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Sanghamitra Deb

Content Writer | Updated On - Dec 5, 2025

CBSE Class 12 Geography Exam 2025 Question Paper with Solution PDF is available for download. CBSE conducted the exam successfully on February 24, 2025, from 10:30 AM to 1:30 PM in pen-paper mode. As per students’ initial reactions, the CBSE Class 12 Geography 2025 Question Paper was reported as well-balanced and moderate. The map-based and application-based questions were moderately difficult, while multiple-choice and conceptual questions were reported as easy.

CBSE Class 12 Geography (Set 1 – 64/4/1) Question Paper 2025 with Solution PDF

CBSE Board Class 12 Geography Question Paper Download PDF Check Solutions
CBSE Class 12 Geography Question Paper 2025 With Solutions Set 1 64 4 1

Question 1:

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option.

Assertion (A) : Foot loose industries can be located in a wide variety of places.

Reason (R) : Location of foot loose industries is determined by transport network accessibility.

  • (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  • (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  • (C) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
  • (D) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
Correct Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
View Solution



Assertion (A) is true: Foot loose industries are not dependent on specific raw materials (weight-losing or otherwise), so they are not tied to specific locations and can be situated in many different places.


Reason (R) is true: Since they depend on component parts that can be obtained anywhere, the most critical factor for their location becomes the accessibility by road or transport networks to bring in parts and ship out products.


Logical Link: Because the primary determinant is transport accessibility (R), and transport networks are widespread, these industries can be located in a wide variety of places (A). Thus, (R) explains (A).
Quick Tip: Remember: Foot loose industries = No raw material tie + Small labor force + Dependence on Road Accessibility.


Question 2:

Read the following statements related to `intensive subsistence agriculture' other than paddy in the world carefully and choose the correct option.

I. Wheat is grown in western parts of the Indo-Gangetic plains in India.

II. Wheat is grown in monsoonal areas only.

III. Millets are grown in dry parts of western and southern India.

IV. Wheat, soyabean etc. are grown in northern China.

  • (A) Only I, II and IV are correct.
  • (B) Only II, III and IV are correct.
  • (C) Only I, III and IV are correct.
  • (D) Only I, II and III are correct.
Correct Answer: (C) Only I, III and IV are correct.
View Solution



Statement I is correct: The western Indo-Gangetic plains (Punjab, Haryana, Western UP) are the main wheat-producing regions in India.


Statement II is incorrect: Wheat is a temperate crop and is not restricted to "monsoonal areas only". In India, it is a winter (Rabi) crop, and globally it is grown in many non-monsoonal regions (e.g., Prairies, Steppes).


Statement III is correct: Millets (jowar, bajra) are drought-resistant crops grown in the dry semi-arid regions of western and southern India.


Statement IV is correct: Northern China (Manchuria region) is a major producer of wheat and soybeans.


Therefore, the correct combination is I, III, and IV.
Quick Tip: Watch out for extreme words like "only" in statements. Wheat is grown in many climatic zones, not just monsoonal ones.


Question 3:

Identify the correct option related to transport services from the following.

  • (A) It comes under the quaternary sector of economic activities.
  • (B) It is an organised industry which provides man's basic needs of physical mobility.
  • (C) It is concerned with digital sending and receiving of information.
  • (D) Roads, railways, television and internet are some of its examples.
Correct Answer: (B) It is an organised industry which provides man's basic needs of physical mobility.
View Solution



Option (A) is incorrect: Transport falls under the Tertiary sector, not Quaternary (which involves knowledge/information).


Option (B) is correct: This is the definition provided in the NCERT text. Transport is an organized industry designed to satisfy the basic human need for mobility (moving people and goods).


Option (C) is incorrect: Digital transmission refers to Communication, not physical Transport.


Option (D) is incorrect: While roads and railways are transport, television and internet are means of communication.
Quick Tip: Distinguish between Transport (movement of goods/people) and Communication (movement of ideas/information).


Question 4:

Arrange the following sea ports from Europe to India before the operation of Suez Canal and choose the correct option.

I. Cape Town \hspace{1cm} II. Mombasa

III. London \hspace{1.5cm} IV. Mumbai

  • (A) I, II, III, IV
  • (B) I, III, II, IV
  • (C) III, II, I, IV
  • (D) III, I, II, IV
Correct Answer: (D) III, I, II, IV
View Solution



Before the Suez Canal (1869), the route from Europe to India went around the continent of Africa (Cape Route).


1. London (III): The starting point in Europe (UK).


2. Cape Town (I): Ships would sail south through the Atlantic to the southern tip of Africa.


3. Mombasa (II): Rounding the Cape, ships might stop at ports along the East African coast like Mombasa before crossing the Indian Ocean.


4. Mumbai (IV): The destination port in India.


The geographic sequence is London \(\rightarrow\) Cape Town \(\rightarrow\) Mombasa \(\rightarrow\) Mumbai.
Quick Tip: Visualize the map: Europe (North) \(\rightarrow\) South Africa (South) \(\rightarrow\) East Africa \(\rightarrow\) India (East).


Question 5:

Choose the correctly matched pair of sea ports and their examples.

  • (A) Out Ports -- Duisburg
  • (B) Ports of Call -- Piraeus
  • (C) Oil Ports -- Tripoli
  • (D) Naval Ports -- Kolkata
Correct Answer: (C) Oil Ports -- Tripoli
View Solution



(A) Duisburg is the world's largest \textit{inland river port (on the Rhine), not an out port.


(B) Piraeus (Greece) is a major commercial/passenger port. Typical examples of "Ports of Call" in textbooks are Aden, Honolulu, or Singapore.


(C) Tripoli (Lebanon) is explicitly mentioned in the NCERT textbook as an Oil Port (a terminal for oil pipelines).


