deflator for 2016-2017.

Given: Nominal GDP = 9, Real GDP = 7.2.
\(GDP \ Deflator (ii) = (\frac{9}{7.2}) \times 100\).
\(GDP \ Deflator (ii) = (\frac{90}{72}) \times 100 = (\frac{5 \times 18}{4 \times 18}) \times 100 = \frac{5}{4} \times 100\).
\(GDP \ Deflator (ii) = 1.25 \times 100 = 125\).


The completed values are (i) = 6.5 and (ii) = 125. This corresponds to option (C).
Quick Tip: The base year is the year where the GDP deflator is 100. In this case, 2014-2015 is the base year, which is why Nominal GDP and Real GDP are equal for that year.


Question 10:

Read the following statements carefully :

Statement 1 : Keeping other things constant, there exists positive correlation between the price of foreign exchange and its demand.

Statement 2 : The foreign exchange rate indicates a country's purchasing power in international markets.

  • (A) Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
  • (B) Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
  • (C) Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
  • (D) Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.
Correct Answer: (B) Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
View Solution



Let's analyze Statement 1. The price of foreign exchange is the exchange rate. For example, the price of a US dollar in terms of Indian rupees (Rs/
(). When the price of the US dollar rises (e.g., from Rs 80 to Rs 85), US goods become more expensive for Indians. According to the law of demand, this will lead to a decrease in the quantity demanded of US dollars by Indians. Therefore, there is a negative correlation, not a positive one. So, Statement 1 is false.


Now let's analyze Statement 2. The foreign exchange rate determines how many units of a foreign currency can be purchased with one unit of the domestic currency (or vice versa). A stronger domestic currency (lower exchange rate) means that residents can buy more foreign goods and services, indicating higher purchasing power in international markets. Thus, the exchange rate is an indicator of a country's international purchasing power. So, Statement 2 is true.


Since Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true, the correct option is (B).
Quick Tip: The demand curve for foreign exchange is downward sloping, just like a typical demand curve. This reflects the inverse relationship between the price of the foreign currency (the exchange rate) and the quantity demanded.


Question 11:

State and explain any two precautions that must be taken while estimating national income by expenditure method.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Two important precautions to be taken while estimating national income using the expenditure method are:


1. Avoid Double Counting: Expenditure on intermediate goods and services must not be included. Only expenditure on final goods and services should be taken into account. For example, the value of flour used by a baker is an intermediate cost and should not be added separately if the final value of bread is already included, as this would lead to an overestimation of national income.


2. Exclude Transfer Payments: Transfer payments are payments made without any corresponding exchange of goods or services, such as old-age pensions, unemployment allowances, and scholarships. These are not included in the national income because they do not contribute to the current flow of goods and services and are merely a transfer of income from one group to another (e.g., from the government to individuals).
Quick Tip: Remember to exclude expenditure on second-hand goods as they were already counted in the year of their original production. However, any commission or brokerage paid on the sale of such goods should be included as it represents a payment for a current service.


Question 12:

Calculate the value of ‘Sales' from the following data :


Correct Answer: Sales = ₹ 5,000 lakh.
View Solution



We can find the value of Sales by using the relationship between Net Value Added at Factor Cost (\(NVA_{FC}\)) and Gross Value Added at Market Price (\(GVA_{MP}\)).


First, let's calculate \(GVA_{MP}\) from \(NVA_{FC}\).
\(GVA_{MP}\) = \(NVA_{FC}\) + Consumption of fixed capital + Net Indirect Taxes (NIT)


Net Indirect Taxes (NIT) = Indirect Taxes - Subsidies. Assuming Indirect Taxes are zero, NIT = 0 - 300 = -300 lakh.

\(GVA_{MP}\) = 2,200 + 600 + (-300) = 2,800 - 300 = ₹ 2,500 lakh.


Now, we use the formula for \(GVA_{MP}\) from the output side:
\(GVA_{MP}\) = Value of Output - Intermediate Consumption


Value of Output = Sales + Change in Stock


Change in Stock = Closing Stock - Opening Stock = 520 - 120 = ₹ 400 lakh.


So, \(GVA_{MP}\) = (Sales + Change in Stock) - Intermediate Consumption


2,500 = (Sales + 400) - 2,900


2,500 = Sales - 2,500


Sales = 2,500 + 2,500 = ₹ 5,000 lakh.
Quick Tip: Note that some data points like Operating Surplus and Profits are not needed for this calculation and are included as distractors. Always identify the required formula first to see which data you need.


Question 13:

Identify and explain any one function of Central Bank as indicated in the image given below :



Correct Answer:
View Solution



One function of the Reserve Bank of India (Central Bank) indicated in the image is the 'Issuer of Currency'.


Explanation: The image shows currency notes originating from the Reserve Bank of India. The Central Bank of a country has the sole authority to issue currency notes. In India, the Reserve Bank of India is responsible for the design, printing, and distribution of currency notes. This function is also known as the 'Bank of Issue'. It helps in maintaining uniformity in the nation's currency and gives the central bank control over the money supply. One-rupee notes and coins are issued by the Ministry of Finance, but they are put into circulation by the RBI.
Quick Tip: Other functions depicted in the image are Banker to the Government (represented by the government building), Custodian of Foreign Exchange (represented by the Yen symbol), and Banker's Bank (represented by the bank building).


Question 14:

"In an economy ex-ante investment (I) is less than ex-post savings (S)." Explain the likely impact of the given situation on output, employment and income.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Assuming the statement refers to a situation where ex-ante (planned) investment is less than ex-ante (planned) savings, i.e., I < S.


1. Aggregate Demand and Supply: Planned Savings (S) being greater than Planned Investment (I) implies that households are planning to save more than what firms are planning to invest. This means that planned consumption expenditure (C) plus planned investment expenditure (I) is less than the total output (Y or C+S). In other words, Aggregate Demand (AD = C+I) is less than Aggregate Supply (AS = Y).


2. Impact on Inventory: When AD is less than AS, some of the goods produced will remain unsold. This leads to an unplanned accumulation of inventories (unsold stock) with the producers.


3. Impact on Output and Employment: To clear the unwanted increase in inventory, firms will cut back on production in the subsequent period. A reduction in production will lead to a decrease in the demand for labor, causing a fall in employment.


