Zollege is here for to help you!!
Need Counselling
Sanghamitra Deb's profile photo

Sanghamitra Deb

Content Writer | Updated On - Dec 5, 2025

CBSE Class 12 Geography Exam 2025 Question Paper with Solution PDF is available for download. CBSE conducted the exam successfully on February 24, 2025, from 10:30 AM to 1:30 PM in pen-paper mode. As per students’ initial reactions, the CBSE Class 12 Geography 2025 Question Paper was reported as well-balanced and moderate. The map-based and application-based questions were moderately difficult, while multiple-choice and conceptual questions were reported as easy.

CBSE Class 12 Geography (Set 1 – 64/5/1) Question Paper 2025 with Solution PDF

CBSE Board Class 12 Geography Question Paper Download PDF Check Solutions
CBSE Class 12 Geography Question Paper 2025 With Solutions Set 1 64 5 1

Question 1:

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option.

Assertion (A) : Industries based on cheap, bulky and weight-losing material are located close to the sources of raw materials.

Reason (R) : It is followed to reduce the cost of products.

  • (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  • (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  • (C) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
  • (D) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
Correct Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
View Solution



Assertion (A) is true: Industries using raw materials that lose weight during processing (like sugar cane or iron ore) locate near the source to avoid transporting waste material.


Reason (R) is true: Transporting heavy, bulky, weight-losing raw materials over long distances increases transportation costs significantly. Locating near the source minimizes this cost, thereby reducing the final cost of production.


Logical Link: The reason for locating near the source (A) is precisely to cut down transport costs and thus reduce the product cost (R). Therefore, (R) explains (A).
Quick Tip: Weight-losing raw material = High Transport Cost. Location Strategy = Minimize Distance = Minimize Cost.


Question 2:

Read the following statements related to `gathering' carefully and choose the correct option.

I. Generally gathering is practised in the regions with harsh climatic conditions.

II. In modern times, some gathering is market-oriented.

III. Denmark is a classical example of gathering activities.

IV. Gathering is practised mostly by primitive societies.

  • (A) I, II and IV are correct.
  • (B) I, II and III are correct.
  • (C) II, III and IV are correct.
  • (D) I, III and IV are correct.
Correct Answer: (A) I, II and IV are correct.
View Solution



Statement I is correct: Gathering is practiced in high latitude zones (very cold) and low latitude zones (very hot/humid forests), which are harsh climates.


Statement II is correct: Commercial gathering (collecting valuable plants, leaves, bark) has become market-oriented in modern times.


Statement III is incorrect: Denmark is a classical example of Cooperative Farming (Dairy), not gathering. Gathering is associated with less developed economies.


Statement IV is correct: It is the oldest economic activity practiced by primitive societies.


Therefore, the correct combination is I, II, and IV.
Quick Tip: Denmark = Dairy/Cooperative Farming. Gathering = Amazon/Congo/Tundra.


Question 3:

Choose the correct statement related to `retail trading'.

  • (A) It takes place in urban centres only.
  • (B) Retail traders are the collection and distribution centres.
  • (C) It is concerned with the sale of goods directly to the consumers.
  • (D) Retail traders primarily direct the goods to be manufactured to their specifications.
Correct Answer: (C) It is concerned with the sale of goods directly to the consumers.
View Solution



(A) is incorrect because retail trading happens in both rural (periodic markets, village stores) and urban areas.


(B) is incorrect; Wholesale traders typically act as collection and distribution centers connecting manufacturers to retailers.


(C) is correct; This is the standard definition of retail trading—selling goods in small quantities directly to the final consumer for personal use.


(D) is incorrect; This function (directing manufacturing specs) is more characteristic of large wholesale chains or big commercial buyers, not typical small retailers.
Quick Tip: Retail = Direct to Consumer. Wholesale = Business to Business (Retailer).


Question 4:

Which one of the following waterways uses the `Panama Canal' ?

  • (A) Between Yokohama and Vancouver
  • (B) Between Auckland and Honolulu
  • (C) Between San Francisco and New York
  • (D) Between London and Aden
Correct Answer: (C) Between San Francisco and New York
View Solution



The Panama Canal cuts across the Isthmus of Panama, connecting the Atlantic Ocean and the Pacific Ocean.


