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Sanghamitra Deb

Content Writer | Updated On - Dec 5, 2025

CBSE Class 12 Geography Exam 2025 Question Paper with Solution PDF is available for download. CBSE conducted the exam successfully on February 24, 2025, from 10:30 AM to 1:30 PM in pen-paper mode. As per students’ initial reactions, the CBSE Class 12 Geography 2025 Question Paper was reported as well-balanced and moderate. The map-based and application-based questions were moderately difficult, while multiple-choice and conceptual questions were reported as easy.

CBSE Class 12 Geography (Set 1 – 64/2/1) Question Paper 2025 with Solution PDF

CBSE Board Class 12 Geography Question Paper Download PDF Check Solutions
CBSE Class 12 Geography Question Paper 2025 With Solutions Set 1 64 2 1

Question 1:

``Human geography is the synthetic study of relationship between human societies and earth’s surface.'' This definition of human geography is given by \hspace{2cm}.

  • (A) Vidal-de-la-Blache
  • (B) Richard Hartshorne
  • (C) Ritter
  • (D) Ratzel
Correct Answer: (D) Ratzel
View Solution



The definition provided in the question is a direct quote from the geographer Friedrich Ratzel.


According to NCERT Fundamentals of Human Geography, Chapter 1, Ratzel defined Human Geography as ``the synthetic study of relationship between human societies and earth's surface.''


Other geographers had different emphases: Ellen C. Semple focused on the ``changing relationship'' and ``unresting man,'' while Vidal de la Blache focused on ``conception resulting from a more synthetic knowledge of physical laws.''


Therefore, the correct option is (D).
Quick Tip: Keywords for definitions: Ratzel \(\rightarrow\) ``Synthetic study''; Semple \(\rightarrow\) ``Changing relationship''; Blache \(\rightarrow\) ``Physical laws''.


Question 2:

Which one of the following is the core concern of geography as a discipline ?

  • (A) To understand population distribution and the factors affecting the same.
  • (B) To understand the relationship between resource distribution and its utilisation.
  • (C) To understand the earth as the home of human beings and its sustainability.
  • (D) To understand the earth as the home of natural resources and their estimation.
Correct Answer: (C) To understand the earth as the home of human beings and its sustainability.
View Solution



Geography is fundamentally concerned with the interaction between humans and their environment in a holistic manner.


According to the NCERT textbook, ``The core concern of geography as a discipline is to understand the earth as the home of human beings and to study all those elements which have sustained them.''


Option (C) reflects this definition most accurately by mentioning the earth as the ``home of human beings'' and referencing the elements that sustain them (sustainability).


Options (A), (B), and (D) describe specific sub-fields (Population Geography, Economic Geography) rather than the overarching core concern of the entire discipline.
Quick Tip: Choose the option that is most inclusive, covering both the physical earth and the human occupants, as Geography is an integrating discipline.


Question 3:

The concept of `Neodeterminism' was introduced by \hspace{2cm}.

  • (A) Ehrlich
  • (B) C. Semple
  • (C) Griffith Taylor
  • (D) Humboldt
Correct Answer: (C) Griffith Taylor
View Solution



The concept of `Neodeterminism', also known as `Stop and Go Determinism', was introduced by Griffith Taylor.


This concept attempts to bring a balance (a middle path) between Environmental Determinism and Possibilism.


It states that nature provides opportunities and limits, and human beings can choose how to develop within those limits, similar to a traffic controller who directs traffic but does not alter the direction of the road.


Therefore, the correct option is (C).
Quick Tip: Remember: Neodeterminism = Middle Path = Stop and Go Determinism = Griffith Taylor.


Question 4:

Read the following statements about ports carefully and choose the correct option :

(i) The ports provide the facilities of loading, unloading and storage of cargo.

(ii) The importance of ports is judged by the size of its hinterland.

(iii) The quantity of cargo handled by a port indicates the level of development of its hinterland.

(iv) Ports are the chief gateways of the world trade.

  • (A) only (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.
  • (B) only (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
  • (C) only (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct.
  • (D) only (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
Correct Answer: (B) only (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
View Solution



We evaluate each statement based on the NCERT text ``International Trade'':


Statement (i) is correct: Ports explicitly provide facilities for docking, loading, unloading, and storage.


Statement (ii) is technically incomplete/incorrect: The text states, ``The importance of a port is judged by the size and quality of its hinterland.'' Size alone is not the sole criterion.


Statement (iii) is correct: The text explicitly states, ``The quantity of cargo handled by a port is an indicator of the level of development of its hinterland.''


Statement (iv) is correct: The text refers to ports as the ``chief gateways of the world of international trade.''


Since statement (ii) is less accurate due to the omission of ``quality,'' the combination of (i), (iii), and (iv) is the best answer.
Quick Tip: In multiple-statement questions, verify if a statement is a partial truth. The omission of keywords like ``quality'' can make a statement incorrect in the context of specific textbook definitions.


Question 5:

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option :

Assertion (A) : `World Trade Organisation (WTO) is widening the gulf between rich and poor by making rich countries richer.'

Reason (R) : `The influential nations in the WTO focus on their own commercial interests.'

  • (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  • (B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  • (C) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
  • (D) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.
Correct Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
View Solution



Assertion (A) is correct: Critics of the WTO argue that free trade has not been fair and has often widened the gap between rich and poor nations.


Reason (R) is correct: Developed and influential nations are often criticized for focusing on their own commercial interests rather than the equitable development of all member nations.


Logical Link: The reason the gulf is widening (A) is because the influential nations skew the rules to serve their own interests (R), ignoring the needs of developing countries.


Since (R) provides the cause for the effect described in (A), it is the correct explanation.
Quick Tip: This question is based on the ``Criticism of International Trade'' section. Always check if the Reason justifies ``Why'' the Assertion is happening.