(D) Kolkata is a commercial riverine port. Naval ports are strategic bases like Karwar or Kochi.


Therefore, (C) is the correctly matched pair.
Quick Tip: Memorize specific examples from the textbook: Oil Ports = Tripoli, Maracaibo, Abadan.


Question 6:

Choose the correct option of group of states of iron ore reserves from high to low.

  • (A) Odisha, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh
  • (B) Maharashtra, Jharkhand, Andhra Pradesh
  • (C) Odisha, Tamil Nadu, Telangana
  • (D) Chhattisgarh, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh
Correct Answer: (A) Odisha, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh
View Solution



We look for the group containing the major iron ore producing states in India.


Odisha is the leading state in terms of both reserves and production of iron ore.


Jharkhand and Chhattisgarh are also top-tier iron ore states with significant hematite reserves (part of the Odisha-Jharkhand and Durg-Bastar-Chandrapur belts).


Option (B) puts Maharashtra first (incorrect). Option (C) lists Tamil Nadu and Telangana which are not primary iron ore states. Option (D) misses Odisha and Jharkhand.


In terms of Hematite reserves, the order is typically Odisha > Jharkhand > Chhattisgarh. Thus, Option (A) represents the correct hierarchy of major reserve states.
Quick Tip: The "Iron Triangle" of India is Odisha-Jharkhand-Chhattisgarh. Any list of top reserves must include these.


Question 7:

Read the following features and identify the crop.

\textbullet\ It is a tropical plantation crop and has three varieties.

\textbullet\ Karnataka alone accounts for more than two-third of its total production of India.

\textbullet\ It is grown in the highlands of Western Ghats in Karnataka and Kerala.

Crop :

  • (A) Sugarcane
  • (B) Tea
  • (C) Coffee
  • (D) Cotton
Correct Answer: (C) Coffee
View Solution



1. Varieties: Coffee has three main varieties: Arabica, Robusta, and Liberica.


2. Location: It is cultivated in the highlands of the Western Ghats (Baba Budan Hills).


3. Production Share: Karnataka is the dominant producer, accounting for approx 70% (more than two-thirds) of India's coffee.


Tea is primarily grown in Assam/Bengal. Sugarcane and Cotton are not hill-slope plantation crops in this context.
Quick Tip: Karnataka + Western Ghats + Plantation = Coffee.


Question 8:

The objective of Border Roads Organisation is :

  • (A) To construct roads in moderately elevated plateau areas.
  • (B) To construct roads in high altitude mountainous terrains.
  • (C) To construct roads in low lying plain areas.
  • (D) To construct roads in coastal areas for linking ports.
Correct Answer: (B) To construct roads in high altitude mountainous terrains.
View Solution



The Border Roads Organisation (BRO) was established in 1960.


Its specific mandate is to accelerate economic development and strengthen defence preparedness by maintaining roads in the north and north-eastern border areas.


These areas are geographically characterized as high altitude mountainous terrains (Himalayas).
Quick Tip: BRO = Borders = Himalayas = High Altitude Mountains.


Question 9:

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option.

Assertion (A) : The significance of Kolkata sea port has declined in the recent times.

Reason (R) : Kolkata port is confronted with the problem of silt accumulation in the Hugli river.

  • (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  • (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  • (C) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
  • (D) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
Correct Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
View Solution



Assertion (A) is true: Kolkata port has lost its significance due to the diversion of exports to other ports (like Paradip, Visakhapatnam, Haldia) and operational challenges.


Reason (R) is true: Being a riverine port on the Hooghly, it faces a severe problem of silt accumulation (siltation), which restricts the entry of large ocean-going vessels.


Logical Link: The problem of silt accumulation (R) increases dredging costs and limits vessel size, which directly contributes to the decline in the port's significance and traffic (A).
Quick Tip: Kolkata Port = Riverine Port = Siltation Problem.


Question 10:

Which one of the following is not a challenge of adolescent population faced by the society ?

  • (A) High marriage age
  • (B) Drug abuse and alcoholism
  • (C) Low female literacy
  • (D) Dropouts from school
Correct Answer: (A) High marriage age
View Solution



We must identify which option is NOT a challenge (problem).


(B) Drug abuse, (C) Low female literacy, and (D) School dropouts are explicitly listed as major challenges for the adolescent population in the NCERT textbook.


The textbook lists "lower marriage age" (child marriage) as a challenge. Conversely, a "High marriage age" is desirable and considered a positive indicator of development, not a challenge.
Quick Tip: Read the options carefully: "High marriage age" is a solution/goal. "Low marriage age" is the challenge.


Question 11:

Identify the characteristics of `Phase-I' of population growth in India and choose the correct option.

I. Stagnant phase of population growth

II. Low or negative net growth of population

III. Rapid fall in the mortality rate

IV. Poor health and medical services

Options :

  • (A) Only I, II and III are correct.
  • (B) Only II, III and IV are correct.
  • (C) Only I, II and IV are correct.
  • (D) Only I, III and IV are correct.
Correct Answer: (C) Only I, II and IV are correct.
View Solution



Phase I (1901-1921) of India's population growth is known as the ``stagnant'' or ``stationary'' phase (Statement I).


During this period, the growth rate was extremely low, and even negative during 1911-1921 (Statement II).


This was due to both high birth rates and high death rates. There was no ``rapid fall'' in mortality; that occurred in Phase II (Statement III is incorrect).


The high mortality was driven by poor health and medical services, widespread illiteracy, and inefficient food distribution (Statement IV).


Therefore, the correct characteristics are I, II, and IV.
Quick Tip: Timeline of Phases: Phase I (1901-21) = Stagnant. Phase II (1921-51) = Steady Growth. Phase III (1951-81) = Explosion. Phase IV (Post-1981) = Declining Rate.


