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Sanghamitra Deb

Content Writer | Updated On - Dec 9, 2025

CBSE Class 12 2025 Economics Question Paper with Solution Pdf available for download here. CBSE conducted the Economics exam on March 19, 2025 from 10:30 AM to 1:30 PM. The total marks for the theory paper are 80. The question paper contains 20% MCQ-based questions, 40% competency-based questions, and 40% short and long answer-type questions. Candidates can use the link below to download the CBSE Class 12 Economics Question Paper with detailed solutions.

CBSE Class 12 Economics (Set 3 - 58/2/3) Question Paper 2025 with Solutions

CBSE Class 12 2025 Economics Question Paper with Answer Key Download PDF Check Solution
CBSE Class 12 Economics Question Paper 2025 with Solutions Set 3 58 2 3

Question 1:

Identify, which of the following is not to be considered while estimating Revenue Deficit of a country. (Choose the correct option)

  • (A) Wages and salaries paid by the government
  • (B) Interest payments made by the Central Government
  • (C) Direct Tax Collection
  • (D) Expenditure incurred on construction of flyover
Correct Answer: (D) Expenditure incurred on construction of flyover
View Solution



The formula for Revenue Deficit is Revenue Deficit = Total Revenue Expenditure – Total Revenue Receipts.


Revenue Expenditure includes expenses that do not create assets or reduce liabilities.


Revenue Receipts are incomes that do not create liabilities or reduce assets.


Option (A) Wages and salaries and (B) Interest payments are forms of Revenue Expenditure.


Option (C) Direct Tax Collection is a form of Revenue Receipt.


Option (D) Expenditure on the construction of a flyover is a Capital Expenditure because it creates a physical asset for the government.


Capital Expenditure is not included in the calculation of the Revenue Deficit.


Therefore, expenditure on a flyover is not considered.
Quick Tip: Remember the key distinction: Revenue items are recurring and don't affect asset/liability status. Capital items are non-recurring and change the government's asset or liability position. Revenue Deficit only considers revenue items.


Question 2:

Read the following statements : Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose one of the correct options given below :

Assertion (A) : In case of public goods no one can be excluded from enjoying the benefits.

Reason (R) : Public goods are non-rivalrous and non-excludable in nature.

  • (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  • (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  • (C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  • (D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Correct Answer: (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
View Solution



Public goods are characterized by two main properties: non-excludability and non-rivalry.


Non-excludability means that it is not feasible to prevent anyone from consuming the good.


Assertion (A) states that no one can be excluded from enjoying the benefits of public goods.


This is the definition of the non-excludability property, so Assertion (A) is true.


Reason (R) states that public goods are non-rivalrous and non-excludable.


This is the correct definition of public goods, so Reason (R) is true.


The very reason why no one can be excluded (Assertion A) is that non-excludability is an inherent characteristic of public goods (Reason R).


Thus, Reason (R) is the correct explanation for Assertion (A).
Quick Tip: For Assertion-Reason questions, always check three things in order: 1) Is Assertion true? 2) Is Reason true? 3) Does the Reason logically explain the Assertion? A common example of a public good is national defense.


Question 3:

Value Addition = __________ - Value of Intermediate Consumption. (Choose the correct option(s) to complete the stated formula.)

(i) Domestic sales

(ii) Sales - change in stock

(iii) Value of output

(iv) (Number of units produced) × (Price per unit)

  • (A) (i) and (ii)
  • (B) (ii) and (iii)
  • (C) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
  • (D) (iii) and (iv)
Correct Answer: (D) (iii) and (iv)
View Solution



The primary formula for Value Added is: Value Added = Value of Output - Value of Intermediate Consumption.


This directly shows that statement (iii) 'Value of output' is the correct term for the blank.


The Value of Output itself is defined as the market value of all goods produced during a period.


This can be calculated by the formula: Value of Output = (Number of units produced) × (Price per unit).


Therefore, statement (iv) is also a correct representation of the term needed for the blank.


Since both (iii) and (iv) are correct definitions for the missing term, option (D) is the correct answer.
Quick Tip: Value of Output represents the total value of goods produced by a firm, while Value Added represents the firm's net contribution to that output, after accounting for inputs purchased from other firms. GDP by the production method is the sum of Value Added by all firms in the economy.


Question 4:

Suppose for an economy, autonomous consumption stands as ₹ 100 crore and total consumption is ₹ 130 crores. The value of induced consumption would be ₹ __________ crore. (Choose the correct option to fill up the blank)

  • (A) 30
  • (B) 80
  • (C) 100
  • (D) 130
Correct Answer: (A) 30
View Solution



Total Consumption (\(C\)) is the sum of Autonomous Consumption (\(\bar{C}\)) and Induced Consumption (\(cY\)).


The formula is: Total Consumption = Autonomous Consumption + Induced Consumption.


We are given:


Total Consumption (\(C\)) = ₹ 130 crores.


Autonomous Consumption (\(\bar{C}\)) = ₹ 100 crores.


We need to find the Induced Consumption.


Rearranging the formula: Induced Consumption = Total Consumption - Autonomous Consumption.


Plugging in the values: Induced Consumption = ₹ 130 crores - ₹ 100 crores.


Induced Consumption = ₹ 30 crores.
Quick Tip: Remember the consumption function: \(C = \bar{C} + cY\), where C is total consumption, \(\bar{C}\) is autonomous consumption, 'c' is the marginal propensity to consume (MPC), and Y is income. The term 'cY' represents induced consumption.


Question 5:

In the Keynesian Economics, __________ starts from the origin and is always drawn at an angle of 45°. (Choose the correct option to fill up the blank)

  • (A) Consumption curve
  • (B) Aggregate demand curve
  • (C) Reference line
  • (D) Investment curve
Correct Answer: (C) Reference line
View Solution



In the Keynesian income-determination model, a 45-degree line is drawn from the origin.


This line represents all points where the variable on the vertical axis is equal to the variable on the horizontal axis.


In this model, it represents the points where Aggregate Supply (Income) = Aggregate Expenditure.


This line serves as a reference to find the equilibrium level of income, which occurs where the Aggregate Demand curve intersects it.


The Consumption curve and Aggregate Demand curve both have a positive y-intercept and are not at 45°.


The autonomous Investment curve is a horizontal line.


Therefore, the correct answer is the Reference line.
Quick Tip: The 45° line is crucial in Keynesian analysis. It represents the equilibrium condition Y = AD (Aggregate Supply = Aggregate Demand). The economy's equilibrium is found where the planned Aggregate Demand curve intersects this 45° reference line.


Question 6:

The monetary policy is formulated by the __________ in the Indian economy. (Choose the correct option to fill up the blank)

  • (A) Central Government
  • (B) State Governments
  • (C) Reserve Bank of India
  • (D) World Bank
Correct Answer: (C) Reserve Bank of India
View Solution



Monetary policy refers to the actions undertaken by a nation's central bank to control the money supply and credit conditions.


The primary objectives of monetary policy are to manage inflation, consumption, growth, and liquidity.


In India, the central bank responsible for formulating and implementing monetary policy is the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).


The Central Government formulates fiscal policy, which deals with government revenue and expenditure.


State Governments have their own budgets but do not formulate the nation's monetary policy.


The World Bank is an international financial institution and does not formulate monetary policy for individual countries.
Quick Tip: A simple way to distinguish is: Monetary Policy = Money Supply = Central Bank (RBI in India). Fiscal Policy = Government Spending & Taxes = Central Government.


Question 7:

To arrive at the value of equilibrium level of income, there must exists an equality between ex-ante __________ and ex-ante __________. (Choose the correct option to fill up the blank)

(i) Aggregate Demand, Aggregate Supply

(ii) Aggregate Demand, Savings

(iii) Aggregate Demand, Investment

(iv) Savings, Investment

  • (A) (i) and (ii)
  • (B) (i) and (iv)
  • (C) (ii) and (iii)
  • (D) (iii) and (iv)
Correct Answer: (B) (i) and (iv)
View Solution



The equilibrium level of income in a Keynesian model is determined by two main approaches.