4. Impact on Income: The fall in production and employment will lead to a decrease in the overall income levels in the economy. This process of falling output, employment, and income will continue until the economy reaches a new equilibrium where planned savings once again equal planned investment (S=I) at a lower level of income.
Quick Tip: Remember the equilibrium condition in a two-sector economy: Planned Savings (S) must equal Planned Investment (I). Any deviation from this (S > I or S < I) sets in motion an adjustment process that brings the economy back to equilibrium.


Question 15:

Define deficient demand.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Deficient demand refers to a situation in an economy where the aggregate demand (the total planned expenditure) for goods and services is less than the aggregate supply (the total output) corresponding to the full employment level.


In other words, it is the amount by which the actual aggregate demand falls short of the aggregate demand required to maintain the full employment level of equilibrium.


This gap is also known as a deflationary gap because it leads to deflationary pressures in the economy, such as falling prices and output.
Quick Tip: Visually, on the Keynesian cross diagram, the deflationary gap is the vertical distance between the full employment level of aggregate supply (on the 45-degree line) and the actual aggregate demand curve at that level of income.


Question 16:

"Margin requirements are extremely helpful in correcting the situation of deflationary gap in an economy". Justify the given statement with valid arguments.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



The statement is correct. Margin requirements are a potent tool of monetary policy to combat a deflationary gap.


1. Meaning of Deflationary Gap: A deflationary gap (or deficient demand) is a situation where Aggregate Demand is lower than Aggregate Supply at the full employment level. To correct this, there is a need to increase the level of aggregate demand in the economy.


2. What is Margin Requirement?: Margin requirement refers to the difference between the market value of the security offered for a loan and the amount of the loan granted by the commercial bank. For example, if the margin requirement is 20%, a bank will grant a loan of only ₹80 against a security worth ₹100.


3. How it Corrects Deflationary Gap: To increase aggregate demand, the Central Bank needs to encourage borrowing and spending. It can do this by reducing the margin requirement.


4. Mechanism: When the Central Bank lowers the margin requirement (say from 20% to 10%), it increases the borrowing capacity of the people. With a 10% margin, a person can now get a loan of ₹90 against the same security worth ₹100. This encourages more people to take loans for consumption and investment purposes. The increased credit availability leads to a rise in consumption and investment expenditure, which in turn increases Aggregate Demand, helping to correct the deflationary gap.
Quick Tip: To fight an inflationary gap (excess demand), the Central Bank does the opposite: it \textit{increases the margin requirement to discourage borrowing and reduce aggregate demand.


Question 17:

Distinguish between Balance of Payments and Balance of Trade.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



\begin{tabularx{\textwidth{|l|X|X|
\hline
Basis & Balance of Trade (BOT) & Balance of Payments (BOP)

\hline
Meaning & It is a statement that records the exports and imports of only physical goods (visible items) of a country with the rest of the world. & It is a systematic record of all economic transactions (both visible and invisible items) between the residents of a country and the rest of the world.

\hline
Scope & It has a narrow scope as it is only a part of the Current Account of the BOP. & It has a very wide scope as it includes the Balance of Trade, Balance of Invisibles, and the Capital Account.

\hline
Concept & It does not always present a complete picture of a country's economic position with the rest of the world. & It presents a complete and true picture of a country's economic transactions with the rest of the world.

\hline
Balance & The Balance of Trade can be favorable (surplus), unfavorable (deficit), or balanced. & The Balance of Payments, in an accounting sense, always balances (Total Credits = Total Debits).

\hline
\end{tabularx
Quick Tip: Think of it like this: BOP is the complete financial statement of a country's international transactions, while BOT is just one line item in that statement (specifically, the part about physical goods).


Question 18:

Define Current Account Surplus.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



A Current Account Surplus refers to a situation where the total receipts on the current account of the Balance of Payments are greater than the total payments on the current account.


In other words, a surplus occurs when the inflow of foreign exchange from the export of goods and services and unilateral transfers received is more than the outflow of foreign exchange from the import of goods and services and unilateral transfers paid.


Current Account Surplus = (Credit items in Current Account) > (Debit items in Current Account).


This signifies that the nation is a net lender to the rest of the world.
Quick Tip: A current account surplus must be balanced by a deficit in the capital and financial account, which means the country is exporting capital (e.g., investing or lending abroad).


Question 19:

Using suitable example, distinguish between Foreign Direct Investments (FDI) and Foreign Institutional Investments (FII).

Correct Answer:
View Solution



\begin{tabularx{\textwidth{|l|X|X|
\hline
Basis & Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) & Foreign Institutional Investment (FII)

\hline
Meaning & It is an investment in physical assets of a foreign country, giving the investor a substantial degree of influence and control over the enterprise. & It is an investment in financial assets (like stocks and bonds) of a foreign country, without any direct control over the company.

\hline
Objective & The main aim is long-term business interest, such as production, marketing, and exercising management control. & The main aim is to earn short-term financial returns. It is often speculative in nature.

\hline
Stability & It is a stable and long-term investment, as it is difficult to liquidate physical assets quickly. & It is a highly volatile and short-term investment, as financial assets can be bought and sold easily. It is often called 'hot money'.

\hline
Example & When a foreign company like Samsung sets up a manufacturing plant in India, it is an example of FDI. & When a foreign pension fund or mutual fund buys shares of an Indian company like Reliance on the stock exchange, it is an example of FII.

\hline
\end{tabularx
Quick Tip: The key difference is 'control'. FDI involves a long-term interest and control over the foreign enterprise, while FII is a passive investment just for earning returns.


Question 20:

State one example of External Assistance as a component of capital account.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



External Assistance refers to financial aid or loans received by a country from foreign governments or international financial institutions. These transactions are recorded in the capital account of the Balance of Payments.


An example of external assistance is:


A concessional (low-interest) loan received by the Government of India from the World Bank to fund a major infrastructure project like the construction of a new highway or a metro rail system.


This transaction represents an inflow of foreign capital and is recorded as a credit item in the capital account of India's BOP.
Quick Tip: External assistance can be bilateral (from another country) or multilateral (from an international organization like the IMF or World Bank). It is different from commercial borrowings which are at market rates of interest.


Question 21:

"Domestic income is always less than national income." Do you agree with the given statement ? Support your answer with valid arguments.