Question 12:

Which one of the following is incorrectly matched ?


Correct Answer: (D) Marginal worker -- Total population/Total working population
View Solution



Option (A) is correct: Physiological density is the ratio of total population to net cultivated area.


Option (B) is correct: Agricultural density is the ratio of total agricultural population to net cultivable area.


Option (C) is correct: Arithmetic population density is total population divided by total land area.


Option (D) is incorrect: A ``Marginal Worker'' is defined by the \textit{duration of employment (a person who works for less than 183 days in a year). The formula given (Total population/Total working population) relates to the dependency ratio, not the definition of a marginal worker.
Quick Tip: Worker Classification: Main Worker > 183 days (6 months). Marginal Worker < 183 days.


Question 13:

``A very large proportion of workers are engaged in other services in highly urbanized areas.'' With reference to the given statement choose the correct option.

I. Large scale urbanisation and industrialisation require more workers.

II. Historically, it is a sectoral shift in the economy of the country.

III. Percentage of female workers is relatively high in secondary sector.

IV. It is a shift of workers from farm-based to non-farm-based occupations.

Options :

  • (A) Only I, II and III are correct.
  • (B) Only II, III and IV are correct.
  • (C) Only I, III and IV are correct.
  • (D) Only I, II and IV are correct.
Correct Answer: (D) Only I, II and IV are correct.
View Solution



Statement I is correct: Urbanization and industrialization generate demand for diverse services, requiring more workers.


Statement II is correct: The movement from agriculture to services represents a historical sectoral shift in the economy.


Statement III is incorrect: In India, female participation is historically highest in the primary sector (agriculture). In urban areas, while increasing in services, there is no specific trend stating it is ``relatively high in the secondary sector'' compared to others.


Statement IV is correct: The growth of services in urban areas indicates a shift from farm-based (primary) to non-farm-based (tertiary/secondary) occupations.


Therefore, the combination I, II, and IV is the most accurate.
Quick Tip: Sectoral Shift: Primary \(\rightarrow\) Secondary \(\rightarrow\) Tertiary. Urbanization drives the non-farm sector.


Question 14:

Which one of the following is the characteristic of `Phase-III' of population growth in India ?


  • (A) High female literacy and declining population
  • (B) Improvisation in medical facilities and living conditions
  • (C) Great Economic Depression and effects of World War II
  • (D) Low population growth and low net increase
Correct Answer: (B) Improvisation in medical facilities and living conditions
View Solution



Phase III (1951-1981) is referred to as the period of ``Population Explosion'' in India.


This explosion was caused because the death rate fell rapidly due to improved medical facilities, sanitation, and living conditions (developmental activities), while the birth rate remained high.


Option (C) refers to Phase II. Option (D) refers to Phase I. Option (A) is factually incorrect for that period (literacy was still improving and population was growing, not declining).


Therefore, (B) is the correct characteristic leading to the population explosion of Phase III.
Quick Tip: Phase III = Population Explosion. Cause = Death Rate \(\downarrow\) (Medical/Sanitation) + Birth Rate \(\leftrightarrow\) (High).


Question 15:

Which one of the following stages of demographic transition theory is an indicative of primitive society ?

  • (A) Stage I
  • (B) First part of stage II
  • (C) Second part of stage II
  • (D) Stage III
Correct Answer: (A) Stage I
View Solution



Stage I of the Demographic Transition Theory is characterized by high birth rates and high death rates.


Population growth is slow, and the society is primarily agrarian with low technology and low life expectancy.


These features define a primitive society dependent on nature.
Quick Tip: Primitive Society = High Birth + High Death = Stage I.


Question 16:

The highest difference between the crude birth rate and crude death rate is observed in which one of the following stages of demographic transition theory ?

  • (A) End of stage I
  • (B) End of the first part of stage II
  • (C) End of the second part of stage II
  • (D) End of stage III
Correct Answer: (B) End of the first part of stage II
View Solution



The difference between Crude Birth Rate (CBR) and Crude Death Rate (CDR) determines the rate of natural increase.


In Stage II (Expanding), the Death Rate drops rapidly due to medical improvements, while the Birth Rate remains high initially.


The gap (difference) widens and reaches its maximum before the Birth Rate begins to decline.


This peak difference occurs at the end of the initial phase of Stage II (First part of Stage II), causing the population explosion.
Quick Tip: Max Population Growth = Max Gap between Birth and Death Rates \(\rightarrow\) Occurs in Stage II.


Question 17:

Net increase in population during third stage of demographic transition theory is low due to which one of the following reasons ?

  • (A) Low birth rate and low death rate
  • (B) Low birth rate and high death rate
  • (C) High birth rate and low death rate
  • (D) High birth rate and high death rate
Correct Answer: (A) Low birth rate and low death rate
View Solution



In Stage III (Low Fluctuating), societies are developed, urbanized, and literate.


Both fertility (Birth Rate) and mortality (Death Rate) decline considerably.


Since both rates are low and close to each other, the net increase in population becomes very low or stable.
Quick Tip: Stage III = Stability = Low Inputs (Births) + Low Outputs (Deaths).


Question 18:

Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow :


In agriculturally important countries, agro products are exchanged for manufactured goods, whereas industrialised nations export machinery and finished products and import food grains and other raw materials. Foreign investment can boost trade in developing countries which lack in capital required for the development of mining, oil drilling, heavy engineering, lumbering and plantation agriculture. By developing such capital intensive industries in developing countries, the industrial nations ensure import of food stuffs, minerals and create markets for their finished products. This entire cycle steps up the volume of trade between nations.


What types of items are exported by the industrialised nations ?