(A) Yokohama (Japan) and Vancouver (Canada) are both in the Pacific; no canal needed.


(B) Auckland and Honolulu are both in the Pacific; no canal needed.


(C) San Francisco is on the US West Coast (Pacific) and New York is on the US East Coast (Atlantic). The Panama Canal shortens this journey significantly by avoiding the route around South America (Cape Horn).


(D) London to Aden uses the Suez Canal.
Quick Tip: Panama Canal connects East Coast USA to West Coast USA.


Question 5:

The ports specialised in bulk cargo are called :

  • (A) Inland Ports
  • (B) Industrial Ports
  • (C) Out Ports
  • (D) Comprehensive Ports
Correct Answer: (B) Industrial Ports
View Solution



Ports are classified based on the cargo they handle.


Industrial Ports specialize in handling bulk cargo like grain, sugar, ore, oil, and chemicals.


Commercial ports handle general cargo. Comprehensive ports handle everything in large volumes. Out ports are deep water ports away from the main port.


Therefore, (B) is the correct classification for bulk cargo specialization.
Quick Tip: Industrial Ports = Bulk Cargo (Grain/Oil/Ore).


Question 6:

Arrange the following states from the highest to the lowest order according to their production of Bauxite and choose the correct option.

I. Odisha

II. Gujarat

III. Chhattisgarh

IV. Madhya Pradesh

  • (A) III, II, I, IV
  • (B) IV, I, III, II
  • (C) I, II, III, IV
  • (D) III, IV, II, I
Correct Answer: (C) I, II, III, IV
View Solution



According to recent mineral production data (and NCERT context):


1. Odisha (I) is by far the largest producer of Bauxite in India (accounting for over 50-60% of total production).


2. Gujarat (II) follows as a significant producer.


3. Chhattisgarh (III) and Jharkhand are next in line.


4. Madhya Pradesh (IV) has smaller production shares compared to the top states.


The sequence I \(\rightarrow\) II \(\rightarrow\) III \(\rightarrow\) IV matches the general hierarchy of production share.
Quick Tip: Odisha is the undisputed leader in Bauxite (and Iron Ore) production in India. Look for the option starting with I.


Question 7:

Choose the correct group of states utilizing their groundwater resource moderately.

  • (A) Uttar Pradesh, Haryana, Rajasthan
  • (B) Chhattisgarh, Kerala, Punjab
  • (C) Gujarat, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar
  • (D) Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand
Correct Answer: (C) Gujarat, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar
View Solution



According to the categorization of groundwater utilization in India:


- Very High Utilization: Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan, Tamil Nadu.


- Moderate Utilization: Gujarat, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Tripura, Maharashtra.


- Low Utilization: Chhattisgarh, Odisha, Kerala, etc.


Option (C) correctly lists the states falling in the ``Moderate'' category.
Quick Tip: Grouping: Green Revolution States = High. Eastern/Central States = Moderate/Low.


Question 8:

The world's longest highway tunnel, Atal Tunnel is constructed across which one of the following ranges of the Himalayas ?

  • (A) Pir Panjal
  • (B) Karakoram
  • (C) Zaskar
  • (D) Ladakh
Correct Answer: (A) Pir Panjal
View Solution



The Atal Tunnel (formerly Rohtang Tunnel) connects Manali to Lahaul-Spiti valley.


It is built under the Rohtang Pass.


Geographically, the Rohtang Pass is located in the eastern Pir Panjal range of the Himalayas.
Quick Tip: Atal Tunnel = Rohtang Pass = Pir Panjal Range.


Question 9:

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option.

Assertion (A) : International trade is mutually beneficial to nations.

Reason (R) : It helps in getting the needed items from other countries.

  • (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  • (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  • (C) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
  • (D) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
Correct Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
View Solution



Assertion (A) is true: International trade allows countries to specialize and exchange goods, leading to mutual economic benefits (Comparative Advantage).


Reason (R) is true: The fundamental basis of trade is obtaining goods that a country cannot produce efficiently itself (needed items) from others.