Question 6:

Choose the correct option to fill the blank.

The act of opening up economies for trading is known as \hspace{2cm}.

  • (A) Balanced trade
  • (B) Unilateral trade
  • (C) Free trade
  • (D) Bilateral trade
Correct Answer: (C) Free trade
View Solution



This is a direct definition from the chapter on International Trade.


The act of opening up economies for trading by removing trade barriers like tariffs and customs duties is known as ``free trade'' or ``trade liberalization''.


Balanced trade refers to when exports equal imports.


Bilateral and Unilateral trade refer to the number of countries involved in the trade agreement.


Therefore, (C) is the correct definition.
Quick Tip: "Opening up" implies removing barriers. This is the fundamental definition of Free Trade or Liberalization.


Question 7:

Arrange the following towns of India from the oldest to the newest order based on their historical evolution and choose the correct option :

(i) Jaipur

(ii) Chandigarh

(iii) Madurai

(iv) Jamshedpur

  • (A) (iii), (i), (ii), (iv)
  • (B) (iii), (i), (iv), (ii)
  • (C) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)
  • (D) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)
Correct Answer: (B) (iii), (i), (iv), (ii)
View Solution



We categorize each city by its historical period:


1. Madurai (iii): An Ancient town (historical/cultural capital existing for over 2000 years).


2. Jaipur (i): A Medieval town (founded in 1727 by Sawai Jai Singh II).


3. Jamshedpur (iv): A Modern industrial town (founded in the early 20th century, 1907, during the British colonial period).


4. Chandigarh (ii): A Modern planned city (developed after Independence in the 1950s).


Arranging them chronologically: Madurai \(\rightarrow\) Jaipur \(\rightarrow\) Jamshedpur \(\rightarrow\) Chandigarh.


This corresponds to sequence (iii), (i), (iv), (ii).
Quick Tip: Classify Indian towns into: Ancient (e.g., Varanasi, Madurai), Medieval (e.g., Delhi, Jaipur), and Modern (e.g., Surat, Jamshedpur, Chandigarh).


Question 8:

Read the following statements related to the objectives of smart city mission carefully and choose the correct option :

(i) To promote the city with clean and sustainable environment.

(ii) To provide decent quality of life to its citizens.

(iii) To provide employment to the job seekers.

(iv) To make the city less vulnerable to disasters.

  • (A) Only (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
  • (B) Only (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
  • (C) Only (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.
  • (D) Only (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct.
Correct Answer: (D) Only (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct.
View Solution



According to the NCERT section on ``Smart Cities Mission'':


The objective is to promote cities that provide core infrastructure and give a decent quality of life to its citizens (Statement ii).


It aims for a clean and sustainable environment (Statement i).


It mentions applying smart solutions to make areas less vulnerable to disasters (Statement iv).


While economic development is a goal, the specific phrase ``To provide employment to the job seekers'' is not listed as a primary distinct objective in the definition provided in the text, unlike the other three specific points.


Therefore, the combination (i), (ii), and (iv) is the most accurate based on the text.
Quick Tip: Focus on the "Core Infrastructure" and "Quality of Life" pillars when defining Smart Cities. Disaster resilience is part of the infrastructure goal.


Question 9:

Local names like Panna, Para, Palli, Nagla, Dhani etc. are examples of which of the following types of rural settlements in India ?

  • (A) Clustered settlement
  • (B) Semi-clustered settlement
  • (C) Hamleted settlement
  • (D) Dispersed settlement
Correct Answer: (C) Hamleted settlement
View Solution



This is a direct question based on the classification of rural settlements in India.


Hamleted settlements are those where the settlement is fragmented into several units physically separated from each other but bearing a common name.


The local names for these fragmented units are explicitly listed in the textbook as panna, para, palli, nagla, dhani, etc.


Therefore, option (C) is the correct answer.
Quick Tip: Memorize the local terms: Panna, Para, Palli, Nagla, Dhani \(\rightarrow\) Hamleted.


Question 10:

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option :

Assertion (A) : `The agriculturally rich states of Punjab, Haryana and western Uttar Pradesh are facing the crisis of groundwater depletion.'

Reason (R) : `More groundwater is utilised for irrigation than water-table recharge.'

  • (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  • (B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  • (C) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
  • (D) (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct.
Correct Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
View Solution



Assertion (A) is correct: The Green Revolution states like Punjab, Haryana, and Western UP have seen a significant decline in groundwater levels.


Reason (R) is correct: This decline is due to the over-exploitation of groundwater resources, where the rate of extraction for irrigation exceeds the rate of natural recharge.


Logical Link: The reason for the crisis/depletion (A) is explicitly the over-utilization relative to recharge (R).


Therefore, (R) correctly explains (A).
Quick Tip: Depletion of a resource occurs when Consumption \(>\) Replenishment. This simple logic connects the assertion and reason here.


Question 11:

Read the following statements related to Indira Gandhi Canal Project carefully and choose the correct option :

(i) Indira Gandhi Canal project was conceived by Kanwar Sain in 1950 and it was launched in 1961.

(ii) Introduction of canal irrigation has brought perceptible changes in the agricultural economy of the command area.

(iii) Spread of canal irrigation has led to increase in cultivated area and crop intensity.

(iv) Traditional crops of jowar, bajra has been replaced by rice and wheat etc.

  • (A) (i), (ii) and (iv) only are correct.
  • (B) (i), (ii) and (iii) only are correct.
  • (C) (i), (iii) and (iv) only are correct.
  • (D) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only are correct.
Correct Answer: (D) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only are correct.
View Solution



We evaluate the statements based on the NCERT chapter on "Planning and Sustainable Development":


Statement (i) is factually incorrect regarding the dates. The project was conceived by Kanwar Sain in 1948 (not 1950) and Stage-I was launched in 1958 (not 1961).