Correct Answer: Machinery and finished products
View Solution



According to the passage, industrialised nations engage in trade by exporting specific goods.


The text explicitly states that ``industrialised nations export machinery and finished products''.


They export these items in exchange for food grains and raw materials.
Quick Tip: Directly quote the list of items mentioned in the text for "industrialised nations".


Question 19:

Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow :

In agriculturally important countries, agro products are exchanged for manufactured goods, whereas industrialised nations export machinery and finished products and import food grains and other raw materials. Foreign investment can boost trade in developing countries which lack in capital required for the development of mining, oil drilling, heavy engineering, lumbering and plantation agriculture. By developing such capital intensive industries in developing countries, the industrial nations ensure import of food stuffs, minerals and create markets for their finished products. This entire cycle steps up the volume of trade between nations.


Mention the way by which trade could be boosted in developing countries.

Correct Answer: Foreign Investment
View Solution



The passage discusses methods to improve trade in developing regions.


It mentions that ``Foreign investment can boost trade in developing countries''.


This investment provides the necessary capital for developing sectors like mining, oil drilling, and plantation agriculture, which are capital intensive.
Quick Tip: Look for the keyword "boost trade" in the passage to find the answer.


Question 20:

Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow :

In agriculturally important countries, agro products are exchanged for manufactured goods, whereas industrialised nations export machinery and finished products and import food grains and other raw materials. Foreign investment can boost trade in developing countries which lack in capital required for the development of mining, oil drilling, heavy engineering, lumbering and plantation agriculture. By developing such capital intensive industries in developing countries, the industrial nations ensure import of food stuffs, minerals and create markets for their finished products. This entire cycle steps up the volume of trade between nations.


Finished products of industrialised nations find the market in which types of countries ?

Correct Answer: Developing countries (or agriculturally important countries)
View Solution



The passage describes a cycle of trade between two types of nations.


Industrialised nations invest in developing countries to create markets for their own goods.


Therefore, the finished products from industrialised nations are sold in these ``developing countries'' (also referred to as agriculturally important countries in the text).
Quick Tip: The trade relationship described is: Industrialised \(\leftrightarrow\) Developing.


Question 21:

Study the map of the Rhine waterway and answer the questions that follow :





Identify both the terminal ports of the Rhine waterway.

Correct Answer: Rotterdam and Basel
View Solution



The map shows the course of the Rhine river.


The northernmost terminal port where it enters the North Sea is Rotterdam (in the Netherlands).


The southernmost navigable terminal shown on the map near the source is Basel (in Switzerland).
Quick Tip: Map Endpoints: Top = Rotterdam, Bottom = Basel.


Question 22:

Study the map of the Rhine waterway and answer the questions that follow :

Identify any two countries through which the Rhine waterway passes.

Correct Answer: Germany and The Netherlands (or Switzerland/France)
View Solution



The Rhine flows through the heart of Europe.


Based on the map labels (like Cologne, Frankfurt, Stuttgart), the river passes primarily through Germany.


It flows into The Netherlands (location of Rotterdam).


It also borders France (location of Strasbourg) and Switzerland (location of Basel). Any two of these are correct.
Quick Tip: Major countries on the Rhine: Germany, Netherlands, Switzerland, France.


Question 23:

Study the map of the Rhine waterway and answer the questions that follow :

On the map, which river joins the Rhine waterway from the east ?

Correct Answer: River Main (or River Neckar)
View Solution



Looking at the map, there is a tributary joining the Rhine near the city of Frankfurt.


Frankfurt is located on the River Main, which flows from the east (right side of the map) into the Rhine.


Another tributary shown further south near Mannheim is the River Neckar.
Quick Tip: Frankfurt is on the Main. Main joins Rhine from the East.


Question 24:

Name both the terminal ports of the Rhine waterway.

Correct Answer: Rotterdam and Basel
View Solution



The Rhine waterway connects the interior of Europe to the sea.


Its two main terminal ports are Rotterdam at the mouth (North Sea) and Basel at the head of navigation (Switzerland).
Quick Tip: Same as the visual question: Rotterdam (Sea end) and Basel (Inland end).


Question 25:

Name any two countries through which the Rhine waterway passes.

Correct Answer: Germany and Netherlands
View Solution



The Rhine is an international river.


It flows mainly through Germany and enters the ocean through the Netherlands.


It also touches Switzerland and France.
Quick Tip: Germany owns the longest stretch; Netherlands owns the mouth.


Question 26:

Write the name of any one tributary which joins the Rhine waterway from the east.

Correct Answer: River Main (or Neckar/Ruhr)
View Solution



The Rhine receives several tributaries from the east (Right Bank).


The most prominent ones are the River Main (joining at Mainz/Frankfurt) and the River Ruhr (joining at Duisburg).
Quick Tip: East Tributaries: Main, Neckar, Ruhr. West Tributary: Moselle.


Question 27:

``Human geography is a highly interdisciplinary subject.'' Analyse the statement.

Correct Answer: Descriptive Answer (See Solution)
View Solution



1. Integration of Disciplines:

Human geography does not exist in isolation; it integrates findings from various sister disciplines to understand the human elements on the earth's surface.


2. Interface with Social Sciences:

It has deep connections with other social sciences. For instance:

- Social Geography interfaces with Sociology.

- Economic Geography interfaces with Economics.

- Political Geography interfaces with Political Science.

- Historical Geography interfaces with History.


3. Holistic Understanding:

This interdisciplinary nature allows geographers to provide a holistic and synthetic understanding of the complex relationship between human societies and their environment.
Quick Tip: Keywords: Interface, Synthesis, Sister Disciplines (Economics, Sociology, History).


Question 28:

``Human geography tries to explain the relationship of human beings with the physical environs of their occupancy.'' Analyse the statement.