Logical Link: Because trade allows countries to acquire what they need but lack (R), it results in a situation where all participating nations benefit by satisfying their demands (A). Thus, (R) explains why it is beneficial.
Quick Tip: Trade = Exchange of Surplus for Deficit = Mutual Benefit.


Question 10:

Which one of the following is the main polluter of Yamuna water in Delhi ?

  • (A) Flood water spreading
  • (B) Dumping of domestic waste
  • (C) Use of pesticides
  • (D) Use of fertilizers
Correct Answer: (B) Dumping of domestic waste
View Solution



The Yamuna river in Delhi is severely polluted.


While agricultural runoff (pesticides/fertilizers) contributes to pollution in general, the specific and most massive source of pollution for the Yamuna in the Delhi stretch is the discharge of untreated domestic waste water (sewage) and industrial effluents from the city.


Flood water spreading is a natural event, not a primary continuous polluter.


Therefore, (B) is the main anthropogenic cause in the urban context of Delhi.
Quick Tip: Urban River Pollution = Domestic Sewage + Industrial Effluents.


Question 11:

Identify the correct set of water-borne diseases.

  • (A) Asthma, Headache and Diarrhoea
  • (B) Hepatitis, Asthma and Blood pressure
  • (C) Intestinal worms, Headache and Blood pressure
  • (D) Hepatitis, Diarrhoea and Intestinal worms
Correct Answer: (D) Hepatitis, Diarrhoea and Intestinal worms
View Solution



Water-borne diseases are spread through the transmission of pathogens (bacteria, viruses, parasites) in contaminated water.


Diarrhoea, Hepatitis (specifically Hepatitis A and E), and Intestinal worms are classic examples of diseases caused by drinking polluted water or poor sanitation.


Asthma is a respiratory condition. Blood pressure is a lifestyle/genetic condition. Headache is a general symptom. These are not primarily transmitted through water.
Quick Tip: Common Water-borne diseases: Cholera, Typhoid, Diarrhoea, Hepatitis, Jaundice.


Question 12:

Read the following factors of population migration in India from rural to urban areas carefully and choose the correct option of push factors.

I. Unemployment

II. Job opportunities

III. Economic backwardness

IV. Lack of medical facilities

  • (A) Only I, II and III are correct.
  • (B) Only I, II and IV are correct.
  • (C) Only II, III and IV are correct.
  • (D) Only I, III and IV are correct.
Correct Answer: (D) Only I, III and IV are correct.
View Solution



Migration factors are classified into Push (adverse conditions) and Pull (attractive conditions).


Push factors force people to leave rural areas:

I. Unemployment: Lack of work drives people out.

III. Economic backwardness: Poverty and lack of development.

IV. Lack of medical facilities: Poor infrastructure.


Factor II (Job opportunities) is a Pull factor that attracts people to urban areas, not a push factor.


Therefore, the correct set of Push Factors is I, III, and IV.
Quick Tip: Push = "Go away" (Negative/Problem). Pull = "Come here" (Positive/Attraction).


Question 13:

``The pressure on agricultural land increases not only due to the limited availability, but also by deterioration of quality of agricultural land.'' In the context of this statement read the following reasons carefully and choose the correct option.

I. Soil erosion and waterlogging.

II. Salinisation and alkalinisation of soil.

III. Rich land fertility and multiple cropping.

IV. Decline in land productivity.

  • (A) Only I, II and III are correct.
  • (B) Only I, II and IV are correct.
  • (C) Only I, III and IV are correct.
  • (D) Only II, III and IV are correct.
Correct Answer: (B) Only I, II and IV are correct.
View Solution



We need to identify reasons associated with the deterioration (degradation) of land quality.


I. Soil erosion and waterlogging: These are primary physical causes of land degradation.


II. Salinisation and alkalinisation: These are chemical degradation processes often caused by improper irrigation.


IV. Decline in land productivity: This is a direct consequence/manifestation of deterioration.


III. Rich land fertility: This describes high-quality land, which is the \textit{opposite of deterioration. Therefore, statement III is incorrect in this context.