Statement (ii) is correct: The introduction of irrigation has transformed the agricultural economy of the dry region.


Statement (iii) is correct: The availability of water has significantly increased both the Net Sown Area and the intensity of cropping.


Statement (iv) is correct: Farmers have shifted from drought-resistant crops like jowar and bajra to water-intensive commercial crops like wheat, rice, and cotton.


Since statement (i) contains factual errors, the correct combination is (ii), (iii), and (iv).
Quick Tip: Pay close attention to dates in historical statements. Kanwar Sain conceived the idea in 1948, not 1950.


Question 12:

Read the following statements related to international trade of India carefully and choose the correct option :

(i) India has a long coastline surrounded by ocean from three sides.

(ii) Indian coasts have large number of well-developed sea ports.

(iii) Kandla port exports huge amount of iron-ore.

(iv) The transportation cost by water is very cheap for voluminous items.

  • (A) Only (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct.
  • (B) Only (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.
  • (C) Only (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
  • (D) Only (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
Correct Answer: (A) Only (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct.
View Solution



We verify each statement:


Statement (i) is correct: India has a long coastline.


Statement (ii) is correct: India has 12 major ports and about 200 minor ports handling the vast majority of foreign trade.


Statement (iii) is incorrect: Kandla Port (Deendayal Port) was developed to decongest Mumbai and primarily handles crude oil, petroleum products, fertilizers, and food grains. The major iron-ore exporting ports are Marmagao, Paradip, and Visakhapatnam.


Statement (iv) is correct: Water transport is universally acknowledged as the cheapest mode for heavy and bulky goods.


Since statement (iii) is false, any option containing it is incorrect. Thus, option (A) is the answer.
Quick Tip: Associate specific commodities with specific ports. Iron ore \(\rightarrow\) Marmagao/Paradip. Petroleum/Grain \(\rightarrow\) Kandla.


Question 13:

Why is it that slums are the areas of residence with least choice ? Choose the correct options :

(i) They have dilapidated houses with poor ventilation.

(ii) The basic facilities like lights and toilets are difficult to get.

(iii) Hygienic conditions and drinking water are improper.

(iv) Better drainage facilities are available.

  • (A) Only (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.
  • (B) Only (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
  • (C) Only (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
  • (D) Only (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct.
Correct Answer: (A) Only (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.
View Solution



This question describes the characteristics of slums:


Statement (i) is correct: Slum dwellings are typically dilapidated and poorly ventilated.


Statement (ii) is correct: There is a severe lack of basic amenities like electricity and sanitation.


Statement (iii) is correct: "Improper" means poor or bad. Slums suffer from unhygienic conditions and lack of safe drinking water.


Statement (iv) is incorrect: Slums are characterized by open, stagnant, or non-existent drainage, not "better" drainage facilities.


Therefore, the correct description includes statements (i), (ii), and (iii).
Quick Tip: Read descriptors like "Improper" carefully. "Improper hygienic conditions" is a true statement about slums (meaning conditions are bad).


Question 14:

The watershed management programme in Jhabua district of Madhya Pradesh is funded by which one of the following ministries ?

  • (A) Rural Development
  • (B) Environment
  • (C) Transport
  • (D) Irrigation
Correct Answer: (A) Rural Development
View Solution



According to the NCERT case study on Jhabua in the "Planning and Sustainable Development" chapter:


The watershed management programmes in Jhabua are being implemented by the Rajiv Gandhi Mission for Watershed Management.


The text explicitly states it is "funded by the Ministry of Rural Development and Agriculture, Government of India."


Therefore, (A) is the correct option.
Quick Tip: Key Case Study Fact: Jhabua Watershed \(\rightarrow\) Ministry of Rural Development.


Question 15:

Under which one of the following category of commodities, increase in export is continuously observed ?

\textit{(Refer to the table "Composition of India's export: 2009-2017")

  • (A) Agriculture and allied products
  • (B) Ore and minerals
  • (C) Manufactured goods
  • (D) Other commodities
Correct Answer: (C) Manufactured goods
View Solution



We analyze the data row for each option across the years 2009-10, 2010-11, 2015-16, and 2016-17:


(A) Agriculture: 10.0 \(\rightarrow\) 9.9 (Decrease) \(\rightarrow\) 12.6 \(\rightarrow\) 12.3. Not continuous.


(B) Ore and minerals: 4.9 \(\rightarrow\) 4.0 (Decrease). Not continuous.


(C) Manufactured goods: 67.4 \(\rightarrow\) 68.0 (Increase) \(\rightarrow\) 72.9 (Increase) \(\rightarrow\) 73.6 (Increase). This shows a continuous increase.


(D) Other commodities: 1.5 \(\rightarrow\) 1.2 (Decrease). Not continuous.


Therefore, Manufactured goods is the only category showing a continuous increase in percentage share.
Quick Tip: "Continuous increase" means the value must go up at every single time step provided in the table, without any drops.


Question 16:

Under which one of the following category of commodities, maximum decline in export is recorded from 2015-16 to 2016-17 ?

\textit{(Refer to the table "Composition of India's export: 2009-2017")

  • (A) Agriculture and allied products
  • (B) Ore and minerals
  • (C) Crude and petroleum products
  • (D) Other commodities
Correct Answer: (D) Other commodities
View Solution



We calculate the difference between 2015-16 and 2016-17 for the options:


(A) Agriculture: \(12.6 - 12.3 = 0.3\) (Decline of 0.3)


(B) Ore and minerals: \(1.6 - 1.9 = -0.3\) (Increase of 0.3)


(C) Crude and petroleum: \(11.9 - 11.7 = 0.2\) (Decline of 0.2)


(D) Other commodities: \(1.1 - 0.5 = 0.6\) (Decline of 0.6)


Comparing the declines: 0.6 (Others) > 0.3 (Agri) > 0.2 (Crude).