Correct Answer: Descriptive Answer (See Solution)
View Solution



1. Man-Environment Relationship:

The core of human geography is the study of the dynamic interaction between human beings and the physical laws of nature.


2. Adaptation and Modification:

It explains how early humans adapted to the dictates of nature (Environmental Determinism) and how modern humans modify nature using technology (Possibilism).


3. Cultural Landscape:

The subject analyzes the ``cultural landscape''—the houses, villages, cities, farms, and networks—that humans create within their physical environment, reflecting their ``occupancy''.
Quick Tip: Focus on the three schools of thought: Determinism (Nature rules), Possibilism (Human rules), Neodeterminism (Balance).


Question 29:

``Tertiary activities include both production and exchange.'' Explain the statement.

Correct Answer: Descriptive Answer (See Solution)
View Solution



1. Definition of Tertiary Activities:

Tertiary activities involve the provision of services rather than the production of tangible goods.


2. Production Element:

In this context, ``production'' refers to the provision of a service that is ``consumed''.

The output is measured indirectly in terms of wages and salaries paid to the workers (e.g., teaching, legal advice, medical treatment).


3. Exchange Element:

``Exchange'' involves the trade, transport, and communication facilities that are used to overcome distance.

It links the producer and the consumer, facilitating the movement of goods and services (e.g., retail, wholesale, rail/road transport).
Quick Tip: Tertiary = Service Sector. Production = "Service Provision". Exchange = "Trade & Transport".


Question 30:

Distinguish between metallic and non-metallic minerals with example.

Correct Answer: Descriptive Answer (See Solution)
View Solution



1. Composition:

Metallic minerals contain metal content and can be melted to obtain new products. Non-metallic minerals do not contain extractable metals.


2. Physical Properties:

Metallic minerals are generally hard, malleable, and ductile (can be drawn into wires). They often have a shine or luster.

Non-metallic minerals are generally softer (with exceptions like diamond), brittle, and lack metallic luster.


3. Geological Association:

Metallic minerals are typically associated with igneous and metamorphic rocks.

Non-metallic minerals are typically associated with sedimentary rocks.


4. Examples:

Metallic: Iron ore, Copper, Gold, Bauxite.

Non-metallic: Limestone, Mica, Gypsum, Coal.
Quick Tip: Key difference: Can you melt it to get metal? Yes \(\rightarrow\) Metallic (Iron). No \(\rightarrow\) Non-metallic (Limestone).


Question 31:

Study the following table carefully and answer the questions that follow :





In which decade is the maximum increase in number of towns/UAs observed ?

Correct Answer: 1981 - 1991
View Solution



We calculate the absolute increase in the number of towns for the given decades:


1971-1981: \(3378 - 2590 = 788\)


1981-1991: \(4689 - 3378 = 1311\)


1991-2001: \(5161 - 4689 = 472\)


The increase of 1311 towns during the 1981-1991 decade is the highest in the table.
Quick Tip: Do the subtraction for each interval. 1311 is clearly the largest number.


Question 32:

Study the following table carefully and answer the questions that follow :

Describe the trend of urbanisation in India.

Correct Answer: Continuous and rapid growth.
View Solution



The table shows a consistent upward trend in urbanization.


The Total Urban Population has increased more than 8-fold from 1931 to 2001.


The Number of Towns has also increased steadily (except for a classification change in 1961).


The Percentage of Urban Population has risen from 11.99% to 27.78%, indicating a steady shift from rural to urban living.
Quick Tip: Keywords for trend: "Steady Increase", "Rapid Growth", "Positive Trend".


Question 33:

Study the following table carefully and answer the questions that follow :

The lowest increase in the percentage of total urban population is recorded in which decade ?

Correct Answer: 1951 - 1961
View Solution



We calculate the difference in the "% of Total Population" column for each decade:


1931-1941: \(13.86 - 11.99 = 1.87%\)


1941-1951: \(17.29 - 13.86 = 3.43%\)


1951-1961: \(17.97 - 17.29 = \mathbf{0.68%}\)


1961-1971: \(19.91 - 17.97 = 1.94%\)


The increase of 0.68% is the lowest among all decades listed.
Quick Tip: Focus on the "%" column. The gap between 17.29 and 17.97 is very small.


Question 34:

Differentiate between growth and development by citing examples.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



1. Concept:

Growth is quantitative and value-neutral. It refers to a change in size or numbers over a period of time (can be positive or negative).

Development is qualitative and value-positive. It means a progressive change that leads to an improvement in the quality of life.


2. Relationship:

Growth can take place without development (e.g., a city's population grows, but facilities remain poor).

Development cannot happen without a positive change in existing conditions, though it doesn't always require significant quantitative growth.


3. Examples:

Growth: If the population of a city increases from 1 lakh to 2 lakhs, it is growth.

Development: If housing, sanitation, and education facilities improve along with or independent of population changes, leading to a better life for citizens, it is development.
Quick Tip: Keyword Memory: Growth = Quantity (Numbers). Development = Quality (Life).


Question 35:

``Market gardening and horticulture specialise in the cultivation of high value crops.'' Justify the statement.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



1. High Value Crops:

Market gardening focuses on cultivating vegetables, fruits, and flowers, which command high prices in urban markets compared to staple grains.


2. Capital and Labor Intensive:

It requires heavy investment in infrastructure like greenhouses, artificial heating, and irrigation, as well as skilled labor for meticulous care.


3. Proximity to Markets:

These farms are located near urban centers (high-income groups) to ensure that perishable high-value produce reaches consumers quickly (Truck Farming).


4. Scientific Methods:

Use of high-yielding variety seeds (HYV), fertilizers, and scientific techniques ensures quality and quantity, justifying the high value.
Quick Tip: Market Gardening = Urban Markets + Perishable Goods + High Price.