Eliminating options containing III, we are left with (B).
Quick Tip: Elimination Strategy: "Rich fertility" is a positive trait. The question asks about "deterioration" (negative). Eliminate any option with III.


Question 14:

Choose an objective of the `Namami Gange Programme' from the following :

  • (A) To monitor industrial effluents
  • (B) To develop the network of canals
  • (C) To construct dams for water management
  • (D) To develop `Ganga Grams' in Assam
Correct Answer: (A) To monitor industrial effluents
View Solution



The Namami Gange Programme focuses on pollution abatement and conservation of the river Ganga.


(A) Monitoring industrial effluents is a key pillar to stop untreated waste from entering the river.


(D) is incorrect because the Ganga does not flow through Assam (the Brahmaputra does). Ganga Grams are developed in states along the Ganga banks.


(B) and (C) are general irrigation/water projects, not the specific primary objectives of the Namami Gange clean-up mission.
Quick Tip: Geography Fact: The River Ganga flows through Uttarakhand, UP, Bihar, West Bengal. Not Assam.


Question 15:

The maximum number of countries given in the table belong to which one of the following continents ?

  • (A) North America
  • (B) South America
  • (C) Europe
  • (D) Asia
Correct Answer: (C) Europe
View Solution



We categorize the countries listed in the table by continent:

1. Israel - Asia

2. Mexico - North America

3. Switzerland - Europe

4. Singapore - Asia

5. Cuba - North America

6. Austria - Europe

7. Germany - Europe

8. Chile - South America


Counts: Europe (3), Asia (2), North America (2), South America (1).

Europe has the maximum number.
Quick Tip: Know your map: Switzerland, Austria, and Germany are in Central Europe.


Question 16:

Arrange the following countries from low to high order of Human Development Index value and choose the correct option.

I. Singapore \hspace{1cm} II. Germany

III. Mexico \hspace{1.4cm} IV. Israel

  • (A) III, IV, II, I
  • (B) III, IV, I, II
  • (C) IV, III, I, II
  • (D) IV, III, II, I
Correct Answer: (B) III, IV, I, II
View Solution



From the table, the HDI values are:

I. Singapore = 0.939

II. Germany = 0.942

III. Mexico = 0.758

IV. Israel = 0.919


Arranging from Low to High:

1. Mexico (0.758) [III]

2. Israel (0.919) [IV]

3. Singapore (0.939) [I]

4. Germany (0.942) [II]


Sequence: III \(\rightarrow\) IV \(\rightarrow\) I \(\rightarrow\) II.
Quick Tip: Carefully compare the decimal values. 0.942 > 0.939.


Question 17:

Choose the correctly matched pair.


Correct Answer: (A) Austria -- Europe
View Solution



(A) Austria is a landlocked country in Central Europe. (Correct Match).


(B) Cuba is an island nation in the Caribbean, part of North America, not Africa.


(C) Chile is a country on the western edge of South America, not Asia.


(D) Mexico is in the southern portion of North America, not South America.
Quick Tip: Geographic Literacy: Austria is in Europe. Australia is a continent itself (Oceania). Don't confuse them.


Question 18:

Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow :


There are many professionals who provide their services against payment of their fee. Thus, all types of services are special skills provided in exchange of payments. Health, education, law, governance and recreation, etc., require professional skills. These services require other theoretical knowledge and practical training. Tertiary activities are related to the service sector. Manpower is an important component of the service sector as most of the tertiary activities are performed by skilled labour, professionally trained experts and consultants. In the initial stages of economic development, larger proportion of people worked in the primary sector. In a developed economy, the majority of workers get employment in tertiary activity and a moderate proportion is employed in the secondary sector.


How can a person avail services of a professional ?

Correct Answer: By payment of their fee
View Solution



The passage explicitly states in the first sentence: ``There are many professionals who provide their services against payment of their fee.''


Therefore, a person avails these services by exchanging payments or fees.
Quick Tip: Source-based answer: Look for the "How" in the first line of the text.


Question 19:

Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow :

Explain any one difference between secondary and tertiary sectors.