The maximum decline is in "Other commodities".
Quick Tip: Always calculate the simple difference for each option. Don't guess based on the size of the category.


Question 17:

Under which one of the following categories of commodities, the increase in export is observed from 2010-11 to 2016-17 ?

\textit{(Refer to the table "Composition of India's export: 2009-2017")

  • (A) Agriculture and allied products
  • (B) Ore and minerals
  • (C) Crude and petroleum products
  • (D) Other commodities
Correct Answer: (A) Agriculture and allied products
View Solution



We compare the values from 2010-11 to 2016-17:


(A) Agriculture: \(9.9 \rightarrow 12.3\) (Increase).


(B) Ore and minerals: \(4.0 \rightarrow 1.9\) (Decrease).


(C) Crude and petroleum: \(16.8 \rightarrow 11.7\) (Decrease).


(D) Other commodities: \(1.2 \rightarrow 0.5\) (Decrease).


Only "Agriculture and allied products" shows an increase among the given options.
Quick Tip: Read the column headers carefully to ensure you are comparing the correct years (2010-11 vs 2016-17).


Question 18:

Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow :


The earliest human beings depended on their immediate environment for their sustenance. They subsisted on : (a) animals which they hunted; and (b) the edible plants which they gathered from forests in the vicinity.

Primitive societies depended on wild animals. People located in very cold and extremely hot climates survived on hunting. The people in the coastal areas still catch fish though fishing has experienced modernisation due to technological development. Many species, now have become extinct or endangered due to illegal hunting (poaching). The early hunters used primitive tools made of stones, twigs or arrows so the number of animals killed was limited.



Examine the impact of poaching on wild animals.

Correct Answer: Poaching leads to the extinction and endangerment of wild animal species.
View Solution



Based on the provided text, poaching is defined as illegal hunting.


The text explicitly states that ``Many species, now have become extinct or endangered due to illegal hunting (poaching).''


Therefore, the primary impact is the drastic reduction in wildlife populations, pushing them towards extinction.
Quick Tip: In passage-based questions, look for the specific keyword ``poaching'' in the text and paraphrase the sentence immediately following it.


Question 19:

Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow :


The earliest human beings depended on their immediate environment for their sustenance. They subsisted on : (a) animals which they hunted; and (b) the edible plants which they gathered from forests in the vicinity.

Primitive societies depended on wild animals. People located in very cold and extremely hot climates survived on hunting. The people in the coastal areas still catch fish though fishing has experienced modernisation due to technological development. Many species, now have become extinct or endangered due to illegal hunting (poaching). The early hunters used primitive tools made of stones, twigs or arrows so the number of animals killed was limited.


Why was hunting of animals limited in early times ? Explain.

Correct Answer: Hunting was limited due to the use of primitive and inefficient tools.
View Solution



The passage explains the tools used by early societies.


It states, ``The early hunters used primitive tools made of stones, twigs or arrows.''


Because these tools were not advanced or efficient, ``the number of animals killed was limited.''


Thus, the technological limitation of weaponry was the main reason for the limited scale of hunting.
Quick Tip: Identify the cause-and-effect relationship in the text: Cause (Primitive Tools) \(\rightarrow\) Effect (Limited Hunting).


Question 20:

Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow :

The earliest human beings depended on their immediate environment for their sustenance. They subsisted on : (a) animals which they hunted; and (b) the edible plants which they gathered from forests in the vicinity.

Primitive societies depended on wild animals. People located in very cold and extremely hot climates survived on hunting. The people in the coastal areas still catch fish though fishing has experienced modernisation due to technological development. Many species, now have become extinct or endangered due to illegal hunting (poaching). The early hunters used primitive tools made of stones, twigs or arrows so the number of animals killed was limited.


Why did early man depend upon his immediate natural environment ? Explain.

Correct Answer: Due to a very low level of technology and lack of alternatives.
View Solution



The text describes the economic orientation of early human beings.


It mentions that these activities operated at a ``very low level of technology.''


Without the means to transport resources from afar or modify their surroundings significantly, they had to rely on what was locally available.


Therefore, they subsisted on animals and plants found in their ``immediate environment'' or vicinity.
Quick Tip: Key concept: Low Technology = High Dependence on Nature.


Question 21:

Study the following table carefully and answer the questions that follow :

Mention the reason for the decrease in cultivable waste land in 2014-15 as compared to 1950-51.


Correct Answer: Land reclamation for agriculture and non-agricultural development.
View Solution



Cultivable waste land refers to land that is available for cultivation but not currently used.


Over the decades, as the population increased, there was a high demand for more food.


This led to the reclamation of waste land to convert it into ``Net Area Sown'' for agriculture.


Additionally, expansion of infrastructure and settlements (non-agricultural uses) has occupied some of this land.
Quick Tip: Land Use Shift: Cultivable Waste \(\rightarrow\) Net Sown Area (due to population pressure).


Question 22:

Study the following table carefully and answer the questions that follow :

Mention the reason for the increase in current fallow during 2014-15 as compared to 1950-51.

Correct Answer: Rainfall variability and soil fertility management.
View Solution



Current fallow refers to land left uncultivated for a period of less than one year.


The increase is often due to fluctuations in rainfall; if the monsoon is delayed or insufficient, farmers cannot sow crops, increasing the fallow area.


It is also a deliberate practice to allow the soil to naturally replenish its nutrients and fertility between crop cycles.
Quick Tip: Current Fallow is temporary. It is highly sensitive to the ``Monsoon'' performance in a given year.


Question 23:

Study the following table carefully and answer the questions that follow :

Explain the reason of continuous increase in net area sown.

Correct Answer: Increasing demand for food grains due to population growth.
View Solution



Net Area Sown represents the physical extent of land on which crops are sown.