Question 36:

``High-tech industries are regionally concentrated, self-sustained and highly specialized.'' Justify the statement.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



1. Regional Concentration (Technopoles):

High-tech industries tend to cluster in specific areas known as technopoles (e.g., Silicon Valley) to share specialized services, infrastructure, and a skilled talent pool.


2. Highly Specialized:

They focus on advanced scientific research and development (R\&D) to create specialized products like electronics, biotechnology, and pharmaceuticals.


3. Workforce Structure:

The workforce is distinct, dominated by highly skilled professionals (white-collar) rather than manual laborers (blue-collar), making the industry self-sustaining through continuous innovation.


4. Environment:

They operate in planned business parks with neat, clean environments (laboratories/offices), distinct from traditional smokestack industrial regions.
Quick Tip: Think of Silicon Valley: Clustered together, smart people, clean offices, specialized tech.


Question 37:

``India's water demand is highly dominated by irrigational needs.'' Evaluate the statement.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



1. Agrarian Economy:

Agriculture is the core of India's economy, employing a vast majority of the population. Water is the critical input for crop production.


2. Rainfall Variability:

The Spatial and temporal variation of the Monsoon leaves many regions drought-prone, necessitating irrigation for survival.


3. Crop Nature:

Major Indian crops like rice, sugarcane, and jute are water-intensive. The Green Revolution introduced HYV seeds which require regular and assured water supply.


4. Statistics:

Irrigation accounts for about 89% of surface water usage and 92% of groundwater withdrawal in India, far outstripping domestic or industrial demand.
Quick Tip: Stat to remember: ~90% of India's water goes to Agriculture (Irrigation).


Question 38:

``In India, water resources are getting polluted with industrial effluents, domestic waste and insecticides used in agriculture.'' Evaluate the statement.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



1. Industrial Effluents:

Industries discharge untreated toxic waste, heavy metals, and chemicals into rivers and lakes, destroying aquatic life (e.g., leather tanneries in Kanpur).


2. Domestic Waste:

Rapid urbanization has outpaced sewage treatment capacities. Sewage and garbage from cities are often dumped directly into rivers (e.g., Yamuna in Delhi).


3. Agricultural Runoff:

Chemical fertilizers and pesticides (insecticides) used in farms are washed into water bodies by rain, leading to eutrophication and groundwater contamination (e.g., nitrate pollution).


4. Cultural Practices:

Pilgrimages, religious fairs, and immersion of idols also contribute to the pollution load of major rivers like the Ganga.
Quick Tip: Pollution Sources triad: Industry (Chemicals) + Urban (Sewage) + Farm (Pesticides).


Question 39:

``In India, sea ports have emerged as gateways of international trade.'' Substantiate the statement.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



1. Volume of Trade:

India is surrounded by water on three sides. About 95% of India's foreign trade by volume and 70% by value moves through sea ports.


2. Infrastructure:

India has 12 major ports and roughly 200 minor ports equipped with modern facilities for docking, loading, unloading, and storage of cargo.


3. Connecting Hinterlands:

Ports act as nodes connecting the resource-rich hinterlands (via rail/road) to the global markets (ocean routes).


4. Examples:

Ports like Mumbai, Visakhapatnam, and Chennai handle specific goods (oil, iron ore, general cargo), effectively serving as the entry and exit points for the economy.
Quick Tip: "Gateway" means entry/exit. 95% of trade volume goes through sea \(\rightarrow\) Ports are the main gates.


Question 40:

``Satellites are mode of communication in themselves as well as they regulate the use of other means of communication.'' Substantiate the statement.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



1. Direct Communication:

Satellites facilitate direct communication through satellite phones and direct-to-home (DTH) television broadcasting, reaching even remote and rugged terrains.


2. Regulation of Networks:

They act as the backbone for terrestrial networks, regulating and connecting mobile networks, internet backbones, and long-distance telephone exchanges globally.


3. Mass Communication:

They enable the simultaneous transmission of data to millions of users (TV, Radio, Internet), covering vast geographical areas instantly.


4. Strategic Usage:

Satellites also manage communication for weather forecasting, disaster warning, and military surveillance, ensuring the smooth flow of critical information.
Quick Tip: Satellites = Coverage of large areas + Connecting remote places + Handling TV/Internet/Phone signals.


Question 41:

Evaluate the impact of urban waste disposal problem and suggest any two measures to overcome it.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Impact of Urban Waste Problem:

1. Health Hazards: Accumulation of untreated waste becomes a breeding ground for flies and rats, spreading diseases like typhoid, cholera, and malaria.

2. Environmental Pollution: Leachate from landfills contaminates groundwater, and burning waste causes air pollution.

3. Aesthetic degradation: Heaps of garbage create foul smells and ruin the scenic beauty of urban areas.


Measures to Overcome:

1. Segregation and Recycling: separating waste at the source into biodegradable and non-biodegradable allows for composting organic waste and recycling plastics/metals.

2. Waste to Energy: Using technologies to convert solid waste into energy (biogas or electricity) reduces landfill volume and generates power.
Quick Tip: Impact = Health + Pollution. Solution = Reduce, Recycle, Reuse (3Rs).


Question 42:

Suggest any five measures to solve the problem of land degradation in India.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



1. Afforestation: Planting trees helps bind the soil, prevents erosion, and checks the expansion of deserts (shelter belts).


2. Regulation of Grazing: Controlling over-grazing by animals to protect the grass cover and prevent soil loosening.


3. Proper Irrigation Practices: adopting drip or sprinkler irrigation to prevent waterlogging and salinization of soil.


4. Judicious use of Fertilizers: Minimizing the use of chemical fertilizers and pesticides, and promoting organic farming to maintain soil health.