Correct Answer: Secondary involves production of goods; Tertiary involves provision of services.
View Solution



Secondary Sector: It is related to the manufacturing, processing, and construction industries where tangible goods are produced (e.g., making steel, weaving cloth).


Tertiary Sector: As mentioned in the passage, it is related to the "service sector". It involves the provision of special skills, expertise, and knowledge (intangible services) rather than physical goods (e.g., teaching, medical treatment).
Quick Tip: Secondary = Factory/Goods. Tertiary = Skills/Services.


Question 20:

Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow :

Describe any one example of the relationship between primary and secondary sectors.

Correct Answer: Primary provides raw materials to Secondary; Secondary provides machinery to Primary.
View Solution



The relationship is interdependent:


Example 1: The Primary sector produces raw cotton (agriculture). The Secondary sector (textile industry) uses this cotton as a raw material to manufacture cloth.


Example 2: The Secondary sector manufactures tools and machinery (tractors, fertilizers). The Primary sector uses these inputs to increase agricultural production.
Quick Tip: Input-Output Link: Farm output \(\rightarrow\) Factory input. Factory output \(\rightarrow\) Farm tool.


Question 21:

Study the given map (Trans-Canadian Railway) carefully and answer the questions that follow :

Mention the names of the terminal stations of the given railway line.


Correct Answer: Vancouver and Halifax
View Solution



The map shows the Trans-Canadian Railway line stretching across Canada.


The western terminal station on the Pacific coast is Vancouver (marked near 120°W).


The eastern terminal station on the Atlantic coast is Halifax (marked near 60°W).
Quick Tip: Trans-Canadian Terminals: West = Vancouver. East = Halifax.


Question 22:

Study the given map carefully and answer the questions that follow :

Mention the names of the oceans lying in the East and West directions of this railway line.

Correct Answer: Atlantic Ocean (East) and Pacific Ocean (West)
View Solution



The railway line spans the North American continent.


To the West of the line (near Vancouver) lies the Pacific Ocean.


To the East of the line (near Halifax) lies the Atlantic Ocean.
Quick Tip: Canada Geography: West Coast = Pacific. East Coast = Atlantic.


Question 23:

Study the given map carefully and answer the questions that follow :

Explain the economic importance of this railway line.

Correct Answer: It connects the wheat belts and industrial regions to export ports.
View Solution



1. Economic Artery: The Trans-Canadian Railway is the economic lifeline of Canada.


2. Transport of Goods: It connects the wheat-growing Prairie regions (like Winnipeg) and the coniferous forest regions (for timber/pulp) to the ports of Vancouver and Halifax for export to world markets.


3. Integration: It integrates the industrial region of Quebec-Montreal with the resource-rich interior.
Quick Tip: Key Economic Function: Moving Wheat and Meat from the interior to the sea.


Question 24:

Describe any three characteristics of Trans-Canadian Railways.

Correct Answer: Descriptive Answer (See Solution)
View Solution



1. Length and Route: It is about 7,050 km long, connecting Halifax in the east to Vancouver in the west.


2. Economic Significance: It carries millions of tonnes of freight, primarily wheat from the Prairies and wood pulp/timber from the forests, linking production centers to export ports.


3. Strategic Value: It was constructed in 1886 to politically and economically integrate the West Coast (British Columbia) with the rest of the Canadian confederation.
Quick Tip: Keywords: 7050 km, Halifax-Vancouver, Wheat Export, National Integration.


Question 25:

Examine the concept of naturalisation of humans.

Correct Answer: Descriptive Answer (See Solution)
View Solution



1. Definition:

``Naturalisation of humans'' refers to the early stage of human history where human beings were greatly influenced and controlled by the forces of nature.


2. Environmental Determinism:

This concept is associated with the philosophy of Environmental Determinism. It posits that humans are passive agents who adapt to the dictates of nature because of a low level of technology.


3. Characteristics:

Primitive societies listened to nature, feared its fury, and worshipped it. Their lifestyle (food, clothing, shelter) was entirely determined by the immediate physical environment.
Quick Tip: Naturalisation of Humans = Environmental Determinism = Nature controls Man.


Question 26:

Examine the humanistic approach of human geography.