India's population has grown rapidly since 1950, creating a massive demand for food.


To meet this demand, agriculture has expanded into previously uncultivated areas (like waste lands and fallow lands).


Advancements in agricultural technology have also enabled farming in difficult terrains, further increasing the sown area.
Quick Tip: Primary Driver: Population Growth \(\rightarrow\) Food Security Need \(\rightarrow\) Expansion of Agriculture.


Question 24:

Examine the role of climate, water availability and soil fertility on the distribution of world population.

Correct Answer: These geographical factors determine the carrying capacity and habitability of a region.
View Solution



1. Climate:


Climate is the most influential factor. People prefer moderate climates with adequate rainfall (e.g., Western Europe).


Extreme climates like hot deserts (Sahara) or cold polar regions (Antarctica) restrict human habitation due to harsh conditions.


2. Water Availability:


Water is essential for survival, agriculture, and industry.


Historically, river valleys (like the Indus, Nile, and Yellow River) have been the cradles of civilization and remain densely populated today.


3. Soil Fertility:


Fertile soils are the basis of agriculture.


Regions with rich alluvial or loamy soils (e.g., Northern Plains of India) support high population densities because they can produce enough food to sustain many people.
Quick Tip: Remember the ``C-W-S'' factor triad: Climate (Comfort), Water (Life), Soil (Food).


Question 25:

Examine three stages of demographic transition theory.

Correct Answer: The transition from high birth/death rates to low birth/death rates occurs in three stages.
View Solution



Stage I (High Stationary):


Both fertility (birth rate) and mortality (death rate) are very high.


Population growth is slow or stationary. Society is agrarian with low technology and low life expectancy.


Stage II (Early Expanding):


Fertility remains high, but mortality drops sharply due to medical and sanitary improvements.


This widens the gap between birth and death rates, leading to a ``population explosion'' or rapid growth.


Stage III (Late Expanding / Low Stationary):


Both fertility and mortality fall to low levels.


The population stabilizes or grows very slowly. This stage corresponds to urbanized, literate, and developed societies.
Quick Tip: Demographic Transition Summary: Stage 1 = No Growth (High/High); Stage 2 = Rapid Growth (High/Low); Stage 3 = Stability (Low/Low).


Question 26:

Study the map of Rhine waterways and answer the questions that follow :

Name the country in which most of Rhine river lies.


Correct Answer: Germany
View Solution



By observing the provided map of the Rhine waterway, the longest stretch of the river flows through the territory of Germany.


The river runs from Basel (Switzerland border) through the heart of Western Germany (past Cologne, Duisburg) before entering the Netherlands.


Therefore, Germany is the country containing the majority of the river's length.
Quick Tip: Map Skill: Trace the river's path on the map. The segment within the "Germany" label is clearly the longest.


Question 27:

Study the map of Rhine waterways and answer the questions that follow :

Name two countries whose industrial areas are connected by river Rhine.


Correct Answer: Germany and The Netherlands (or Switzerland/France)
View Solution



The map shows the Rhine flowing through and connecting major industrial centers.


It connects the Ruhr industrial region of Germany (cities like Duisburg, Cologne).


It flows into The Netherlands to reach the port of Rotterdam.


It also touches the borders of France (Strasbourg) and starts from Switzerland (Basel), connecting their industrial zones as well.
Quick Tip: Look for the country names labeled along the river course on the map: Switzerland, France, Germany, Netherlands.


Question 28:

Study the map of Rhine waterways and answer the questions that follow :

Why is river Rhine world's most heavily used waterway ?


Correct Answer: It connects rich industrial coalfields to the North Atlantic trade route.
View Solution



The Rhine flows through the Ruhr region of Germany, which is a rich coalfield and a manufacturing hub.


It provides a direct navigable link for these industries to Rotterdam, a major port on the North Sea.


This connects the industrial heartland of Europe to the busy North Atlantic Sea Route, facilitating massive trade in raw materials and finished goods.
Quick Tip: Key Logic: Resources (Coal/Ruhr) + Connectivity (Rotterdam/Sea) = High Traffic.


Question 29:

Mention the name of the country from where the Rhine waterway begins in the upstream.

Correct Answer: Switzerland
View Solution



The Rhine river originates in the Swiss Alps.


Basel, located in Switzerland, is the major head of navigation for large vessels in the upstream section.
Quick Tip: River Source: Rhine starts in the Alps (Switzerland).


Question 30:

Name the major sea port where river Rhine falls into North Sea.

Correct Answer: Rotterdam
View Solution



The Rhine river flows into the North Sea through the Netherlands.


The port located at its mouth (estuary) is Rotterdam, which is one of the world's busiest ports.
Quick Tip: River Mouth: Rhine ends at Rotterdam (Netherlands).


Question 31:

Explain the significance of river Rhine as a water highway of commerce.

Correct Answer: It is the lifeline of European trade, moving bulk goods cheaply.
View Solution



The Rhine is significant because it is navigable for 700 km by large ocean-going vessels.


It connects the industrial heart of Europe (Germany, France, Switzerland) to international markets via the North Sea.


It transports huge tonnages of heavy goods like coal, iron ore, and grain at a cost much lower than road or rail.
Quick Tip: "Water Highway" implies volume and connectivity. Think of it as the "Ruhr's outlet to the world."


Question 32:

Explain the main characteristics of rural roads in India.

Correct Answer: Critical connectivity links, vast network, density variations, PMGSY development.
View Solution



1. Connectivity: Rural roads provide vital links between villages and nearby towns or markets, facilitating the movement of agricultural produce.


2. Proportion: They form the bulk of India's road network, constituting about 80% of the total road length.


3. Surface Type: A large number of these roads are still 'kucha' (unmetalled), making them difficult to use during the monsoon season.