The first approach is the Aggregate Demand-Aggregate Supply (AD-AS) approach.


In this approach, equilibrium is achieved when ex-ante Aggregate Demand equals ex-ante Aggregate Supply. This corresponds to statement (i).


The second approach is the Savings-Investment (S-I) approach.


In this approach, equilibrium is achieved when ex-ante (planned) Savings equals ex-ante (planned) Investment. This corresponds to statement (iv).


The question asks for the conditions of equality that must exist for equilibrium.


Both the AD=AS condition and the S=I condition must hold for the economy to be in equilibrium.


Therefore, the correct option must include both (i) and (iv).
Quick Tip: Remember that the two equilibrium conditions, AD = AS and S = I, are two sides of the same coin. If one is met, the other is automatically met. For exams, you must know both approaches.


Question 8:

The budget under, which the government may spend an amount equal to the revenue it collects is referred as __________ Budget. (Choose the correct option to fill up the blank)

  • (A) Surplus
  • (B) Deficit
  • (C) Balanced
  • (D) Deflationary
Correct Answer: (C) Balanced
View Solution



A government budget is a statement of estimated receipts and estimated expenditures of the government for a fiscal year.


There are three types of government budgets based on the comparison of estimated receipts and expenditures.


A Surplus Budget is when estimated government receipts are more than estimated government expenditure.


A Deficit Budget is when estimated government expenditure is more than estimated government receipts.


A Balanced Budget is when estimated government receipts are equal to the estimated government expenditure.


The question describes a situation where government spending is equal to the revenue it collects.


This matches the definition of a Balanced Budget.
Quick Tip: Remember the simple budget equation: Budget Balance = Total Revenue - Total Expenditure. If Balance > 0, it's a Surplus. If Balance < 0, it's a Deficit. If Balance = 0, it's Balanced.


Question 9:

Read the following statements : Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose one of the correct options given below :

Assertion (A): If the value of Marginal Propensity to Save is 0.5, Marginal Propensity to Consume will be equal to Marginal Propensity to Save.

Reason (R) : Sum of Marginal Propensity to Consume and Marginal Propensity to Save always equals to unity.

  • (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  • (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  • (C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  • (D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Correct Answer: (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
View Solution



First, let's evaluate Reason (R). The fundamental relationship between Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC) and Marginal Propensity to Save (MPS) is that their sum is always equal to 1.


The formula is: MPC + MPS = 1.


This is because any additional unit of income is either consumed or saved. So, Reason (R) is a true statement.


Next, let's evaluate Assertion (A). We are given that MPS = 0.5.


Using the relationship from Reason (R), we can calculate MPC: MPC = 1 - MPS.


Substituting the value: MPC = 1 - 0.5 = 0.5.


The assertion states that MPC will be equal to MPS. Since MPC = 0.5 and MPS = 0.5, the assertion is true.


Finally, we must check if Reason (R) explains Assertion (A).


We used the formula in Reason (R) to calculate the value of MPC and prove that Assertion (A) is correct.


Therefore, Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
Quick Tip: Always remember the fundamental identity: MPC + MPS = 1. This relationship is key to solving many problems related to the Keynesian multiplier and income determination.


Question 10:

As the Banker to the Bank, Reserve Bank of India performs all functions except __________. (Choose the correct option to fill up the blank)

  • (A) Purchase and sale of securities on behalf of general public
  • (B) Maintaining current account for Commercial Banks
  • (C) Clearing and settlement of Interbank transactions
  • (D) Facilitating governmental transactions
Correct Answer: (A) Purchase and sale of securities on behalf of general public
View Solution



The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) acts as the central bank and has several key functions.


The question asks which of the given options is NOT a function of the RBI, specifically in its role as 'Banker to the Banks'. Let's analyze the functions of the RBI.


Option (B), maintaining current accounts for commercial banks, is a core 'Banker to the Banks' function.


Option (C), clearing and settling interbank transactions (acting as a clearing house), is another core 'Banker to the Banks' function.


Option (D), facilitating governmental transactions, is a function of the RBI, but it falls under its role as 'Banker to the Government', not 'Banker to the Banks'.


Option (A), purchasing and selling securities on behalf of the general public, is a function performed by commercial banks, not the RBI. The RBI does not have direct dealings with the general public.


The question asks for the function that the RBI does not perform.


Since the RBI never deals directly with the general public for such transactions, option (A) is the function it does not perform. This is the most definitive exception among the choices.
Quick Tip: The RBI is the 'apex' bank. It deals with commercial banks and the government, but not directly with the general public. Any option that suggests a direct retail banking service for individuals is likely not a function of the RBI.


Question 11:

"The government generally levies higher Goods and Services Tax (GST) on socially undesirable products like cigarettes, tobacco, liquor etc." Identify and explain the indicated government budget objective in the above statement.

Correct Answer: The objective is Managing Externalities / Reallocation of Resources.
View Solution



The government budget objective indicated in the statement is 'Managing Externalities' or 'Reallocation of Resources'.


Products like cigarettes, tobacco, and liquor are considered demerit goods because they have negative externalities.


Negative externalities are the harmful effects that the consumption or production of these goods has on third parties, for which no compensation is paid (e.g., passive smoking, health issues).


By imposing a higher Goods and Services Tax (GST) on these goods, the government makes them more expensive.


This discourages their consumption, thereby reducing the negative externalities associated with them.


Simultaneously, the revenue generated from these higher taxes can be used by the government to fund public services like healthcare and education, thus reallocating resources towards socially desirable areas.
Quick Tip: Remember that the government uses fiscal policy (taxes and subsidies) to influence resource allocation. It discourages the consumption of demerit goods (negative externalities) through high taxes and encourages the consumption of merit goods (positive externalities) through subsidies.


Question 12:

Two friends Ramesh (a software engineer) and Pihu (a bakery owner) are discussing their contribution to the nation's economy through tax payments. Ramesh earns ₹ 8,00,000 per year, which makes him liable to pay income tax. Pihu pays Goods and Service Tax (GST) on the sale of cakes and pastries. On the basis of the given text, identify whether Ramesh is paying a direct tax or an indirect tax. Explain valid differences between two types of taxes.

Correct Answer: Ramesh is paying a direct tax (Income Tax). Key differences are based on impact/incidence and shiftability.
View Solution



Ramesh is paying Income Tax, which is a Direct Tax.


Two valid differences between direct and indirect taxes are as follows:


1. Impact and Incidence: In the case of a direct tax, the 'impact' (initial burden) and the 'incidence' (final burden) of the tax fall on the same person. Ramesh cannot shift the burden of his income tax to someone else. In contrast, for an indirect tax like GST, the impact is on the seller (Pihu), but the incidence is on the final consumer, as Pihu can shift the tax burden by adding it to the price of cakes.


2. Shiftability: The burden of a direct tax cannot be shifted to another person. The person who is liable to pay the tax bears the burden. The burden of an indirect tax can be shifted from one person (the producer or seller) to another (the consumer).


3. Nature: Direct taxes are generally progressive in nature (tax rate increases with income), aiming to reduce income inequality. Indirect taxes are often regressive in nature, as they are levied at a uniform rate on goods and services, affecting the poor more than the rich in proportional terms.
Quick Tip: A simple test to differentiate between direct and indirect taxes is to ask: "Can the person paying the tax to the government legally recover it from someone else?" If yes, it's indirect (like GST). If no, it's direct (like Income Tax).


Question 13:

Define Nominal Gross Domestic Product. How is it different from Real Gross Domestic Product?

Correct Answer: Nominal GDP is GDP at current prices. It differs from Real GDP, which is GDP at constant (base year) prices, by the effect of inflation.
View Solution



Nominal Gross Domestic Product (GDP):

Nominal GDP is the market value of the final goods and services produced within the domestic territory of a country during an accounting year, as estimated using the current year's prices.


Difference between Nominal GDP and Real GDP:


1. Prices Used: Nominal GDP is calculated using current market prices for the year of measurement. Real GDP is calculated using the prices of a constant base year.