5. Treatment of Industrial Effluents: Ensuring industrial waste is treated before disposal to prevent harmful chemicals from poisoning the land.
Quick Tip: Land Degradation fix: Trees \(\uparrow\), Grazing \(\downarrow\), Chemical \(\downarrow\), Water Management \(\uparrow\).


Question 43:

Name any one sea port of North America.


Correct Answer: Vancouver
View Solution



Vancouver is a major sea port located on the western coast of Canada in North America.


Other valid examples include New York, San Francisco, or New Orleans in the USA.


The specific feature marked 'A' on the provided map corresponds to Vancouver.
Quick Tip: Map Point 'A' is on the West Coast of Canada \(\rightarrow\) Vancouver.


Question 44:

Name any one airport of South America.

Correct Answer: Santiago
View Solution



Santiago (Benítez International Airport) is a major airport serving the capital of Chile.


Other valid examples include Buenos Aires (Argentina) or Brasilia (Brazil).


The specific feature marked 'B' on the provided map corresponds to Santiago.
Quick Tip: Map Point 'B' is in Chile \(\rightarrow\) Santiago.


Question 45:

Name the terminal station at the western end of Australian Trans-Continental Railway.

Correct Answer: Perth
View Solution



The Australian Trans-Continental Railway line runs from Sydney in the east to Perth in the west.


Perth is the capital of Western Australia and serves as the western terminal station.


The specific feature marked 'C' on the provided map corresponds to Perth.
Quick Tip: Australia Railway Terminals: West = Perth, East = Sydney.


Question 46:

Name the area of nomadic herding in the eastern part of Africa.

Correct Answer: Somalia / Ethiopia (or Maasai region)
View Solution



Nomadic herding is a primitive subsistence activity practiced in semi-arid regions.


In the eastern part of Africa, regions like Somalia, Ethiopia, and parts of Kenya are traditional areas for nomadic herding.


(Note: The Map Point 'D' highlights the Sahara/Sahel region in North Africa, but the specific question asks for the "eastern part").
Quick Tip: East Africa Herding = Horn of Africa (Somalia/Ethiopia).


Question 47:

Name the area of extensive commercial grain farming of South Africa.

Correct Answer: The Velds
View Solution



Extensive commercial grain farming is practiced in the temperate grasslands of the world.


In South Africa, these grasslands are locally known as the ``Velds''.


The specific feature marked 'E' on the provided map corresponds to this region.
Quick Tip: South African Grasslands = Velds.


Question 48:

Name any one area of commercial livestock rearing of Oceania.

Correct Answer: New Zealand (or Australia)
View Solution



Oceania includes Australia and New Zealand.


New Zealand is world-renowned for commercial livestock rearing (sheep and cattle) due to its favorable climate and pastures.


The specific feature marked 'F' on the provided map corresponds to New Zealand.
Quick Tip: Map Point 'F' is the island nation of New Zealand.


Question 49:

Name the area of subsistence gathering of Africa.

Correct Answer: Congo Basin (Tropical Africa)
View Solution



Subsistence gathering is practiced in the harsh climatic regions of the world.


In Africa, the tropical rainforests of the Congo Basin are a major region where tribes (like Pygmies) practice gathering.


The specific feature marked 'G' on the provided map corresponds to this region.
Quick Tip: Tropical Rainforests (Congo) = Gathering.


Question 50:

Name any one sea port of North America.

Correct Answer: Vancouver (or New York / San Francisco)
View Solution



North America has an extensive coastline with several major ports handling international trade.


Vancouver is the largest port in Canada, located on the Pacific coast.


Other correct examples include New York (Atlantic coast of USA), San Francisco (Pacific coast of USA), or New Orleans (Gulf of Mexico).
Quick Tip: Major Ports: West Coast = Vancouver/San Francisco. East Coast = New York.


Question 51:

Name any one airport of South America.

Correct Answer: Santiago (or Buenos Aires / Brasilia)
View Solution



South America is connected globally through several key international airports.


Santiago (Arturo Merino Benítez International Airport) is the main gateway for Chile.


Other valid examples include Buenos Aires (Argentina) and Brasilia or Rio de Janeiro (Brazil).
Quick Tip: Capital cities often host the major international airports (e.g., Santiago, Buenos Aires).


Question 52:

Name the terminal station at the western end of Australian Trans-Continental Railway.

Correct Answer: Perth
View Solution



The Australian Trans-Continental Railway line connects the east and west coasts of the continent.


It runs from Sydney in the East to Perth in the West.


Therefore, Perth is the western terminal station.
Quick Tip: Australian Railway: Sydney (East) \(\leftrightarrow\) Perth (West).


Question 53:

Name the area of nomadic herding in the eastern part of Africa.

Correct Answer: Somalia / Ethiopia (Horn of Africa)
View Solution



Nomadic herding is a subsistence activity practiced in semi-arid regions.


In the eastern part of Africa, the arid regions of Somalia and Ethiopia (often referred to as the Horn of Africa) are traditional grounds for nomadic herders.


(Note: The Sahara is in the North; the question specifically asks for the Eastern part).
Quick Tip: East Africa Herding = Horn of Africa (Somalia, Ethiopia).


Question 54:

Name the area of extensive commercial grain farming of South Africa.

Correct Answer: The Velds
View Solution



Extensive commercial grain farming is characteristic of mid-latitude temperate grasslands.


In South Africa, these grasslands are locally known as the Velds.


They are famous for maize and wheat cultivation.
Quick Tip: Grasslands Names: South Africa = Velds. Australia = Downs. USA = Prairies.


Question 55:

Name any one area of commercial livestock rearing of Oceania.