4. Government Initiatives: The quality and reach of rural roads are being upgraded under the Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY).
Quick Tip: Keyword association: Rural Roads \(\leftrightarrow\) PMGSY \(\leftrightarrow\) 80% of network.


Question 33:

Suggest the measures to achieve the objectives of `Namami Gange Programme'.

Correct Answer: Sewage treatment, riverfront development, afforestation, public awareness.
View Solution



1. Sewage Treatment Infrastructure: Developing adequate sewage treatment plants (STPs) in cities along the Ganga to prevent the discharge of untreated wastewater.


2. River-Front Development: Improving ghats and crematoria to ensure sanitation and prevent pollution from ritualistic practices.


3. Afforestation: Planting trees along the river banks to reduce soil erosion, recharge groundwater, and filter run-off.


4. Public Awareness \& Monitoring: Launching campaigns to stop plastic disposal and industrial effluent discharge, backed by strict monitoring of water quality.
Quick Tip: Think of the pollution sources: Urban Sewage (STPs), Industrial Waste (Monitoring), Soil Erosion (Trees).


Question 34:

Explain the concept of `human development'. Examine four approaches to human development.

Correct Answer: Enlarging choices/freedoms. Approaches: Income, Welfare, Basic Needs, Capability.
View Solution



Concept:

Human development is defined as the process of enlarging people's choices and improving the quality of their lives.

It emphasizes that people, not material wealth, are the real wealth of a nation.


Four Approaches:

1. Income Approach: Links development to income level. Higher income implies higher development (freedom).


2. Welfare Approach: Views humans as beneficiaries. Arguments for higher government spending on education, health, and amenities.


3. Basic Needs Approach: Proposed by ILO. Focuses on 6 basic needs: health, education, food, water, sanitation, housing.


4. Capability Approach: Proposed by Amartya Sen. Focuses on building human capabilities (skills/health) to access resources and choices.
Quick Tip: Amartya Sen \(\rightarrow\) Capability. ILO \(\rightarrow\) Basic Needs. Oldest \(\rightarrow\) Income.


Question 35:

Explain the main features of large scale manufacturing industries in the world.

Correct Answer: Mechanization, Division of Labor, Capital Intensive, Innovation.
View Solution



1. Specialization of Skills: Methods of production are standardized, and labor is divided into specialized tasks (assembly line) to boost efficiency.


2. Mechanization: Automation and the use of gadgets/machines are central to the production process to ensure volume and consistency.


3. Technological Innovation: Constant R\&D is employed to eliminate waste, control quality, and improve efficiency.


4. Organizational Structure: These industries have complex hierarchical management, huge capital investment, and executive bureaucracy.
Quick Tip: Think of a car factory: Assembly lines, robots, big managers, lots of money.


Question 36:

Explain the main features of `High Tech' industries in the world.

Correct Answer: R\&D intensive, White-collar workforce, Clean environments, Technopoles.
View Solution



1. R\&D Intensity: High-tech industries rely heavily on scientific research and the development of new, advanced products.


2. Professional Workforce: The workforce consists largely of highly skilled specialists and professionals (white-collar workers) rather than manual laborers.


3. Clean Environment: Operations are housed in modern, neat, and clean buildings (often resembling offices) rather than smoky factories.


4. Agglomeration: These industries tend to cluster in specialized zones called ``technopoles'' (e.g., Silicon Valley) near universities and research institutes.
Quick Tip: High Tech = Brain Power > Muscle Power.


Question 37:

Assess the growth and significance of service sector in the development of the world economy.

Correct Answer: Dominant sector in developed economies, high value generation.
View Solution



1. Economic Dominance: In developed nations, the service sector generates the majority of the GDP and employs the largest share of the workforce.


2. Correlation with Income: As per capita income increases, demand for services (health, education, leisure) grows faster than demand for goods.


3. Support System: Services like finance, transport, and consulting are the backbone that supports the growth of the primary and secondary sectors.


4. Global Trade: Trade in services (outsourcing, tourism, consulting) has become a major component of international trade, integrating global economies.
Quick Tip: Development Shift: Agrarian \(\rightarrow\) Industrial \(\rightarrow\) Service-based Economy.


Question 38:

Assess the growth and significance of transport and communication services in the world economy.

Correct Answer: Facilitates trade, globalization, and social integration.
View Solution



1. Economic Lifelines: Transport networks move raw materials to factories and finished products to markets; without them, production halts.


2. Reducing Distance: Improvements in transport (faster ships/planes) and communication (internet) have ``shrunk'' the world, reducing time and cost.


3. Globalization: Communication services allow instant exchange of capital and information, enabling multinational corporations to operate globally.


4. Regional Development: Connectivity opens up backward areas to economic opportunities, reducing regional disparities.
Quick Tip: Transport = Physical connectivity. Communication = Digital/Information connectivity. Both are essential for Trade.


Question 39:

Analyse the rural-urban characteristics of Indian population.

Correct Answer: Predominantly rural (~69%), but urbanizing; occupational divide.
View Solution



1. Rural Dominance: According to Census 2011, 68.8% of India's population lives in rural areas (villages).


2. Urbanization Trend: The urban population (31.16%) is growing at a faster rate than the rural population due to migration and economic shifts.


3. Occupational Structure: Rural areas are characterized by primary activities (agriculture), while urban areas focus on secondary and tertiary sectors.


4. Regional Disparities: Urbanization is high in developed states (Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu) but low in agrarian states (Bihar, Odisha).
Quick Tip: Stat to remember: Census 2011 Rural-Urban ratio is roughly 69:31.


Question 40:

Analyse the main features of the composition of working population in India.

Correct Answer: Low participation rate, agricultural dominance, gender gap.
View Solution



1. Work Participation Rate: Only about 39.8% of India's population are workers; the rest are dependents.


2. Classification: Workers are divided into Main Workers (worked > 6 months) and Marginal Workers (worked < 6 months).


3. Sectoral Composition: The largest share of the workforce (approx 54.6%) is still engaged in the primary sector (cultivators and agricultural laborers).