Correct Answer: No, the statement is not correct.
View Solution



No, I do not agree with the statement that "Domestic income is always less than national income."


Argument:

The relationship between Domestic Income (Net Domestic Product at Factor Cost, \(NDP_{FC}\)) and National Income (Net National Product at Factor Cost, \(NNP_{FC}\)) is determined by Net Factor Income from Abroad (NFIA).


The formula is: National Income = Domestic Income + NFIA.


NFIA is the difference between the factor income earned by our residents from abroad and the factor income earned by non-residents within our country.


The relationship depends on the value of NFIA, which can be positive, negative, or zero:



Case 1: If NFIA is positive, then National Income will be greater than Domestic Income. (National Income > Domestic Income)
Case 2: If NFIA is negative, then National Income will be less than Domestic Income. (National Income < Domestic Income). This is often the case for developing countries like India.
Case 3: If NFIA is zero, then National Income will be equal to Domestic Income. (National Income = Domestic Income)


Since NFIA can be negative or zero, it is incorrect to state that domestic income is \textit{always less than national income.
Quick Tip: Remember that for many developing nations, the factor income paid to foreigners (e.g., profits of MNCs) is often greater than the factor income received from abroad, resulting in a negative NFIA.


Question 22:

Distinguish between positive externalities and negative externalities with suitable examples.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



An externality occurs when the activity of one individual or firm has an impact on a third party who is not involved in that activity, and this impact is not reflected in market prices.


\begin{tabularx{\textwidth{|l|X|X|
\hline
Basis & Positive Externality & Negative Externality

\hline
Meaning & It refers to the benefits that are received by a third party from an economic activity, for which they do not pay. The social benefit of the activity is greater than the private benefit. & It refers to the harm or cost that is imposed on a third party by an economic activity, for which they are not compensated. The social cost of the activity is greater than the private cost.

\hline
Impact & It has a positive or favorable impact on others. It increases welfare. & It has a negative or unfavorable impact on others. It reduces welfare.

\hline
Example & A person maintaining a beautiful garden provides pleasure to neighbors and passersby without being paid for it. Another example is education, which benefits not just the individual but society as a whole through a more productive and informed citizenry. & A factory that emits smoke into the air pollutes the environment and causes health problems for nearby residents. The factory imposes a cost on society for which it does not pay. Another example is traffic congestion caused by an individual choosing to drive.

\hline
\end{tabularx
Quick Tip: GDP fails to account for externalities. For instance, the output of a polluting factory is added to GDP, but the negative externality (environmental damage) is not subtracted, leading to an overestimation of social welfare.


Question 23:

"In a two-sector economy, consumption expenditure by households is always equal to aggregate expenditure on goods and services produced by the firms." Do you agree with the given statement ? Support your answer with valid explanation.

Correct Answer: No, the statement is not correct.
View Solution



No, I do not agree with the given statement.


Explanation:

1. Composition of Aggregate Expenditure: In a two-sector economy (consisting of only households and firms), Aggregate Expenditure (AE) is the total planned spending on goods and services. It comprises two components:

Consumption Expenditure (C) by households.
Investment Expenditure (I) by firms.

So, the correct equation is: AE = C + I.


2. Fallacy in the Statement: The statement claims that aggregate expenditure is always equal to consumption expenditure (AE = C). This would only be true if Investment Expenditure (I) were always zero.


3. Role of Investment: Investment is a crucial component of aggregate expenditure. Firms spend on capital goods like machinery, equipment, and buildings to increase their production capacity. This spending creates demand for goods and services in the economy.


4. Conclusion: Since firms undertake investment expenditure (I > 0), aggregate expenditure (C + I) is always greater than just consumption expenditure (C). Therefore, the statement is incorrect.
Quick Tip: Aggregate expenditure represents the total demand in the economy. In a simple two-sector model, both households (through consumption) and firms (through investment) contribute to this total demand.


Question 24:

"Problem of Double Counting leads to overestimation of output in an economy." Justify the given statement with the help of suitable example.

Correct Answer: The statement is correct.
View Solution



The given statement is absolutely correct. The problem of double counting leads to an overestimation of the national income or output of an economy.


Justification:

1. Meaning of Double Counting: Double counting is the error of counting the value of a single commodity more than once while calculating national income. This happens when the value of intermediate goods is counted along with the value of the final good.


2. Example:

Suppose a farmer produces wheat and sells it to a flour mill for ₹500. This is the value of the farmer's output.
The flour mill grinds the wheat into flour and sells it to a baker for ₹700. The value added by the mill is ₹200 (₹700 - ₹500).
The baker bakes bread from the flour and sells it to the final consumer for ₹1,000. The value added by the baker is ₹300 (₹1,000 - ₹700).


3. Impact of Double Counting: If we were to simply sum up the value of sales at each stage (₹500 + ₹700 + ₹1,000 = ₹2,200), we would be committing the error of double counting. The value of wheat (₹500) is counted three times, and the value of flour (₹700) is counted twice. This total of ₹2,200 is an inflated and incorrect measure of the total output.


4. Correct Method and Conclusion: The correct value of the output is the value of the final good only (bread, worth ₹1,000) or the sum of the value added at each stage (₹500 + ₹200 + ₹300 = ₹1,000). By including the value of intermediate goods, double counting leads to a significant overestimation of the economy's output.
Quick Tip: To avoid double counting, economists use two methods: the Final Output Method (counting only the value of final goods) or the Value Added Method (summing up the value added at each stage of production).


Question 25:

"MSMEs play a pivotal role in the India's journey of development". Do you agree with the given statement ?” Give valid reason in support of your answer.

Correct Answer: Yes, the statement is correct.
View Solution



Yes, I completely agree with the statement that Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) play a pivotal role in India's journey of development.


Reasons based on the provided text and common understanding:

1. Engine of Growth: The text explicitly recognizes the role of MSMEs as one of the "key engines in India's journey of development," alongside crucial sectors like agriculture, investment, and exports. This highlights their importance in driving the overall economic growth of the country.


2. Contribution to Industrial Sector: MSMEs are described as a "vital contributor to India's industrial landscape." They play a significant role in the manufacturing sector, contributing to the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) and promoting industrialization, especially in rural and backward areas.