Correct Answer: New Zealand (or Australia)
View Solution



Oceania comprises Australia, New Zealand, and the Pacific Islands.


New Zealand and Australia are the world's leading regions for commercial livestock rearing (sheep and cattle ranching).
Quick Tip: Oceania Livestock = New Zealand (Dairy/Wool) or Australia (Wool/Meat).


Question 56:

Name the area of subsistence gathering of Africa.

Correct Answer: Congo Basin (Tropical Rainforest)
View Solution



Subsistence gathering is practiced in regions with harsh climates and dense vegetation.


In Africa, the tropical rainforest region of the Congo Basin is the primary area for this activity.


Tribes such as the Pygmies engage in gathering food and forest produce here.
Quick Tip: Africa Gathering = Congo Basin (Central Africa).


Question 57:

Name the state leading in wheat production in India.


Correct Answer: Uttar Pradesh
View Solution



Uttar Pradesh is the largest producer of wheat in India by total volume.


While Punjab and Haryana have higher productivity (yield per hectare), UP has the highest total production due to larger sown area.
Quick Tip: Highest Wheat Production = Uttar Pradesh. Highest Yield = Punjab.


Question 58:

Name the place of the oil refinery located in Bihar.

Correct Answer: Barauni
View Solution



Barauni is a prominent industrial town in the Begusarai district of Bihar.


It is the site of a major oil refinery established by the Indian Oil Corporation (IOCL).
Quick Tip: Bihar's Oil Hub = Barauni.


Question 59:

Name the place where a major sea port is located in Andhra Pradesh.

Correct Answer: Visakhapatnam
View Solution



Visakhapatnam (Vizag) is the major sea port located on the coast of Andhra Pradesh.


It is a landlocked harbor and one of the most important ports for handling iron ore exports.
Quick Tip: Andhra Pradesh Port = Visakhapatnam.


Question 60:

Name the place where important coal mines are located in West Bengal.

Correct Answer: Raniganj
View Solution



Raniganj is the most significant coalfield in West Bengal.


It is historically important as the place where coal mining first started in India.
Quick Tip: First Coal Mine in India = Raniganj (West Bengal).


Question 61:

Name the place where important iron ore mines are located in Odisha.

Correct Answer: Mayurbhanj (or Kendujhar)
View Solution



Odisha is a leading iron ore producing state.


The Mayurbhanj and Kendujhar (Keonjhar) districts host major mines like Gorumahisani, Sulaipet, and Badampahar.
Quick Tip: Odisha Iron Ore = Mayurbhanj belt.


Question 62:

Name the place where important manganese mines are located in Karnataka.

Correct Answer: Bellary (or Sandur / Shivamogga)
View Solution



Karnataka is a major producer of manganese in India.


The Sandur-Hospet region in the Bellary district is the most important manganese mining area in the state.
Quick Tip: Karnataka Manganese = Bellary/Sandur.


Question 63:

Name the place where an international airport is located in Punjab.

Correct Answer: Amritsar
View Solution



The Sri Guru Ram Dass Jee International Airport is located in Amritsar, Punjab.


It is the primary international gateway for the state of Punjab.
Quick Tip: Punjab's International Airport = Amritsar.


Question 64:

Name the state leading in wheat production.

Correct Answer: Uttar Pradesh
View Solution



Uttar Pradesh is the largest producer of wheat in India in terms of total tonnage.


It has the largest area under wheat cultivation, contributing significantly to the national buffer stock.


(Note: Punjab has the highest \textit{yield per hectare, but UP leads in total \textit{production).
Quick Tip: Production Leader: Wheat = UP. Rice = West Bengal.


Question 65:

Name the place of the oil refinery located in Bihar.

Correct Answer: Barauni
View Solution



Barauni is an industrial town in the Begusarai district of Bihar.


It hosts the Barauni Refinery, which was built in collaboration with the Soviet Union and is a key landmark on the industrial map of Bihar.
Quick Tip: Bihar Refinery = Barauni.


Question 66:

Name the place where a major sea port is located in Andhra Pradesh.

Correct Answer: Visakhapatnam
View Solution



Visakhapatnam (Vizag) is the deepest landlocked and protected port on the east coast of India.


It is the primary port for the state of Andhra Pradesh and handles major iron ore exports to Japan.
Quick Tip: Andhra's Main Port = Visakhapatnam.


Question 67:

Name the place where important coal mines are located in West Bengal.

Correct Answer: Raniganj
View Solution



Raniganj is the most famous coalfield in West Bengal.


It holds historical significance as the site where coal mining in India first began in 1774.
Quick Tip: West Bengal Coal = Raniganj.


Question 68:

Name the place where important iron ore mines are located in Odisha.

Correct Answer: Mayurbhanj (or Kendujhar)
View Solution



Odisha is rich in hematite iron ore.


The major mining belts are located in the districts of Mayurbhanj (e.g., Gorumahisani) and Kendujhar (e.g., Barbil, Joda).
Quick Tip: Odisha Iron = Mayurbhanj district.


Question 69:

Name the place where important manganese mines are located in Karnataka.

Correct Answer: Bellary (or Sandur / Shivamogga)
View Solution



Karnataka is a leading producer of manganese ore.


The most significant deposits are found in the Bellary district (specifically the Sandur hills).


Other areas include Shivamogga and Chitradurga.
Quick Tip: Karnataka Manganese = Bellary.


Question 70:

Name the place where an international airport is located in Punjab.

Correct Answer: Amritsar
View Solution



The Amritsar International Airport (Sri Guru Ram Dass Jee International Airport) serves the state of Punjab.


It is a crucial hub connecting the region to international destinations like the UK and Canada.
Quick Tip: Punjab's Global Gateway = Amritsar Airport.

*The article might have information for the previous academic years, please refer the official website of the exam.

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