4. Gender Disparity: The work participation rate for females is significantly lower than for males, particularly in urban secondary/tertiary sectors.
Quick Tip: Key Definition: Main Worker = > 183 days of work. Marginal Worker = < 183 days.


Question 41:

``Petroleum is an essential source of energy and many byproducts are associated with its refining.'' Explain this statement with examples.

Correct Answer: It fuels transport/industry and provides raw material for petrochemicals.
View Solution



1. Energy Source: Petroleum provides the fuel (petrol, diesel, jet fuel) that powers the world's automobiles, aircraft, ships, and railways.


2. Nodal Industry: Oil refineries are ``nodal industries'' because they supply raw materials for numerous other industries.


3. Byproducts: The fractional distillation of crude oil yields vital byproducts like kerosene, lubricants, bitumen, and paraffin wax.


4. Petrochemicals: It is the base for the petrochemical industry, producing synthetic fibers (nylon), synthetic rubber, fertilizers, and plastics.
Quick Tip: Think beyond fuel: Your plastic pen, nylon shirt, and fertilizer all come from Petroleum byproducts.


Question 42:

``The generation of energy through non-conventional sources is the need of the hour for sustainable development.'' Explain the statement with examples.

Correct Answer: Fossil fuels are exhaustible/polluting; Renewables are clean/infinite.
View Solution



1. Exhaustibility: Conventional sources like coal and petroleum are finite and will run out. Non-conventional sources (Sun, Wind) are renewable and inexhaustible.


2. Environmental Impact: Fossil fuels cause pollution and global warming. Renewables like solar and wind are eco-friendly and reduce carbon footprints.


3. Decentralization: Sources like solar and biomass can be produced locally in rural areas, reducing transmission losses and dependence on the grid.


4. Examples: Solar energy (using photovoltaic cells), Wind energy (wind farms), and Biomass energy are key to a sustainable energy future.
Quick Tip: Sustainable Development = Meeting present needs without compromising the future. Renewables fit this perfectly.


Question 43:

Identify the geographical feature marked as 'A' on the map.




A. Major sea port in Germany.

Correct Answer: Hamburg
View Solution



The point 'A' is located on the northern coast of Germany.


Hamburg is the most prominent major sea port in this region of Germany.
Quick Tip: Germany's main port on the North Sea is Hamburg.


Question 44:

Identify the geographical feature marked as 'B' on the map.

B. Terminal station of Trans-Siberian Railway.

Correct Answer: Vladivostok
View Solution



The point 'B' is on the extreme eastern coast of Russia, facing the Pacific Ocean.


This is the location of Vladivostok, the eastern terminus of the Trans-Siberian Railway.
Quick Tip: Trans-Siberian: St. Petersburg (West) to Vladivostok (East).


Question 45:

Identify the geographical feature marked as 'C' on the map.

C. An international airport.

Correct Answer: Cape Town
View Solution



The point 'C' is located at the southern tip of Africa in South Africa.


This corresponds to the city of Cape Town.
Quick Tip: Southern tip of Africa \(\rightarrow\) Cape Town.


Question 46:

Identify the geographical feature marked as 'D' on the map.

D. An area of subsistence gathering.

Correct Answer: Northern Canada
View Solution



The shaded region 'D' covers the northern parts of Canada and Alaska.


This is a Tundra region inhabited by tribes (like Inuit) who practice subsistence gathering and hunting.
Quick Tip: High Latitude North America = Subsistence Gathering / Hunting.


Question 47:

Identify the geographical feature marked as 'E' on the map.

E. An important waterway.

Correct Answer: Panama Canal
View Solution



The point 'E' is located on the isthmus connecting North and South America.


This is the location of the Panama Canal, which connects the Atlantic and Pacific Oceans.
Quick Tip: Central American Isthmus = Panama Canal.


Question 48:

Identify the geographical feature marked as 'F' on the map.

F. An area of `Nomadic Herding'.

Correct Answer: North Africa (Sahara) / Sahel
View Solution



The shaded area 'F' is in Northern Africa, covering parts of the Sahara Desert.


This arid region is a traditional zone for nomadic herding (pastoral nomadism).
Quick Tip: Deserts (Sahara, Arabia, Gobi) are key regions for Nomadic Herding.


Question 49:

Identify the geographical feature marked as 'G' on the map.

G. An area of extensive commercial grain farming.

Correct Answer: Downs (Australia)
View Solution



The shaded area 'G' is in southeastern Australia.


This region is known as the 'Downs', which is famous for extensive commercial grain farming (wheat).
Quick Tip: Australia's Wheat Bowl = Downs.


Question 50:

Note : The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of Question No. 29. Answer any five :

Name the major seaport in Germany.

Correct Answer: Hamburg
View Solution



Hamburg is the largest and most significant seaport in Germany.


It is located on the river Elbe near the North Sea.
Quick Tip: Germany's Gateway = Hamburg.


Question 51:

Name the easternmost terminal station of Trans-Siberian Railway.

Correct Answer: Vladivostok
View Solution



The Trans-Siberian Railway runs across Russia from West to East.


Its western terminal is St. Petersburg.


Its eastern terminal, located on the Pacific coast, is Vladivostok.
Quick Tip: East End of Trans-Siberian = Vladivostok.


Question 52:

Mention an international airport in South Africa.

Correct Answer: Cape Town (or Johannesburg)
View Solution



Cape Town International Airport is a major airport serving the city of Cape Town.


It corresponds to location 'C' on the visual map provided in the main question.
Quick Tip: Major SA Airports: Cape Town, O.R. Tambo (Johannesburg).


Question 53:

Mention an area of subsistence gathering in Canada.