3. Employment Generation: The passage states that the MSME sector plays a "crucial role in... employment generation." Being a labor-intensive sector, MSMEs are the second-largest employer in India after agriculture. They provide livelihoods to millions of people, thereby helping to reduce unemployment and poverty.


4. Role in Exports: The text also mentions the crucial role of MSMEs in exports. They contribute a significant share to India's total exports, helping the country earn valuable foreign exchange and improving its balance of payments position.
Quick Tip: When answering questions based on a given text, always try to quote or paraphrase key phrases from the text itself to build a strong, evidence-based argument.


Question 26:

Explain key measures initiated by the Government for strengthening MSMEs.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



The government has initiated several key measures to strengthen and empower MSMEs, as mentioned in the text:


1. Udyam Registration Portal: This is a single-page online registration system that has simplified the process for MSMEs to get registered. A registered MSME can avail of various benefits of government schemes, such as priority sector lending, access to government tenders, and tax exemptions.


2. PM Vishwakarma Scheme: This scheme is aimed at providing end-to-end support to traditional artisans and craftspeople (Vishwakarmas). It includes skill upgradation, toolkit incentives, credit support, and marketing support to help them integrate with the MSME value chain.


3. PMEGP (Prime Minister's Employment Generation Programme): This is a major credit-linked subsidy program aimed at generating self-employment opportunities through the establishment of micro-enterprises in the non-farm sector. It provides financial assistance to set up new ventures.


4. SFURTI (Scheme of Fund for Regeneration of Traditional Industries): This scheme aims to organize traditional industries and artisans into clusters to make them competitive and provide support for their long-term sustainability. It focuses on improving their skills, technology, and market access.


5. Public Procurement Policy: This policy mandates that central government ministries, departments, and public sector undertakings must procure a certain percentage of their total annual purchases from MSMEs. This provides a ready and assured market for their products and services.
Quick Tip: These government initiatives aim to tackle the major challenges faced by MSMEs, such as access to credit, technology, skills, and markets, thereby fostering their growth and competitiveness.


Question 27:

Suppose the percentage of casual workers rises in an economy as compared to the regular workers. This situation may be known as ________________ of workforce.

  • (A) (i) and (ii)
  • (B) (ii) and (iii)
  • (C) only (ii)
  • (D) only (i)
Correct Answer: (C) only (ii)
View Solution



Let's analyze the terms provided:


(i) Formalisation: This refers to the process where the share of the formal or organized sector in the total workforce increases. This is the opposite of the situation described.


(ii) Casualisation: This refers to the process where the percentage of casually hired workers in the total workforce tends to rise over time. Casual workers do not have regular jobs or social security benefits. The situation described in the question is the exact definition of casualisation.


(iii) Unemployment: This refers to a situation where people who are able and willing to work at the prevailing wage rate cannot find jobs. While casualisation may be linked to employment issues, it is a specific trend in the nature of employment, not unemployment itself.


Therefore, the rise in the percentage of casual workers is known as casualisation of the workforce. The correct option is (C), which corresponds to only (ii).
Quick Tip: Casualisation and Informalisation are related concepts often seen in developing economies. Informalisation is a broader term referring to the increase in the share of the informal sector, while casualisation specifically points to the shift from salaried jobs to casual wage work.


Question 28:

Outsourcing from India has become more intensified in recent times due to the expansion of the ____________________ sector.

  • (A) Agriculture
  • (B) Manufacturing
  • (C) Information Technology
  • (D) Construction
Correct Answer: (C) Information Technology
View Solution



Outsourcing is the business practice of hiring a party outside a company to perform services or create goods that were traditionally performed in-house.


India has become a global hub for outsourcing, particularly for business process outsourcing (BPO) and knowledge process outsourcing (KPO).


This boom in outsourcing is overwhelmingly driven by the rapid expansion and growth of India's Information Technology (IT) and IT-enabled Services (ITeS) sector.


The availability of a large, skilled, English-speaking workforce at competitive costs, coupled with advanced IT infrastructure, has made the Information Technology sector the primary driver of intensified outsourcing from India.
Quick Tip: Key services outsourced to India include customer support, technical support, software development, medical transcription, and financial analysis, all of which are heavily reliant on the IT sector.


Question 29:

______________ is one of the demographic indicators in which Pakistan is ahead of India and China.

  • (A) Urbanisation
  • (B) Fertility rate
  • (C) Population density
  • (D) Sex ratio
Correct Answer: (B) Fertility rate
View Solution



Let's analyze the demographic indicators for the three countries:


(A) Urbanisation: China has the highest percentage of its population living in urban areas (over 60%). Pakistan's urban population (~37%) is slightly higher than India's (~35%), but it is not ahead of China.


(B) Fertility Rate: The total fertility rate (average number of children born per woman) in Pakistan (around 3.5) is significantly higher than in India (around 2.0) and China (around 1.7). In this context, "ahead" refers to having a higher value for the indicator, not necessarily a better developmental outcome.


(C) Population Density: India has the highest population density among the three, followed by Pakistan and then China. So Pakistan is not ahead.


(D) Sex Ratio: The sex ratio (females per 1000 males) in India and Pakistan are comparable and both face challenges, while China's is generally considered lower due to the long-term effects of its one-child policy. However, the most distinct and widely cited indicator where Pakistan's value is substantially higher than both India and China is the fertility rate.


Therefore, based on having a significantly higher value, the fertility rate is the correct answer.
Quick Tip: When comparing countries on demographic indicators, pay attention to the exact wording. "Ahead" can be ambiguous. It might mean 'better' (e.g., higher life expectancy) or simply 'a higher number' (e.g., higher fertility rate). Context is key.


Question 30:

Under ___________________ unemployment the marginal productivity of a worker is equal to zero.

  • (A) Seasonal
  • (B) Structural
  • (C) Involuntary
  • (D) Disguised
Correct Answer: (D) Disguised
View Solution



This question asks for the type of unemployment characterized by zero marginal productivity.


Disguised Unemployment: This is a situation where more people are employed in a job than are actually required. Even if some workers are withdrawn from the job, the total production does not fall. This implies that the contribution of these extra workers to the total output, i.e., their marginal productivity, is zero or even negative.


This is the classic definition of disguised unemployment, often found in the agricultural sector of developing countries.


The other options are incorrect:

Seasonal Unemployment: Occurs during certain seasons of the year. Workers are productive when they are employed.