2. Indicator of Growth: Real GDP is considered a better indicator of economic growth and welfare. It reflects the change in the actual volume of goods and services produced, as the effect of price changes is eliminated. Nominal GDP can increase due to a rise in prices even if the output has not increased.


3. Effect of Inflation: Nominal GDP is affected by both changes in quantity and changes in prices. Real GDP is affected only by the change in quantity. The relationship is: Real GDP = (Nominal GDP / Price Index) 100.
Quick Tip: Think of it this way: Nominal GDP measures the size of the economy in today's money. Real GDP measures the actual change in output, stripping away the distorting effect of inflation. Economists almost always use Real GDP to discuss growth.


Question 14:

Suppose for an economy, government proposes two investment projects for construction of expressways with an additional investment of ₹ 2000 crore. Assuming, 80% of increase in income is spent on consumption. Estimate the following on the basis of above information :

(a) Change in income (\(\Delta\)Y).

(b) Change in consumption (\(\Delta\)C).

Correct Answer: (a) \(\Delta\)Y = ₹ 10,000 crore. (b) \(\Delta\)C = ₹ 8,000 crore.
View Solution



We are given:

Additional Investment (\(\Delta\)I) = ₹ 2000 crore.

Percentage of increased income spent on consumption = 80%.


This means the Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC or c) = 80% = 0.8.


First, we calculate the Investment Multiplier (K).

K = 1 / (1 - MPC) = 1 / (1 - 0.8) = 1 / 0.2 = 5.


(a) Change in income (\(\Delta\)Y):

The relationship between the multiplier, change in investment, and change in income is: \(\Delta\)Y = K \(\Delta\)I.
\(\Delta\)Y = 5 2000 crore.
\(\Delta\)Y = ₹ 10,000 crore.


(b) Change in consumption (\(\Delta\)C):

The change in consumption is the MPC times the change in income: \(\Delta\)C = MPC \(\Delta\)Y.
\(\Delta\)C = 0.8 10,000 crore.
\(\Delta\)C = ₹ 8,000 crore.
Quick Tip: The investment multiplier is a powerful concept. It shows that an initial change in investment leads to a much larger final change in national income. The key to the multiplier's size is the MPC – the higher the MPC, the larger the multiplier effect.


Question 15:

On the basis of the given image, explain the steps which may be taken by the Government of India to control the indicated macro-economic issue.


Correct Answer: The issue is inflation. The government can use fiscal policy measures like decreasing government spending and increasing taxes.
View Solution



The image depicts a bull representing rising prices, labeled "INFLATION". This indicates a situation of excess demand in the economy.


The Government of India can use its fiscal policy to control inflation. Two key steps are:


1. Decrease in Government Spending: The government can reduce its own expenditure on public works, defence, subsidies, etc. A decrease in government spending (G) directly reduces a component of Aggregate Demand (AD = C + I + G). When AD falls, the inflationary pressure in the economy is reduced.


2. Increase in Taxes: The government can increase both direct taxes (like income tax) and indirect taxes. An increase in taxes reduces the disposable income of households. With less disposable income, people's ability to consume decreases, which in turn reduces Aggregate Demand and helps control inflation.
Quick Tip: To fight inflation (excess demand), the government needs to "cool down" the economy. This is done through contractionary fiscal policy: reduce government spending (G \(\downarrow\)) and/or increase taxes (T \(\uparrow\)). The opposite (expansionary policy) is used to fight recession.


Question 16:

Define 'Open Market Operations'.

Correct Answer: Open Market Operations (OMOs) refer to the sale and purchase of government securities by the central bank in the open market.
View Solution



Open Market Operations (OMOs) are a monetary policy tool used by a country's central bank (the RBI in India).


It refers to the buying and selling of government securities (like treasury bills and government bonds) by the central bank from or to the public and commercial banks.


When the central bank sells securities, it soaks up liquidity from the market, reducing the money supply and the lending capacity of commercial banks. This is a contractionary policy used to control inflation.


When the central bank buys securities, it injects liquidity into the market, increasing the money supply and the lending capacity of commercial banks. This is an expansionary policy used to combat recession.
Quick Tip: A simple mnemonic: To fight Inflation (too much money), RBI Sells securities to Soak up money. To fight Recession (too little money), RBI Buys securities to Boost the money supply.


Question 17:

Justify the following statements with valid arguments :

(i) Money supply in an economy is an example of a stock variable.

(ii) The Central Bank provides several Banking services to the government.

Correct Answer: (i) Money supply is a stock because it's measured at a point in time. (ii) The Central Bank acts as a banker, agent, and financial advisor to the government.
View Solution



(i) Money supply in an economy is an example of a stock variable.

This statement is correct.

A stock variable is a quantity that is measured at a specific point in time.

Money supply is defined as the total stock of money (currency with public + demand deposits with banks) held by the public at a particular point in time.

Since it is measured at a point in time (e.g., "as on 31st March 2023") and not over a period, it is a stock variable. In contrast, a flow variable, like national income, is measured over a period of time (e.g., "for the year 2022-23").


(ii) The Central Bank provides several Banking services to the government.

This statement is correct.

The Central Bank (like the RBI in India) acts as the 'Banker, Agent, and Financial Advisor' to the government.

As a Banker, it maintains the government's accounts, receives payments on its behalf, and makes payments for it.

As an Agent, it manages the public debt of the government, buying and selling securities on its behalf.

As a Financial Advisor, it advises the government on economic, financial, and monetary matters.
Quick Tip: To distinguish between stock and flow, ask "Is it measured at a point in time or over a period of time?". Wealth, capital, and money supply are stocks. Income, investment, and consumption are flows.


Question 18:

Assuming for a hypothetical economy, Central Bank increases the Reserve Ratio from 20% to 25% and the total primary deposits stand at ₹ 1,000. Explain the effect of rise in Reserve Ratio on credit creation by commercial banks.

Correct Answer: The credit creation capacity will decrease from ₹ 5,000 to ₹ 4,000.
View Solution



The process of credit creation by commercial banks depends on the Credit Multiplier.


The formula for the Credit Multiplier is: 1 / Reserve Ratio.


Case 1: Reserve Ratio = 20% or 0.20

Credit Multiplier = 1 / 0.20 = 5.

Total Credit Created = Primary Deposits Credit Multiplier

Total Credit Created = ₹ 1,000 5 = ₹ 5,000.


Case 2: Reserve Ratio = 25% or 0.25

Credit Multiplier = 1 / 0.25 = 4.

Total Credit Created = Primary Deposits Credit Multiplier

Total Credit Created = ₹ 1,000 4 = ₹ 4,000.


Effect of the rise in Reserve Ratio:

When the Central Bank increases the Reserve Ratio from 20% to 25%, the credit multiplier decreases from 5 to 4.


This reduces the total credit creation capacity of the commercial banking system from ₹ 5,000 to ₹ 4,000.


A higher reserve ratio means commercial banks have to keep a larger portion of their deposits as reserves and have less money available to lend out, thus contracting the money supply.
Quick Tip: The Reserve Ratio and the Credit Multiplier have an inverse relationship. If the central bank wants to reduce the money supply and control inflation, it will increase the reserve ratio. To increase the money supply and stimulate the economy, it will decrease the reserve ratio.


Question 19:

Define Balance of Payments.

Correct Answer: Balance of Payments (BoP) is a systematic record of all economic transactions between the residents of a country and the rest of the world during a given period of time.
View Solution



The Balance of Payments (BoP) of a country is a systematic and summary statement.


It records all economic transactions that take place between the residents of that country and the residents of the rest of the world.


These transactions are recorded over a specific period of time, typically a year or a quarter.


Economic transactions include the export and import of goods (visibles), services (invisibles), unilateral transfers, and capital flows (investments and loans).


The BoP account is always balanced in an accounting sense, being prepared on the principles of double-entry bookkeeping.
Quick Tip: Remember that BoP records transactions between 'residents' and the 'rest of the world'. A transaction is recorded as a credit (+) if it leads to an inflow of foreign currency and a debit (-) if it leads to an outflow.