Correct Answer: Northern Canada (Tundra Region)
View Solution



The northernmost parts of Canada experience a harsh Tundra climate.


In this region, indigenous tribes (like the Inuit) traditionally practice subsistence gathering and hunting.
Quick Tip: Cold Deserts/Tundra = Gathering activity.


Question 54:

Name an important waterway of Egypt.

Correct Answer: Suez Canal
View Solution



The Suez Canal is a man-made waterway in Egypt.


It connects the Mediterranean Sea to the Red Sea, significantly shortening the route between Europe and Asia.
Quick Tip: Egypt's Key Waterway = Suez Canal.


Question 55:

Mention an area of nomadic herding in Africa.

Correct Answer: The Sahara Desert (or Sahel region)
View Solution



Nomadic herding is practiced in arid and semi-arid regions.


The Sahara Desert in North Africa is a prominent region for this activity.
Quick Tip: Deserts = Nomadic Herding.


Question 56:

Mention an area of extensive commercial grain farming of Australia.

Correct Answer: The Downs
View Solution



The Downs are the temperate grasslands located in southeastern Australia.


This region is famous for the extensive commercial cultivation of wheat.
Quick Tip: Australian Grasslands = Downs.


Question 57:

Locate and label the following on the political outline map of India:





Important iron ore mines in Odisha.

Correct Answer: Mayurbhanj (or Kendujhar)
View Solution



In the state of Odisha, the major iron ore mining belts are located in the districts of Mayurbhanj and Kendujhar (Keonjhar).


Marking either of these locations in northern Odisha is correct.
Quick Tip: Odisha Iron Ore = Mayurbhanj.


Question 58:

Locate and label the following on the political outline map of India:

An important seaport in Kerala.

Correct Answer: Kochi (Cochin)
View Solution



Kochi is the major seaport located on the southwestern coast of India in the state of Kerala.
Quick Tip: Queen of the Arabian Sea = Kochi.


Question 59:

Locate and label the following on the political outline map of India:

A copper mine in Rajasthan.

Correct Answer: Khetri
View Solution



The Khetri copper mines are located in the Jhunjhunu district of Rajasthan.


This is the most significant copper mining region in Western India.
Quick Tip: Rajasthan Copper = Khetri.


Question 60:

Locate and label the following on the political outline map of India:

An oil refinery in Bihar.

Correct Answer: Barauni
View Solution



Barauni Refinery is a major oil refinery located in the Begusarai district of Bihar.


It was built in collaboration with the Soviet Union.
Quick Tip: Bihar Refinery = Barauni.


Question 61:

Locate and label the following on the political outline map of India:

An international airport in Punjab.

Correct Answer: Amritsar (Sri Guru Ram Dass Jee International Airport)
View Solution



The major international airport in Punjab is located in the city of Amritsar.
Quick Tip: Punjab Airport = Amritsar.


Question 62:

Locate and label the following on the political outline map of India:

A state with highest density of population.

Correct Answer: Bihar
View Solution



According to the 2011 Census, Bihar has the highest population density among Indian states, with 1106 persons per sq. km.
Quick Tip: Highest Density State = Bihar. (Union Territory is Delhi).


Question 63:

Locate and label the following on the political outline map of India:

A state leading in the production of jute.

Correct Answer: West Bengal
View Solution



West Bengal is the largest producer of jute in India, accounting for the vast majority of the country's total production.


This is due to the suitable alluvial soil and hot, humid climate of the Ganga-Brahmaputra delta.
Quick Tip: Golden Fibre (Jute) = West Bengal.


Question 64:

Note : The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of Question No. 30. Attempt any five :

Name an important iron ore mining area in Odisha.

Correct Answer: Mayurbhanj (or Kendujhar/Keonjhar)
View Solution



Odisha is a leading producer of iron ore in India.


Mayurbhanj is one of the most significant districts for iron ore mines (e.g., Gorumahisani).
Quick Tip: Odisha Iron = Mayurbhanj belt.


Question 65:

Name the main sea port of Kerala.

Correct Answer: Kochi (Cochin)
View Solution



Kochi is a major port city on the south-west coast of India.


It is located in the state of Kerala and handles significant international trade.
Quick Tip: Kerala's Port = Kochi.


Question 66:

Mention the name of a copper mining area of Rajasthan.

Correct Answer: Khetri
View Solution



The Khetri Copper Complex is located in the Jhunjhunu district of Rajasthan.


It is the most famous historical and modern copper mining site in India.
Quick Tip: Rajasthan Copper = Khetri.


Question 67:

Name the place of an oil refinery in Bihar.

Correct Answer: Barauni
View Solution



Barauni is an industrial town in the Begusarai district of Bihar.


It hosts a major oil refinery owned by Indian Oil Corporation.
Quick Tip: Refinery in Bihar = Barauni.


Question 68:

Mention the name of a place where an international airport is located in Punjab.

Correct Answer: Amritsar
View Solution



The Sri Guru Ram Dass Jee International Airport is located in Amritsar, Punjab.


It serves as the main international gateway for the state.
Quick Tip: Punjab International Airport = Amritsar.


Question 69:

Name the state with highest density of population.

Correct Answer: Bihar
View Solution



Based on the Census of India 2011 data.


Bihar has the highest population density among all states (1106 persons per sq. km).


(Note: West Bengal was the highest in 2001, but Bihar overtook it in 2011).
Quick Tip: 2011 Census: Highest Density State = Bihar.


Question 70:

Which is the leading state in the production of jute ?

Correct Answer: West Bengal
View Solution



West Bengal produces nearly three-fourths of India's total jute.


The Hooghly basin provides the ideal conditions (water, soil, climate) for jute cultivation.
Quick Tip: Jute = West Bengal (Hooghly Basin).

*The article might have information for the previous academic years, please refer the official website of the exam.

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