Structural Unemployment: Arises from a mismatch between the skills of workers and the skills demanded by employers. Workers are not unemployed because their productivity is zero.

Involuntary Unemployment: Refers to a situation where a person is willing and able to work but cannot find a job. It doesn't specify anything about their potential productivity.
Quick Tip: Think of disguised unemployment as 'hidden' unemployment. The person appears to be employed, but their contribution to output is nil. If they were to move to another job, the original production would not suffer.


Question 31:

Recently, India hosted and chaired the summit of ________________ one of the regional and economic groupings.

  • (A) SAARC
  • (B) G8
  • (C) ASEAN
  • (D) G20
Correct Answer: (D) G20
View Solution



This question refers to a major international summit hosted by India.


In 2023, India held the presidency of the G20 (Group of Twenty) and hosted the G20 Leaders' Summit in New Delhi. This was a significant event in international diplomacy and economics.


Let's look at the other options:

(A) SAARC: The last SAARC summit was held in 2014. The grouping has been largely inactive.

(B) G8: India is not a member of the G8 (which is now the G7).

(C) ASEAN: India is a dialogue partner of ASEAN but not a member and does not chair its main summit.


Therefore, the only correct option reflecting a recent major summit chaired by India is the G20.
Quick Tip: Keeping up with current affairs is essential for economics, as questions are often based on recent economic and geopolitical events involving India. The G20 Presidency was a landmark event for India.


Question 32:

Modernization is an important economic planning objective that focuses on _______________.

(i) Adoption of innovative technology

(ii) Bringing positive change in social outlook

(iii) Equal distribution of income and wealth

(iv) Abolition of intermediaries

Options:

  • (A) (i) and (iv)
  • (B) (i) and (iii)
  • (C) (i), (iii) and (iv)
  • (D) (i) and (ii)
Correct Answer: (D) (i) and (ii)
View Solution



Modernization as an objective of economic planning has two main dimensions:


1. Technological Modernization: This refers to the adoption of new and advanced technology in the process of production to increase output and productivity. This corresponds to statement (i).


2. Social Modernization: This refers to a change in the social outlook of the people. It includes aspects like gender empowerment, moving away from traditional and fatalistic beliefs, and adopting a more rational and scientific approach. This corresponds to statement (ii).


The other statements relate to different objectives of planning:

(iii) Equal distribution of income and wealth: This relates to the objective of 'Equity'.

(iv) Abolition of intermediaries: This was a part of land reforms, which also aimed at achieving 'Equity'.


Therefore, modernization focuses on both the adoption of new technology and a change in social outlook. The correct option is (D).
Quick Tip: The main goals of India's Five-Year Plans were often summarized as: Growth, Modernization, Self-Reliance, and Equity. It's important to understand the specific meaning of each of these objectives.


Question 33:

Read the following statements carefully :

Statement 1: In order to address the problem of water and air pollution in India, the Government of India had established the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB).

Statement 2 : Deforestation leads to the permanent destruction of indigenous forests.

In the light of the given statements, choose the correct option from the following:

  • (A) Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
  • (B) Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
  • (C) Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
  • (D) Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.
Correct Answer: (C) Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.
View Solution



Let's evaluate each statement:


Statement 1: The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) is a statutory organization that was constituted in September 1974 under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974. It was later entrusted with powers and functions under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981. Its primary role is to promote the cleanliness of streams and wells and to prevent, control, and abate water and air pollution. Therefore, Statement 1 is true.


Statement 2: Deforestation is the clearing of a wide area of trees. Indigenous forests are those that are native to a region. When deforestation occurs on a large scale without adequate afforestation or regeneration efforts, it can lead to the permanent loss of these native forest ecosystems, including their unique biodiversity. Therefore, Statement 2 is also true.


Since both statements are true, the correct option is (C).
Quick Tip: Environmental issues are an important part of the Indian Economic Development syllabus. Remember key institutions like the CPCB and major environmental challenges like deforestation, pollution, and their economic consequences.


Question 34:

Identify, the incorrect feature associated with the formal sector of employment in any economy.

  • (A) Job security
  • (B) Social security benefits
  • (C) Irregular payments
  • (D) Fixed working hours
Correct Answer: (C) Irregular payments
View Solution



The formal (or organized) sector of employment is characterized by regular terms of employment, adherence to labor laws, and social security provisions. Let's analyze the options:


(A) Job security: Workers in the formal sector typically have contracts and protection against arbitrary dismissal. This is a feature of the formal sector.


(B) Social security benefits: Employees in the formal sector are entitled to benefits like provident fund, pension, health insurance, etc. This is a feature of the formal sector.


(C) Irregular payments: This is a characteristic of the informal (unorganized) sector, where wages can be inconsistent, delayed, or paid on a daily/piece-rate basis. Formal sector jobs are characterized by regular and timely salary payments. This is \textit{not a feature of the formal sector.


(D) Fixed working hours: The formal sector operates with specified work timings and provisions for overtime pay as per labor laws. This is a feature of the formal sector.


The question asks for the \textit{incorrect feature, which is the one not associated with the formal sector. Therefore, 'Irregular payments' is the correct answer.
Quick Tip: To differentiate between the formal and informal sectors, think about a government office worker (formal) versus a daily wage construction laborer (informal). The differences in job security, benefits, and payment regularity become very clear.


Question 35:

Prime beneficiary of the Minimum Support Price (MSP) fixed by the government is ________________.

  • (A) Labourer
  • (B) Consumer
  • (C) Trader (Buyer)
  • (D) Farmer
Correct Answer: (D) Farmer
View Solution



Minimum Support Price (MSP) is a form of market intervention by the Government of India to insure agricultural producers against any sharp fall in farm prices.


The government announces MSP for certain crops before the sowing season.


If the market price for the commodity falls below the announced minimum price, the government agencies will purchase the entire quantity offered by the farmers at the announced MSP.


This provides a price floor or a guarantee of a minimum profit for the producers.


Therefore, the prime and direct beneficiary of the MSP is the farmer, who is protected from price volatility and distress sales.
Quick Tip: While MSP benefits farmers, it can have a negative impact on consumers if it leads to higher food prices in the market. Traders also benefit from the system, but the policy is designed primarily for the welfare of farmers.