Question 20:

Differentiate between the two accounts of Balance of Payments.

Correct Answer: The two accounts are the Current Account and the Capital Account. They differ based on whether transactions affect a country's future claims (asset/liability status) or not.
View Solution



The Balance of Payments (BoP) is broadly divided into two main accounts: the Current Account and the Capital Account.


Basis of Difference: The primary difference lies in the nature of the transactions they record. The Current Account records transactions that do not affect the future claims or asset/liability status of the country. The Capital Account records transactions that do cause a change in the assets or liabilities of the residents of a country or its government.


Components:

The Current Account includes:

1. Trade in Goods (Visible Trade): Export and import of physical goods.

2. Trade in Services (Invisible Trade): Export and import of services like shipping, banking, tourism.

3. Income: Investment income (profits, interest, dividends) and compensation to employees.

4. Unilateral Transfers: Gifts, donations, remittances which do not have a quid pro quo.


The Capital Account includes:

1. Investments: Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) and Portfolio Investment (FII).

2. Borrowings and Lendings: External commercial borrowings, external assistance.

3. Changes in Foreign Exchange Reserves: Transactions involving the central bank's reserves.


Concept: The Current Account is a flow concept as it relates to a period of time. The Capital Account is related to changes in the stock of assets and liabilities.
Quick Tip: A simple way to differentiate: Does the transaction create a future claim or liability? If yes, it goes into the Capital Account (e.g., taking a loan, buying a foreign factory). If no, it goes into the Current Account (e.g., exporting a car, providing IT services).


Question 21:

Give the meaning of Balance of Payments deficit with formula.

Correct Answer: A BoP deficit refers to a situation where autonomous debits (outflows) exceed autonomous credits (inflows). Formula: BoP Deficit = Deficit in Current Account + Deficit in Capital Account.
View Solution



Meaning: A Balance of Payments (BoP) deficit occurs when the total inflows of foreign currency on account of autonomous transactions are less than the total outflows of foreign currency on account of autonomous transactions.


Autonomous transactions are those economic transactions that are undertaken for the motive of profit, independent of the BoP status of the country.


In simpler terms, a BoP deficit means that the country has made more payments to the rest of the world than it has received from them on its own accord.


This deficit must be financed by the central bank through accommodating transactions, such as selling foreign exchange reserves or borrowing from the IMF.


Formula:

A BoP deficit is measured by the deficit in the overall balance, which is the sum of the balances of the current and capital accounts.

BoP Deficit = (Autonomous Credit Items) \(<\) (Autonomous Debit Items)

OR

BoP Deficit = Net Deficit in [Current Account Balance + Capital Account Balance + Errors and Omissions]
Quick Tip: A BoP deficit isn't just a deficit in the current account. It's an overall deficit when autonomous outflows (imports, investments abroad) are greater than autonomous inflows (exports, foreign investments). This overall deficit is reflected by a decrease in the country's foreign exchange reserves.


Question 22:

On the basis of the data given below, estimate the value of Gross National Product at Factor Cost (GNP\(_{FC}\)):

(Table provided with items and amounts in ₹ crore)


Correct Answer: GNP\(_{FC}\) = ₹ 5,500 crore.
View Solution



We can calculate GNP\(_{FC}\) starting with Gross Domestic Product at Market Price (GDP\(_{MP}\)) using the expenditure method.


GDP\(_{MP}\) = Private final consumption expenditure (1) + Government final consumption expenditure (2) + Gross domestic capital formation [(3) + (4)] + Net Exports (8)


Gross domestic capital formation = Gross domestic fixed capital formation (3) + Addition to stock (4)

Gross domestic capital formation = 1,000 + 400 = ₹ 1,400 crore.


Now, calculate GDP\(_{MP}\):

GDP\(_{MP}\) = 2,000 + 1,500 + 1,400 + 700

GDP\(_{MP}\) = ₹ 5,600 crore.


Now, we need to convert GDP\(_{MP}\) to GNP\(_{FC}\).

GNP\(_{FC}\) = GDP\(_{MP}\) + Net factor income from abroad (6) - Net indirect Taxes (7)


Substituting the values:

GNP\(_{FC}\) = 5,600 + 100 - 200

GNP\(_{FC}\) = ₹ 5,500 crore.


Note: Consumption of fixed capital (5) is not used here because we are calculating a 'Gross' value (GNP), not a 'Net' value.
Quick Tip: For national income numericals, always start by identifying the method you need to use (Expenditure, Income, or Value Added). Then, write down the formula for the aggregate you need to find (like GDP\(_{MP}\)) and carefully plug in the values from the table. Finally, make the necessary adjustments (e.g., MP to FC, Domestic to National).


Question 23:

Differentiate between positive externalities and negative externalities.

Correct Answer: Positive externalities are the unpaid benefits that third parties receive, while negative externalities are the uncompensated harms imposed on third parties.
View Solution



Externalities refer to the benefits or harms that a firm or an individual causes to another for which they are not paid or penalized.


Positive Externalities:

- These are the benefits that third parties receive from an economic activity in which they are not directly involved.

- The producer or consumer creating the benefit is not compensated for it.

- Social benefit is greater than private benefit (Social Benefit > Private Benefit).

- Example: A person getting vaccinated not only protects themselves but also reduces the probability of infection for others in the community. A beautiful private garden provides pleasure to passersby.


Negative Externalities:

- These are the harms, costs, or damages imposed on third parties by an economic activity.

- The producer or consumer causing the harm does not pay for the damage caused.

- Social cost is greater than private cost (Social Cost > Private Cost).

- Example: Pollution from a factory can harm the health of people living nearby. Loud music from a party can disturb the neighbors.
Quick Tip: Think of externalities as "spillover" effects. Positive externalities are "good spillovers" (like education or R\&D) that the market underproduces. Negative externalities are "bad spillovers" (like pollution) that the market overproduces. Government intervention (subsidies for positive, taxes for negative) can correct this.


Question 24:

Gauhar, has recently completed her fashion designing studies and started a boutique. To produce dresses for sale, she purchased various materials, including a sewing machine, fabric, buttons and thread. These items are essential for producing the dresses. Classify the material purchased by Gauhar as Final or Intermediate goods, giving valid reasons in support of the classifications.

Correct Answer: Sewing machine is a final good. Fabric, buttons, and thread are intermediate goods.
View Solution



The classification of a good as final or intermediate depends on its end use, not on the nature of the good itself.


Sewing Machine:

- The sewing machine purchased by Gauhar is a Final Good.

- Reason: It is a fixed asset or a capital good for her boutique. It will be used in the process of production for several years and is not used up in a single production cycle. It is an investment for the firm and is considered a final good as it has crossed the production boundary.


Fabric, Buttons, and Thread:

- These materials are Intermediate Goods.

- Reason: These items are used up as raw materials in the process of producing the dresses. They will be completely consumed in the production process and will lose their individual identity once the final product (the dress) is made. Their value gets merged with the value of the final good. They are yet to cross the production boundary.
Quick Tip: The key question to ask is: "Is the good being used up as a raw material in the production process, or is it a long-term asset used for production?" If it's used up, it's an intermediate good. If it's a fixed asset (like machinery), it's a final good (specifically, a capital good).


Question 25:

"In a two sector economy, National income is always more than Domestic income." Defend or refute the given statement with reasons.

Correct Answer: The statement is refuted. In a two-sector economy, National Income is equal to Domestic Income.
View Solution



The given statement is refuted.


Reason:

A two-sector economy model consists only of households and firms.


By definition, this model assumes a closed economy with no government and no external sector (rest of the world).


The difference between National Income and Domestic Income is the Net Factor Income from Abroad (NFIA).

The formula is: National Income = Domestic Income + NFIA.


Since a two-sector economy has no economic transactions with the rest of the world, the Net Factor Income from Abroad (NFIA) is always zero.


Therefore, in a two-sector economy, National Income is always equal to Domestic Income. The statement that it is "always more than" is incorrect.
Quick Tip: The distinction between 'Domestic' and 'National' income hinges entirely on the 'Net Factor Income from Abroad' (NFIA). In any model that assumes a closed economy (like the simple two-sector model), NFIA is zero, making Domestic Income equal to National Income.