Question 36:

Identify, which of the following is not a feature of physical capital.

(i) Tangibility

(ii) Tradability

(iii) Immobility

Options :

  • (A) (i) and (ii)
  • (B) (ii) and (iii)
  • (C) (i) and (iii)
  • (D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Correct Answer: (B) (ii) and (iii)
View Solution



This question is considered to be poorly framed, as the options do not align well with standard economic definitions. However, a logical path to the intended answer can be constructed by interpreting the terms in a specific context.


Let's analyze the statements in the context of what is NOT a universal or defining feature of all physical capital.


(i) Tangibility: Physical capital, by its very nature (machinery, buildings, equipment), is tangible. It has a physical existence. Thus, tangibility IS a feature.


(ii) Tradability: This means the capital can be bought and sold in a market. While many capital goods are tradable, some large, specific-use infrastructure (like a custom-built factory or a public dam) may not have an easy or active market, making tradability not a perfectly universal feature. However, it is generally considered a key feature that distinguishes it from human capital.


(iii) Immobility: This means the capital cannot be moved. While some capital like buildings and infrastructure is immobile, a vast amount of capital like vehicles, tools, and machinery is mobile. Therefore, 'immobility' is certainly NOT a universal feature of all physical capital.


The question asks what is NOT a feature. The most definitively correct answer among the statements is (iii) Immobility, as it is not a universal characteristic. The feature of 'Tradability' (ii) is also not perfectly universal, though it is a more defining characteristic than immobility. The provided answer key points to option (B), which includes both (ii) and (iii). The logic implies that both tradability and immobility are considered 'not a feature' in the universal sense for all types of physical capital.
Quick Tip: When comparing physical and human capital, the key distinctions are: Physical capital is tangible and tradable (separable from its owner), while human capital is intangible and not tradable (inseparable from its owner).


Question 37:

Some economists argue that : "Post-1991 economic reforms, globalisation played a major role in poor performance of the industrial sector." Present your arguments to justify the given statement.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



The statement can be justified with the following arguments:


1. Increased Competition from Imports: Globalisation led to the removal of import tariffs and quantitative restrictions. This exposed Indian domestic industries to stiff competition from cheaper and often better-quality imported goods produced by multinational corporations. Many Indian firms, particularly in the small-scale sector, found it difficult to compete and had to shut down.


2. Lack of a Level Playing Field: Indian industries were at a disadvantage due to inadequate infrastructure (e.g., unreliable power supply, poor roads) and higher costs of credit compared to their foreign competitors. This made it difficult for them to match the price and efficiency of foreign firms.


3. Adverse Impact on Small-Scale Industries: The policy of reserving certain products for the small-scale industries (SSI) was phased out. This, combined with increased competition from imports and large domestic players, adversely affected the growth and viability of many SSIs, which are a crucial part of the industrial sector.


4. Inadequate Export Promotion: While globalisation was expected to boost exports, Indian exporters often faced non-tariff barriers, such as stringent quality standards (sanitary and phytosanitary measures) in developed countries, which restricted their market access and performance.
Quick Tip: When evaluating economic reforms, it's important to consider both the positive and negative impacts. While globalisation had some negative effects on certain industries, it also brought benefits like access to technology, foreign capital, and new markets.


Question 38:

"Many economists believe that India paid a very heavy price for the British industrialisation, by becoming their feeder economy." Justify the given statement with any one valid argument.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



The statement is correct. India was systematically transformed into a feeder economy to serve the interests of Britain's industries, a process that led to the de-industrialization of India.


Argument: Transformation into a Supplier of Raw Materials and a Market for Finished Goods


The British colonial policies were designed to benefit the industries that were rapidly growing in Britain during the Industrial Revolution. They did this in two ways:


First, they turned India into a source of cheap raw materials. Indian farmers were forced to produce primary commodities like raw cotton, jute, indigo, and food grains, which were needed by British factories. These raw materials were exported from India to Britain at low prices.


Second, they converted India into a captive market for the finished goods produced in British factories. Discriminatory tariff policies were implemented where British machine-made goods, especially textiles, were imported into India with zero or nominal tariffs. In contrast, heavy export duties were placed on Indian handicraft products, making them uncompetitive in the international market. This dual policy destroyed India's world-renowned handicraft and textile industries, leading to mass unemployment and making India dependent on British manufactured goods.
Quick Tip: The process of "de-industrialization" under British rule is a key theme. India, which was once a major exporter of finished products like textiles, was reduced to an exporter of primary products and an importer of manufactured goods.


Question 39:

Critically appraise, infrastructural development in India during the British rule.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



A critical appraisal of infrastructural development during the British rule reveals that while some modern infrastructure was developed, the primary motive was to serve colonial interests rather than the welfare of the Indian people.


Positive Contributions (The Development):

The British did introduce significant infrastructural projects such as:


Railways: A vast railway network was built across the country.
Ports: Ports were developed to handle foreign trade.
Communication: The post and telegraph system was introduced for faster communication.
Roads: Some modern roads were constructed.


Critical Appraisal (The Underlying Motive):

The development was not geared towards the economic growth of India but towards its economic exploitation.

1. Railways: The main purposes of the railways were (a) to transport raw materials from the interiors of India to the ports for export to Britain, and (b) to move British troops quickly across the country to maintain control. They were not designed to promote internal trade or connect rural areas to markets.


2. Roads: The roads that were built served the same purpose as the railways – to connect with railheads for drawing out raw materials. There was a severe lack of all-weather roads to connect villages and rural areas.


3. Post and Telegraph: The electric telegraph system was introduced primarily to enhance administrative efficiency and maintain law and order, not for public convenience.


In conclusion, the infrastructural development under the British created a framework for the efficient exploitation of India's resources and markets. While it did have some unintended positive spillover effects, its fundamental purpose was to strengthen the British colonial hold and facilitate the drain of wealth from India.
Quick Tip: When asked to "critically appraise" or "critically evaluate," you must present both the positive and negative aspects of the topic to provide a balanced and nuanced answer.


Question 40:

State and explain any two steps undertaken by the Government of India for the protection and promotion of Small-scale Industries between 1950 – 1990.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Between 1950 and 1990, the government adopted a policy of protecting and promoting Small-Scale Industries (SSIs) as part of its industrial strategy. Two key steps taken were:


1. Reservation of Products:

Explanation: The government reserved the production of a large number of goods exclusively for the small-scale sector. This meant that large-scale industrial firms were not allowed to produce these items. This policy, known as "product reservation," was designed to protect SSIs from competition from large industrial houses, which had greater financial and technological capabilities. This provided a sheltered market for SSIs to grow.


2. Financial and Fiscal Concessions:

Explanation: To encourage entrepreneurship and make SSIs financially viable, the government provided various concessions. These included:

Financial Concessions: Bank loans were provided to SSIs at lower interest rates and with easier credit terms under the priority sector lending norms.
Fiscal Concessions: SSIs were offered tax benefits, such as lower excise duties and exemption from sales tax in many cases.

These measures aimed to reduce the cost of production and improve the profitability of small-scale units, helping them to survive and expand.
Quick Tip: The promotion of SSIs was seen as crucial for achieving the objectives of employment generation and equitable distribution of income, as they are typically more labor-intensive than large-scale industries.


Question 41:

Elaborate the role of land ceiling as an institutional reform in agricultural sector during the planning period of India.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Land ceiling was a major institutional reform (or land reform) introduced in the agricultural sector during India's planning period (post-1950). Its role was to promote equity and social justice in rural India.


Elaboration of its Role:

1. Meaning and Objective: Land ceiling refers to the policy of fixing a maximum limit on the amount of agricultural land that could be owned by an individual or a family. The primary objective was to curb the concentration of land ownership in the hands of a few wealthy landlords.


2. Redistribution of Surplus Land: Any land owned by a landlord above the prescribed ceiling limit was declared 'surplus'. This surplus land was to be taken over by the government. The government would then redistribute this land among the landless agricultural laborers and small and marginal farmers.


3. Intended Impact: The intended role of this policy was twofold:

Economic Equity: By providing land to the landless, the policy aimed to give them a productive asset and a means of livelihood, thereby reducing income inequality in rural areas.
Social Equity: Ownership of land is a source of social status and power in rural India. By breaking up large estates, land ceilings aimed to reduce the social and political dominance of big landlords.


4. Actual Outcome: While the objective was noble, the implementation of land ceiling laws was largely ineffective. Big landlords found numerous loopholes to evade the law, such as registering land in the names of relatives (benami transfers), getting divorced to claim separate holdings, and challenging the laws in court. As a result, very little surplus land was actually acquired and redistributed, and the policy had limited success in achieving its goal of promoting equity.
Quick Tip: Land reforms in India had two main components: (1) Abolition of intermediaries (like zamindars) and (2) Tenancy reforms and reorganisation of agriculture (which included land ceilings and consolidation of holdings).


Question 42:

Compare and analyse the following information related to distribution of employment in India :


Correct Answer:
View Solution



The bar chart shows the distribution of the male and female workforce across the Primary, Secondary, and Tertiary sectors in India. An analysis and comparison reveals the following key points:


1. Concentration in Primary Sector:

A majority of the female workforce (57.1%) is employed in the primary sector (mainly agriculture), which is significantly higher than the male workforce (40.7%) in the same sector.

This indicates a higher dependence of women on agriculture for their livelihood, a phenomenon often referred to as the 'feminization of agriculture'.


2. Participation in Secondary and Tertiary Sectors:

The proportion of male workers is higher than female workers in both the secondary and tertiary sectors.

In the secondary sector (manufacturing, industry), 26.5% of males are employed compared to only 17.7% of females.

In the tertiary sector (services), 32.8% of males are employed compared to 25.2% of females.


Conclusion:

The data highlights a significant gender-based disparity in employment distribution. While both genders have a high proportion of workers in the primary sector, women are far more concentrated in it. Men, on the other hand, have relatively better access to employment opportunities in the more productive secondary and tertiary sectors of the economy.
Quick Tip: When analyzing data, always start by identifying the key trends for each category first (e.g., males and females separately) and then proceed to compare them. Quoting the specific data points from the chart makes your answer more credible.


Question 43:

Argue in favour of the need for different forms of government intervention in education and health sectors.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Government intervention in the education and health sectors is crucial due to several market failures and social equity concerns. Arguments in favour are:


1. Positive Externalities: Both education and health generate significant positive externalities. An educated person contributes to a more productive workforce and informed citizenry, benefiting society as a whole. A healthy population reduces the spread of disease and lowers the burden on public resources. Private markets, focused on private benefits, would under-produce these services, necessitating government intervention to ensure optimal provision for society.


2. Merit Goods and Equity: Education and healthcare are considered merit goods, which are essential for human development and welfare. The government has a responsibility to ensure that all citizens, regardless of their income or social status, have access to these basic services. If left to the private sector alone, the high costs would make them unaffordable for the poor, leading to widespread inequality.


3. High Costs and Long Gestation Period: Building large-scale infrastructure for health (hospitals) and education (universities) requires massive investment with long payback periods. Private investors may be reluctant to invest in such projects, especially in remote and rural areas. The government must step in to make these substantial, long-term investments.


4. Information Asymmetry: In the health sector particularly, there is significant information asymmetry; patients (consumers) often lack the expertise to judge the quality of medical services. Government intervention through regulation, licensing of doctors, and quality control of medicines is essential to protect consumers from exploitation and malpractice.
Quick Tip: The argument for government intervention in sectors like health and education is fundamentally based on the concept of 'market failure'. This is when the free market, left to itself, fails to allocate resources efficiently and equitably.


Question 44:

Define organic farming.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Organic farming is a system of agricultural production that promotes and enhances ecosystem health, biodiversity, and biological cycles.


It avoids the use of synthetic inputs such as chemical fertilizers, pesticides, herbicides, and Genetically Modified Organisms (GMOs).


Instead, it relies on ecological processes and techniques like crop rotation, use of green manure, compost, biological pest control, and mechanical cultivation to maintain soil productivity and control pests.
Quick Tip: The core principle of organic farming is to work in harmony with nature rather than against it, focusing on long-term soil health and sustainability.


Question 45:

State any two benefits of organic farming.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Two key benefits of organic farming are:


1. Environmental Benefits: Organic farming practices are environmentally friendly. By avoiding synthetic chemicals, it prevents the pollution of soil, water, and air. It helps in conserving biodiversity, improving soil fertility and structure, and combating soil erosion. It is a more sustainable form of agriculture.