Question 26:

In recent years, all the adults are encouraged to open bank accounts as a part of a scheme known as __________. (Choose the correct option to fill up the blank)

  • (A) Jan-Dhan Yojana
  • (B) Jan-Aushadhi Yojana
  • (C) Jan-Soochna Yojana
  • (D) Jan-Arogya Yojana
Correct Answer: (A) Jan-Dhan Yojana
View Solution



The question refers to a government scheme encouraging all adults to open bank accounts.


This initiative is a key component of financial inclusion.


The Pradhan Mantri Jan-Dhan Yojana (PMJDY), launched in August 2014, is the national mission for financial inclusion to ensure access to financial services, namely banking/savings \& deposit accounts, remittance, credit, insurance, pension in an affordable manner.


Jan-Aushadhi Yojana is related to providing quality generic medicines at affordable prices.


Jan-Arogya Yojana (part of Ayushman Bharat) is a health insurance scheme.


Jan-Soochna Yojana is related to providing information about government schemes.


Therefore, the correct scheme is the Jan-Dhan Yojana.
Quick Tip: Remember the objectives of key government schemes. Jan-Dhan = Financial Inclusion (Bank Accounts), Jan-Aushadhi = Generic Medicines, Ayushman Bharat (Jan Arogya) = Health Insurance.


Question 27:

The given chart indicates the problem of __________ in the Indian Economy, post 1990-92. (Choose the correct option to fill up the blank)


  • (A) Informalisation of Workforce
  • (B) Casualisation of Workforce
  • (C) Jobless Growth
  • (D) Formalisation of Workforce
Correct Answer: (C) Jobless Growth
View Solution



The chart shows the growth rates of GDP and Employment in the Indian economy over different periods.


Observing the trends, particularly in the periods after 1990-92 (e.g., 1999-2005, 2005-10, 2010-12), there is a distinct pattern.


The line representing GDP growth shows a significant and often accelerating upward trend, indicating high economic growth.


In contrast, the bars representing employment growth remain relatively low and do not show a corresponding increase.


This situation, where the economy's Gross Domestic Product (GDP) grows at a high rate but employment generation does not keep pace, is known as "Jobless Growth".


The chart clearly illustrates a widening gap between GDP growth and employment growth, which is the defining characteristic of jobless growth.
Quick Tip: Jobless Growth is a critical concept in development economics. It highlights a situation where economic growth is driven by less labor-intensive sectors like high-tech services, leading to prosperity without creating enough jobs for the growing workforce.


Question 28:

Read the following statements carefully :

Statement 1: Environmental concerns of waste generation and pollution have become critical, due to reversal of demand and supply relationship.

Statement 2: Environmental crisis happens, when the rate of resource extraction is less than that of regeneration of resource.

In the light of the given statements, choose the correct option from the following :

  • (A) Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
  • (B) Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
  • (C) Both statements 1 and 2 are true.
  • (D) Both statements 1 and 2 are false.
Correct Answer: (A) Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
View Solution



Let's analyze Statement 1:

In the past, the demand for environmental resources was less than the supply (regenerative capacity). With population explosion and industrialization, the demand for resources for production and consumption has exceeded the environment's capacity to supply them and absorb the resulting waste. This "reversal of the demand and supply relationship" has made issues like waste generation and pollution critical. So, Statement 1 is true.


Let's analyze Statement 2:

An environmental crisis occurs when the environment's carrying capacity is breached. This happens when the rate of resource extraction is greater than the rate of regeneration of those resources, and when the waste generated is beyond the absorptive capacity of the environment. Statement 2 claims the crisis happens when extraction is less than regeneration, which is the opposite of the actual condition. Therefore, Statement 2 is false.


Since Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false, the correct option is (A).
Quick Tip: Remember the two key conditions for environmental crisis: 1. Rate of extraction > Rate of regeneration. 2. Rate of waste generation > Absorptive capacity. If either of these conditions is met, the environment is under stress.


Question 29:

__________ are the people who operate their own farms / enterprises. (Choose the correct option to fill up the blank)

  • (A) Hired Workers
  • (B) Casual Wage Workers
  • (C) Regular Salaried Employees
  • (D) Self-Employed
Correct Answer: (D) Self-Employed
View Solution



The status of employment can be categorized into three types.


Hired Workers / Wage Employees: These are workers who work for others and receive wages or salaries as remuneration. This category is further divided into:

- Casual Wage Workers: They are not hired on a permanent basis and do not have social security benefits.

- Regular Salaried Employees: They are hired on a permanent basis and are entitled to social security benefits.


Self-Employed: These are individuals who own and operate their own business or enterprise to earn their livelihood.


The question describes people who operate their own farms or enterprises. This directly matches the definition of Self-Employed individuals.
Quick Tip: In the context of employment in India, the workforce is primarily divided into two main categories: wage-employed (working for others) and self-employed (working for oneself). Understanding this basic classification is key.


Question 30:

Agricultural marketing is a process that involves the __________ of agricultural commodities. (Choose the correct option to fill up the blank)

(i) Privatisation

(ii) Processing

(iii) Assembling

(iv) Grading

  • (A) (i) and (ii)
  • (B) (ii) and (iii)
  • (C) (i), (ii) and (iii)
  • (D) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Correct Answer: (D) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
View Solution



Agricultural marketing is a comprehensive process that includes all activities in the movement of farm produce from the fields to the final consumer.


Let's analyze the options given:

(ii) Processing: This involves converting raw agricultural products into a more usable form (e.g., wheat into flour). This is a key part of agricultural marketing.


(iii) Assembling: This refers to the collection of produce from numerous small farmers at a central point. It is the first step after harvesting.


(iv) Grading: This is the process of sorting the produce into different lots based on quality, size, and other characteristics. Grading helps in getting better prices for better quality produce.


(i) Privatisation: This is an economic policy of transferring ownership from the public sector to the private sector. While it can affect agricultural markets, it is not a core process or activity within agricultural marketing itself.


Therefore, the processes involved in agricultural marketing are processing, assembling, and grading.
Quick Tip: Agricultural marketing covers everything that happens to a crop after it is harvested. Think of the journey: gathering (assembling), storing, sorting (grading), converting (processing), packaging, transporting, and finally, selling.


Question 31:

__________ is based on the idea that education and health are integral to human well-being. (Choose the correct option to fill up the blank)

  • (A) Human Resource
  • (B) Human Development
  • (C) Human Capital
  • (D) Economic Development
Correct Answer: (B) Human Development
View Solution



Let's differentiate between the key concepts.


Human Capital treats education and health as a means to increase labor productivity. It's an economic concept where humans are viewed as capital that can yield a return.


Human Development is a broader concept. It considers education and health as integral and essential components of human well-being and development in themselves, regardless of their impact on productivity. It believes that development is about expanding the choices people have to lead lives that they value.


The statement emphasizes that education and health are "integral to human well-being". This perspective, where these are ends in themselves, is the core of the Human Development approach.


Human Resource refers to the people who make up the workforce. Economic Development is the overall growth of a country's wealth and living standards.


Therefore, Human Development is the correct answer.



% Quick tip
\begin{quicktipbox
A key distinction: Human Capital sees people as a means to an end (higher productivity). Human Development sees people as the end itself (better well-being and more choices).
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: A key distinction: Human Capital sees people as a means to an end (higher productivity). Human Development sees people as the end itself (better well-being and more choices).


Question 32:

__________ of agriculture refers to production of crops for sale in the open market rather than for self consumption purpose. (Choose the correct option to fill up the blank)

  • (A) Commercialisation
  • (B) Diversification
  • (C) Digitisation
  • (D) Modernisation
Correct Answer: (A) Commercialisation
View Solution



The question describes the shift from subsistence farming to market-oriented farming.


Subsistence farming is where crops are grown primarily for the farmer's own consumption.


The process of shifting from producing for self-consumption to producing for sale in the market is known as Commercialisation of agriculture.


Diversification refers to shifting from single-cropping to multi-cropping or from agriculture to allied activities.


Digitisation refers to the use of digital technologies in agriculture.


Modernisation refers to the adoption of new technologies and methods in farming.


The definition given in the question perfectly matches the concept of Commercialisation.
Quick Tip: Remember the core meaning of the words. "Commerce" means trade or business. "Commercialisation" of agriculture, therefore, means turning agriculture into a business by producing for the market.


Question 33:

Read the following statements carefully :

Statement 1 : In 1978, commune lands were divided into small plots to the individual households for cultivation.

Statement 2: Under commune system, professionals were sent to work and learn from the country side.

In the light of the given statements, choose the correct option from the following :

  • (A) Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
  • (B) Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
  • (C) Both statements 1 and 2 are true.
  • (D) Both statements 1 and 2 are false.
Correct Answer: (C) Both statements 1 and 2 are true.
View Solution



These statements relate to the economic history of China.


Let's analyze Statement 1:

In the late 1970s, specifically starting around 1978, China initiated agricultural reforms. The commune system, where land was collectively owned and farmed, was dismantled. Under the new Household Responsibility System, commune lands were divided and allocated to individual households for cultivation. So, Statement 1 is true.


Let's analyze Statement 2:

The commune system was part of the Great Leap Forward (1958) and later policies. A feature of this era, particularly during the Cultural Revolution which overlapped with the later years of the commune system, was sending professionals, intellectuals, and students to rural areas to work alongside peasants and "learn from the countryside". So, Statement 2 is also true.


Since both statements are factually correct descriptions of events in China's economic history, the correct option is (C).
Quick Tip: For questions on China's economy, remember these key phases: Great Leap Forward (1958) introduced communes. Economic Reforms began in the late 1970s, starting with the dismantling of communes in agriculture and introducing the Household Responsibility System.


Question 34:

Identify, the options that emphasize the role of information and technology.

(i) Achieving sustainable development

(ii) Attainment of food security

(iii) Disseminates information regarding emerging technologies.

  • (A) Only (i)
  • (B) Only (ii)
  • (C) (i) and (ii)
  • (D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Correct Answer: (D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
View Solution



Information and Technology (IT) plays a multifaceted role in modern economies. Let's analyze its role in each option.


(i) Achieving sustainable development: IT can help monitor environmental conditions, manage resources more efficiently (e.g., smart grids, precision agriculture), and promote green technologies, thus contributing to sustainable development.


(ii) Attainment of food security: IT helps farmers with weather forecasts, information on soil quality, pest control, and market prices. It improves supply chain management, reducing waste and ensuring better distribution of food, thereby enhancing food security.


(iii) Disseminates information regarding emerging technologies: This is a core function of IT. The internet, mobile technology, and other platforms are the primary means through which information about new and emerging technologies is spread globally.


Since Information and Technology plays a crucial role in all three areas mentioned, the correct option includes (i), (ii), and (iii).
Quick Tip: Think of Information Technology (IT) as a powerful enabler. It can be applied to almost any field to improve efficiency, monitoring, and knowledge sharing. In exams, options that showcase IT's broad applications are often correct.


Question 35:

Read the following statements : Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose one of the correct options given below :

Assertion (A): Under the land reforms, Indian government fixed the minimum land size which could be owned by an individual.

Reason (R) : The purpose of land ceiling was to avoid the concentration of land ownership in a few hands.

  • (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  • (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  • (C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  • (D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Correct Answer: (D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
View Solution



Let's analyze Assertion (A):

Land reforms in India included land ceiling laws. These laws fixed the maximum amount of land that could be owned by an individual or family, not the minimum. The idea was to acquire surplus land above this ceiling and redistribute it. Therefore, Assertion (A) is false.


Let's analyze Reason (R):

The primary purpose of imposing a "land ceiling" was to reduce the concentration of land ownership in the hands of a few wealthy landlords and promote equity in the agricultural sector. By taking surplus land and redistributing it to the landless, the government aimed to avoid this concentration. Therefore, Reason (R) is a true statement.


Since Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true, the correct option is (D).
Quick Tip: Be very careful with keywords in land reform questions. "Land Ceiling" refers to the maximum limit on land holdings. The goal was to break up large estates, not to guarantee a minimum holding.


Question 36:

Medhya and Danish both had their own farms. Medhya invested in a few agricultural courses, learnt modern farming techniques and trained her labourers on best practices related to soil fertility, crop management, pest control etc. Whereas, Danish invested heavily in, by purchasing advanced farming machinery, irrigation systems and high quality seeds. Do you agree that, Danish had made investment in human capital ? Give valid reason in support of your answer.

Correct Answer: No, Danish did not invest in human capital. He invested in physical capital. Medhya invested in human capital.
View Solution



No, I do not agree that Danish had made an investment in human capital.


Reason:

Human Capital refers to the stock of skill, knowledge, expertise, education, and health embodied in a person or a workforce. It enhances productivity by improving the abilities of the people.


Physical Capital refers to the stock of produced means of production, such as machinery, tools, equipment, buildings, and technology.


In the given case, Medhya invested in human capital. She acquired knowledge through agricultural courses (education) and passed on this knowledge to her laborers (training), thereby increasing their skills and expertise.


Danish, on the other hand, invested in physical capital. He purchased tangible assets like advanced machinery, irrigation systems, and better inputs (high-quality seeds). These are physical tools of production and do not enhance the skills or knowledge of the workers themselves.


Therefore, Danish's investment was in physical capital, not human capital.
Quick Tip: Human capital is about improving the person (through education, training, health), while physical capital is about providing the person with better tools (machinery, infrastructure). Both increase productivity, but they are distinct concepts.


Question 37:

"Expenditure on preventive medicine, curative medicine and social medicine helps in building human capital and economic development." Do you agree with the given statement ? Give valid arguments in support of your answer.

Correct Answer: Yes, the statement is correct. Expenditure on health improves workforce quality, participation, and productivity, thus building human capital and fostering economic development.
View Solution



Yes, I agree with the given statement.


Arguments:

Expenditure on health, through various forms of medicine, is a crucial investment in human capital formation and directly contributes to economic development.


1. Improved Quality of Workforce: A healthy person can work more efficiently and productively. Expenditure on health makes the workforce physically and mentally fitter, thereby improving the quality of human capital. For example, a healthy worker is less likely to be absent and can concentrate better.


2. Increased Labour Force Participation: Better health and medical facilities increase life expectancy and reduce mortality rates. This allows people to participate in the workforce for a longer period of time, increasing the supply of labor.


3. Preventive and Social Medicine: Preventive medicine (like vaccination) and social medicine (like sanitation and clean drinking water) reduce the incidence of diseases. This saves huge costs on treatment and prevents the loss of productive workdays, contributing directly to economic output.


A skilled and healthy workforce (strong human capital) is a prerequisite for economic development, as it leads to higher productivity, innovation, and overall economic growth.
Quick Tip: Human capital formation has two main pillars: education and health. Just as education creates skills, expenditure on health ensures that the workforce is physically and mentally capable of utilizing those skills effectively.


Question 38:

Briefly explain the dual pricing policy adopted by China.

Correct Answer: Dual pricing involved fixing quotas for inputs and outputs at government-set prices, with any transactions above the quota happening at market prices.
View Solution



The dual pricing policy was a key feature of China's economic reforms initiated in the late 1970s and 1980s. It was a mechanism to transition from a command economy to a market economy.


Under this policy, the market was split into two parts:


1. Plan Price (Fixed Price): The government fixed quotas for industrial inputs and outputs. Farmers and industrial units were required to buy and sell a fixed quantity of inputs and finished goods at prices set by the government.


2. Market Price: Any production or consumption above the fixed quota could be transacted at market-determined prices. This allowed enterprises to respond to market signals of demand and supply for their surplus production.