2. Economic and Health Benefits: Organic produce is free from harmful chemical residues, making it healthier for consumers. This leads to a growing demand, allowing farmers to often command a premium price for their products in the market, thereby increasing their income. In the long run, it can also reduce the cost of cultivation as farmers do not need to purchase expensive chemical fertilizers and pesticides.
Quick Tip: Benefits of organic farming can be categorized into three main areas: environmental (sustainability), economic (higher income for farmers), and health (safer food for consumers).


Question 46:

Explain the steps taken by the government to promote organic products.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Based on the provided text, the government has taken the following steps to promote organic products:


1. Creation of a National Cooperative Society: The Union Cabinet has approved the formation of a National-Level Multi-State Cooperative Society. The specific purpose of this society is to promote organic production and exports, which will help farmers increase their income manifold.


2. Infrastructure for Quality Control: The government plans to set up arrangements for testing of land and selection of natural forms of products in every district within the next five years. This will help ensure the quality and authenticity of organic products.


3. Grassroots Institutional Support: The government has decided to set up a cooperative society in all Panchayats. This is to ensure that the central government's schemes and support for organic farming effectively reach the farmers at the village level.


4. Marketing and Certification Support: The text highlights the need for marketing and certification of organic produce to help farmers get better prices. This implies that the government's initiatives include creating systems to ensure that genuine organic products are certified and marketed effectively, and to prevent fake organic products from entering the market.
Quick Tip: When answering questions based on a given text, structure your answer by identifying and explaining each distinct point or measure mentioned in the passage.


Question 47:

Explain any two similar developmental strategies followed by India and Pakistan in post 1947 era.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



After independence in 1947, India and Pakistan adopted very similar developmental strategies. Two key similarities were:


1. Adoption of Five-Year Plans: Both countries adopted the model of centralized planning for economic development. India announced its first Five-Year Plan in 1951, and Pakistan followed suit in 1956. This strategy involved setting long-term goals and allocating resources through comprehensive plans to achieve specific developmental targets.


2. Mixed Economy Model with a Large Public Sector: Both India and Pakistan adopted a mixed economy framework, which combined elements of both capitalism and socialism. A significant role was assigned to the public sector, which was expected to take the lead in developing heavy industries and infrastructure. The private sector's role was largely secondary and subject to considerable regulation and control. This was part of an inward-looking, import-substitution industrialization strategy.
Quick Tip: Another similarity was the focus on the Green Revolution in the 1960s to achieve self-sufficiency in food grains, although its impact and timing varied slightly between the two nations.


Question 48:

State and discuss any two reasons for slow economic growth in Pakistan.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Despite starting on a similar path, Pakistan's economic growth has been slower and more volatile compared to India's. Two major reasons for this are:


1. Political Instability: Pakistan has experienced long periods of political instability, including several military coups and unstable democratic governments. This has led to a lack of policy continuity and a poor investment climate. Frequent changes in government and policy uncertainty deter both domestic and foreign investors, which severely hampers long-term economic growth.


2. Over-dependence on Foreign Aid and Remittances: For a long period, Pakistan's economy has been heavily dependent on foreign aid, particularly from the United States and Middle Eastern countries, and remittances from its workers abroad. This dependence has reduced the urgency and incentive to build a strong domestic economic base through robust tax collection, export promotion, and industrial diversification. When aid flows and remittances fluctuate, the economy faces severe crises.
Quick Tip: Another critical factor is Pakistan's high defense expenditure, which has consistently diverted a large portion of its national budget away from crucial development sectors like education, health, and infrastructure.


Question 49:

"China used the tool of Special Economic Zones for its economic development very effectively." Justify the given statement with valid explanation.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



The statement is correct. China's use of Special Economic Zones (SEZs) was a cornerstone of its economic reforms and a highly effective tool for its rapid development.


Justification:

1. Attracting Foreign Direct Investment (FDI): China established SEZs in coastal areas to attract foreign investment. These zones offered foreign companies significant incentives, including tax concessions, world-class infrastructure (power, transport, communication), and flexible labor laws. This led to a massive inflow of foreign capital, technology, and modern managerial skills.


2. Engine for Export-Led Growth: The SEZs were primarily designed to be export-oriented manufacturing hubs. Foreign companies set up factories to produce goods for the global market. This strategy transformed China into the 'workshop of the world' and fueled its spectacular export-led growth, leading to a huge accumulation of foreign exchange reserves.


3. Employment Generation and Linkages: The industries set up in SEZs created millions of jobs, absorbing surplus labor from rural areas. They also created backward linkages, as they sourced raw materials and components from domestic Chinese firms, stimulating the growth of local industries.


In essence, the SEZs acted as controlled experiments for market-oriented reforms and as powerful magnets for FDI, effectively integrating China into the global economy and driving its industrialization at an unprecedented pace.
Quick Tip: Unlike India's more hesitant approach, China's SEZ policy was implemented on a massive scale with strong state support, which was a key reason for its phenomenal success.


Question 50:

Mention and discuss any two indicators of human development, where China has performed well.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



China has made remarkable progress in human development, outperforming many other developing countries, including India and Pakistan. Two key indicators where its performance has been outstanding are:


1. Poverty Reduction: China's success in reducing extreme poverty is unparalleled in human history. Through rapid economic growth and targeted poverty alleviation programs, it has lifted hundreds of millions of its citizens out of poverty since the reforms began in 1978. The percentage of the population living below the international poverty line in China is now extremely low. This is a significant achievement in improving the well-being and living standards of its people.


2. Health Indicators (Life Expectancy and Infant Mortality Rate): China has achieved significant improvements in the health status of its population. Its Life Expectancy at birth is around 77-78 years, which is much higher than that of India (around 70 years) and comparable to many developed nations. Similarly, its Infant Mortality Rate (IMR) is very low (around 7 deaths per 1,000 live births), indicating better access to maternal and child healthcare, nutrition, and sanitation compared to other countries at a similar stage of development.
Quick Tip: When discussing human development, key indicators to consider are those that make up the Human Development Index (HDI): Life Expectancy (health), Mean and Expected Years of Schooling (education), and Gross National Income per capita (standard of living).

*The article might have information for the previous academic years, please refer the official website of the exam.

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