This system created incentives for firms to become more efficient and increase production to sell the surplus at higher market prices, while still ensuring that the state received its required quota of goods at controlled prices. It was a gradual way of introducing market mechanisms without causing major disruptions.
Quick Tip: Think of dual pricing as a "two-track" system. One track is the old, planned economy (fixed quotas at fixed prices). The second track is the new, market economy (surplus goods at market prices). This allowed China to "grow out of the plan" gradually.


Question 39:

"In the recent times through various schemes and policies, the Government of India has taken vital initiatives to generate employment directly / indirectly." Justify the statement giving valid arguments.

Correct Answer: Yes, the statement is justified. The government has launched schemes like MGNREGA for direct employment and Make in India/Start-up India for indirect employment generation.
View Solution



The statement is justified. The Government of India has launched several schemes and policies aimed at generating both direct and indirect employment.


Direct Employment Generation:

The government directly employs people in various departments and runs public sector undertakings. More importantly, it runs specific employment generation schemes.

- Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) 2005: This is a prime example of direct employment generation. It legally guarantees at least 100 days of wage employment in a financial year to every rural household whose adult members volunteer to do unskilled manual work.


Indirect Employment Generation:

The government creates an environment and provides incentives for the private sector to create jobs. When the government invests in infrastructure or promotes industries, jobs are created indirectly.

- Make in India Initiative: This policy aims to make India a global manufacturing hub. By encouraging domestic and foreign companies to manufacture in India, it leads to the establishment of new factories and businesses, which in turn create a large number of jobs.

- Start-up India and Stand-up India: These schemes promote entrepreneurship by providing financial support, tax benefits, and a simpler regulatory environment. Successful start-ups become major job creators.

- Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana (PMMY): This scheme provides loans to non-corporate, non-farm small/micro-enterprises, helping them to start or expand their businesses and create employment opportunities.
Quick Tip: When answering questions about government policies, try to name specific schemes. For employment, MGNREGA is the classic example of direct, wage-based employment generation. Make in India, Start-up India, and MUDRA are key examples of promoting self-employment and indirect job creation.


Question 40:

"Micro credit programmes have been very helpful in supporting rural development and improving livelihoods in India." Do you agree with the given statement ? Give valid reasons in support of your answer.

Correct Answer: Yes, the statement is correct. Microcredit, through SHGs, provides financial access to the rural poor, empowers women, and encourages entrepreneurship, fostering rural development.
View Solution



Yes, I agree with the statement. Microcredit programmes have been instrumental in rural development and improving livelihoods in India.


Reasons:

1. Financial Inclusion: Microcredit programmes provide small loans to the rural poor, especially those who lack access to the formal banking system due to a lack of collateral. This brings a large segment of the population into the formal financial fold.


2. Empowerment of Women: A significant portion of microcredit is channeled through Self-Help Groups (SHGs), which are predominantly composed of women. Access to credit empowers these women economically and socially, improving their decision-making power within the household and the community.


3. Livelihood Generation and Poverty Alleviation: The small loans (microcredit) enable the rural poor to start or expand small businesses and income-generating activities (e.g., animal husbandry, tailoring, small shops). This creates self-employment opportunities, raises incomes, and helps lift families out of poverty.


4. Reduced Dependence on Moneylenders: By providing an alternative and affordable source of credit, microfinance institutions and SHGs have reduced the dependence of the rural poor on exploitative informal moneylenders who charge exorbitant interest rates.


These programmes, by encouraging savings and promoting entrepreneurship at the grassroots level, play a vital role in the overall development of rural areas.
Quick Tip: The key mechanism for microcredit in India is the Self-Help Group (SHG)-Bank Linkage Programme. Remember the chain: small savings by members lead to a group corpus, which allows them to get a larger loan from a bank. This financial access is the key to rural empowerment.


Question 41:

On the basis of the given data, compare and analyse the Distribution of workforce and its contribution to Gross Value added in India and China.


Correct Answer: The data shows India's workforce is heavily concentrated in low-productivity agriculture, while China has successfully transitioned its workforce to higher-productivity industry and services sectors.
View Solution



A comparison of the data for India and China reveals significant structural differences in their economies:


1. Agricultural Sector:

In India, the agricultural sector engages a very large portion of the workforce (43%), but contributes only 16% to the GVA.


In contrast, China has a smaller proportion of its workforce in agriculture (26%) which contributes 7% to its GVA.


This indicates that agricultural productivity per worker is very low in India and a large number of workers are dependent on a sector with a small share in national income, suggesting disguised unemployment.


2. Industrial Sector:

China has a slightly larger workforce in industry (28%) compared to India (25%).


However, China's industrial sector contributes a significantly larger share to its GVA (41%) than India's (30%), indicating higher industrial productivity in China.


3. Services Sector:

China has successfully shifted a larger portion of its workforce to the services sector (46%) compared to India (32%).


The services sector is the largest contributor to GVA in both countries, with India having a slight edge in its share (54% vs 52%). This suggests high productivity in India's service sector.


Conclusion: The analysis shows that China has transitioned more of its workforce out of agriculture into more productive industrial and service sectors. India's major challenge is the heavy dependence of its workforce on low-productivity agriculture.
Quick Tip: When comparing economic structures using data tables, always link the workforce percentage to the GVA/GDP percentage for each sector. A large gap, where workforce % is much higher than GVA %, points to low productivity and is a key point for analysis.


Question 42:

Explain, the volume and direction of foreign trade during the British rule.

Correct Answer: During British rule, the direction of India's trade was restricted mainly to Britain, and its composition changed from exporting finished goods to exporting raw materials and importing British manufactured goods, leading to a drain of wealth.
View Solution



During the British colonial rule, the structure, volume, and direction of India's foreign trade were fundamentally altered to serve the interests of the British economy.


Direction of Foreign Trade:

The British government maintained a monopoly control over India's exports and imports.


As a result, more than half of India's foreign trade was restricted to Great Britain.


The rest was allowed with a few other countries like China, Ceylon (Sri Lanka), and Persia (Iran).


The opening of the Suez Canal in 1869 further intensified this British control by reducing transport costs and time.


Volume and Composition of Foreign Trade:

India was systematically de-industrialized. It transformed from being an exporter of valuable finished goods (like fine cotton textiles) to being an exporter of primary products.


India became a net exporter of raw materials like raw silk, cotton, wool, sugar, and jute to feed the expanding British industries.


Simultaneously, India became a net importer of finished consumer goods like cotton, silk, and woollen clothes, and capital goods like light machinery produced in Britain.


This led to a large export surplus, but this surplus was used to fund the expenses of the colonial government, leading to a "drain of Indian wealth" rather than benefiting the Indian economy.
Quick Tip: Remember the three key points for this topic: 1. Direction: Monopoly trade with Britain. 2. Composition: Exporter of raw materials, importer of finished goods. 3. Outcome: Drain of wealth through export surplus.


Question 43:

"To promote green revolution, the Indian government provided fertilizer subsidies to the farmers." Briefly explain any two arguments in favour of such subsidies.

Correct Answer: Arguments in favour include: 1) Encouraging adoption of new HYV technology by making inputs affordable for poor farmers. 2) Ensuring food security for the nation by boosting agricultural production.
View Solution



Two arguments in favour of providing fertilizer subsidies to promote the Green Revolution are:


1. To Encourage Adoption of New Technology: The Green Revolution technology, based on High-Yielding Variety (HYV) seeds, required substantial use of chemical fertilizers and pesticides to be effective. These inputs were expensive, and a majority of Indian farmers were small and poor. Subsidies made these crucial inputs affordable, encouraging widespread adoption of the new technology across the country, which was essential for the success of the Green Revolution.


2. To Ensure Food Security and Equity: By making fertilizers cheaper, the subsidy aimed to boost overall food grain production, which was critical for achieving self-sufficiency and ensuring food security for India's large population. It was also seen as a tool for equity, as it helped to protect the income of poor farmers and enabled them to compete, preventing the benefits of the new technology from being captured only by rich farmers.
Quick Tip: Subsidies, in the context of the Green Revolution, should be seen as a necessary incentive. They bridged the gap between the high cost of the new technology and the low income of the majority of farmers, making widespread adoption possible.


Question 44:

As per a news report dated, 8th Oct. 2021, the Government of India sold its entire 100% stake in Air India. Tata sons, the original founder of Air India won the bid and purchased the airline for ₹ 18,000 crore.

(1) Identify the step taken by the Government of India.

(2) State any two ways in which identified step can be executed by the government.

Correct Answer: (1) The step is Privatisation (or Disinvestment). (2) Two ways are: i) Strategic sale to a private entity, and ii) Sale of shares to the public through the stock market.
View Solution



(1) Identification of the step:

The step taken by the Government of India in selling its entire 100% stake in Air India to a private entity (Tata Sons) is known as Privatisation or Disinvestment. It involves the transfer of ownership and management of a public sector enterprise to the private sector.


(2) Two ways of execution:

The government can execute the process of disinvestment or privatisation in the following two ways:


i. Strategic Sale: This involves selling a majority stake (51% or more) or the entire stake in a Public Sector Undertaking (PSU) to a single private sector buyer, known as a strategic partner. The control and management of the PSU are also transferred to the buyer. The sale of Air India is an example of a strategic sale.


ii. Offer for Sale (OFS) / Public Offer: This involves selling the shares of a PSU to the general public and financial institutions through the stock market. The government can sell a minority stake while retaining ownership and control, or it can sell a majority stake over time. This method promotes wider public ownership of shares.
Quick Tip: Remember the distinction: All privatisation is disinvestment, but not all disinvestment is privatisation. Selling a small, minority stake (e.g., 10%) is just disinvestment. Selling a majority stake (more than 50%) that transfers control is privatisation.


Question 45:

"After 1991, reforms in external sector led to an increase in foreign exchange inflows." Justify the given statement with valid argument.

Correct Answer: The statement is justified. Reforms like devaluation, trade liberalization, and opening up to FDI and FII/FPI significantly boosted exports and capital inflows, leading to a massive increase in foreign exchange reserves.
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The statement is completely justified. The external sector reforms undertaken as part of the New Economic Policy of 1991 were a major reason for the sharp increase in foreign exchange inflows.


Valid arguments are as follows:


1. Devaluation of the Rupee: In 1991, the rupee was devalued against foreign currencies. This made Indian goods cheaper in the international market, which boosted India's exports and led to a greater inflow of foreign currency.


2. Trade Policy Reforms (Liberalisation): The complex system of import licensing was abolished, and tariffs (import duties) were drastically reduced. This made the Indian economy more open and attractive for international trade and investment, encouraging export-oriented activities.


3. Opening up to Foreign Investment: This was the most crucial reform. The economy was opened up to Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) and Foreign Institutional Investment (FII), also known as Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI). Liberal norms for investment attracted a massive inflow of foreign capital, as multinational corporations set up businesses in India (FDI) and foreign investors bought shares in the Indian stock market (FII/FPI).


These combined measures transformed India's Balance of Payments situation from a crisis to a surplus, leading to a substantial accumulation of foreign exchange reserves.
Quick Tip: For the 1991 reforms, remember the key external sector changes: Devaluation (boosting exports), Tariff Reduction (liberalizing trade), and opening doors to FDI/FII (boosting capital inflows). The inflow of foreign capital has been the most significant contributor to India's forex reserves.


Question 46:

"During the planning period, public sector was given a dominant role in Indian Economy." Justify the rationale behind this step taken by the Government of India.

Correct Answer: The rationale was based on: 1) Lack of sufficient capital with the private sector for heavy industries. 2) The need to build core infrastructure. 3) The goal of achieving equitable growth and balanced regional development, aligned with socialist objectives.
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The decision to give a dominant role to the public sector during the initial planning period (especially after the Industrial Policy Resolution of 1956) was based on several strong rationales:


1. Lack of Capital with Private Sector: At the time of independence, Indian private entrepreneurs did not possess the huge amount of capital required to invest in heavy industries, infrastructure, and capital goods sectors (like iron and steel, heavy machinery, power generation). These projects have very long gestation periods and were not attractive for private investment.


2. Goal of Social Welfare and Equity: The Indian planners were committed to a "socialist pattern of society". It was believed that the private sector, being driven by profit motives, would not invest in backward regions or in projects that were socially necessary but not highly profitable. The public sector was seen as a tool to ensure balanced regional growth, create employment, and prevent the concentration of economic power.


3. Building a Strong Industrial Base: The government's primary objective was to create a strong infrastructure and industrial base for the country. It was felt that this foundation could only be laid through massive public investment in core and strategic industries.


Therefore, the public sector was entrusted with the responsibility of commanding the heights of the economy to achieve growth with social justice.
Quick Tip: Remember the three main reasons for PSU dominance post-independence: lack of private money, need for social justice, and the goal of building heavy industry and infrastructure. This was the core idea of the Mahalanobis model of development.


Question 47:

Define: Sustainable Development.

Correct Answer: Sustainable Development is development that meets the needs of the present generation without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.
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Sustainable Development is a development strategy that aims to balance the needs of the present with the needs of the future.


The most widely accepted definition comes from the Brundtland Commission report of 1987.


It defines Sustainable Development as "development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs."


This implies that economic growth should be pursued in a way that does not deplete natural resources or degrade the environment, ensuring that future generations have the same opportunities as the present generation.
Quick Tip: The core concept of sustainable development is inter-generational equity. The key phrase to remember is "meeting the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs."


Question 48:

"Sustainable Agriculture emerges as a crucial solution to the environmental concerns." Do you agree with the given statement ? Give valid reasons in support of your answer.

Correct Answer: Yes, I agree. Sustainable agriculture addresses environmental concerns by protecting the environment, reducing chemical dependence, and using resources like land and water efficiently, as mentioned in the text.
View Solution



Yes, I strongly agree with the statement that sustainable agriculture is a crucial solution to environmental concerns.


Valid reasons, supported by the given text and general understanding, are:


1. Protects the Environment and Reduces Pollution: As the text states, sustainable agriculture means adopting methods that "protect the environment" and "reduce dependence on chemical inputs". By minimizing the use of chemical fertilizers and pesticides (as in organic farming), it prevents soil degradation, water contamination, and loss of biodiversity, which are major environmental concerns.


2. Ensures Efficient Use of Resources: The text highlights that sustainable practices involve "efficiently using water and land". Conventional agriculture is often resource-intensive. Practices like precision irrigation, rainwater harvesting, and crop rotation help conserve scarce resources like water and maintain soil health, making agriculture more sustainable in the long run.


3. Climate Change Mitigation and Adaptation: By reducing reliance on fossil fuel-based inputs and promoting practices that improve soil health (sequestering more carbon), sustainable agriculture can help mitigate climate change. It also helps farmers adapt to climate change by fostering more resilient farming systems.
Quick Tip: When answering such questions, link the features of the proposed solution (sustainable agriculture) directly to the problems (environmental concerns). For example, feature 'reduced chemical use' solves problem 'water pollution'. Feature 'efficient irrigation' solves problem 'water scarcity'.


Question 49:

List any two sustainable practices that can be adopted to safeguard environment.

Correct Answer: Two sustainable practices mentioned in the text are organic farming and the use of modern irrigation systems.
View Solution



Based on the provided text and general knowledge, two sustainable practices that can be adopted to safeguard the environment are:


1. Organic Farming: The text mentions "organic farming" as a sustainable practice. This method avoids the use of synthetic chemical fertilizers, pesticides, and genetically modified organisms. It relies on natural processes like crop rotation and use of compost, which helps to maintain soil fertility, protect water quality, and preserve biodiversity.


2. Modern Irrigation Systems: The text refers to "modern irrigation system" as another sustainable practice. This includes techniques like drip irrigation and sprinkler systems. These methods deliver water directly to the plant roots, minimizing wastage through evaporation and runoff. This ensures efficient use of water, a critical and scarce natural resource, thus safeguarding the environment.
Quick Tip: Other examples of sustainable practices include rainwater harvesting, crop rotation, use of bio-fertilizers and bio-pesticides, and agroforestry (integrating trees with crops).

*The article might have information for the previous academic years, please refer the official website of the exam.

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