Correct Answer: Descriptive Answer (See Solution)
View Solution



1. Focus on Human Agency:

The humanistic approach emphasizes the central role of human awareness, agency, consciousness, and creativity in understanding geography.


2. Welfare and Quality of Life:

It focuses on the social well-being of people, dealing with issues like housing, health, and education. It moves away from mere quantitative data to qualitative human experiences.


3. Subjectivity:

It considers the subjective perceptions and feelings of people towards their environment (e.g., sense of place), arguing that human behavior cannot be explained solely by mechanical laws.
Quick Tip: Humanistic = Focus on People's Welfare, Thoughts, and Feelings (Anti-Quantitative).


Question 27:

Explain the importance of international trade in modern times.

Correct Answer: Descriptive Answer (See Solution)
View Solution



1. Access to Goods:

No country is self-sufficient. Trade allows nations to acquire goods and services that they cannot produce themselves due to geographical or technological limitations.


2. Specialization and Efficiency:

It promotes international specialization. Countries produce what they are best at (Comparative Advantage), leading to higher global efficiency and lower prices.


3. Economic Growth:

Trade acts as an engine of growth by expanding markets for domestic producers, creating jobs, and facilitating the transfer of technology and capital between nations.
Quick Tip: Trade = Resource Exchange + Specialization + Economic Development.


Question 28:

Why does `solar thermal energy' have greater advantage over `non-renewable energy' in India ? Explain.

Correct Answer: Descriptive Answer (See Solution)
View Solution



1. Sustainability:

Non-renewable energy (coal, petroleum) is exhaustible and will run out. Solar energy is renewable and inexhaustible, providing long-term energy security.


2. Environmental Impact:

Fossil fuels cause severe pollution and contribute to global warming. Solar energy is clean, eco-friendly, and carbon-neutral.
Quick Tip: Solar vs Coal: Solar is Clean & Infinite. Coal is Dirty & Finite. India has abundant sun.


Question 29:

Study the following table carefully and answer the questions that follow :

Mention the increase in number of towns/UAs in 1991 in comparison to 1941.


Correct Answer: 2439
View Solution



Number of towns in 1941 = 2,250

Number of towns in 1991 = 4,689

Increase = \(4689 - 2250 = 2439\).
Quick Tip: Simple subtraction: Value(1991) - Value(1941).


Question 30:

Study the following table carefully and answer the questions that follow :

In which decade is the minimum increase in the percentage of urban population recorded ?

Correct Answer: 1951 - 1961
View Solution



Comparing the "% of Total Population" column:

1931-41: \(13.86 - 11.99 = 1.87\)

1941-51: \(17.29 - 13.86 = 3.43\)

1951-61: \(17.97 - 17.29 = 0.68\)

1961-71: \(19.91 - 17.97 = 1.94\)

The minimum increase of 0.68 percentage points occurred in 1951-1961.
Quick Tip: Look for the smallest jump in the percentage column. 17.29 to 17.97 is very small.


Question 31:

Study the following table carefully and answer the questions that follow :

Describe the decennial growth of urbanisation.

Correct Answer: Fluctuating but positive growth.
View Solution



The "Decennial Growth (%)" column shows the rate at which the urban population grew.

It increased significantly from 19.12% (1931) to a peak of 41.42% (1951).

It then dropped to 26.41% (1961) and has since stabilized/fluctuated between 31% and 46%.

Overall, it indicates that the urban population is consistently growing, though the \textit{rate of growth varies.
Quick Tip: Describe the trend in the last column: Up, Down, then High.


Question 32:

Analyse any five factors influencing the distribution of world population.

Correct Answer: Descriptive Answer (See Solution)
View Solution



1. Geographical Factors:

- Water: Population is dense in river valleys (fresh water) and sparse in deserts.

- Landforms: Plains attract more people (agriculture/transport) than rugged mountains.

- Climate: Moderate climates are preferred over extreme hot/cold regions.

- Soils: Fertile soils support agriculture and high population density.


2. Economic Factors:

- Minerals: Mineral-rich areas (e.g., Katanga-Zambia copper belt) attract industry and people.

- Urbanisation: Cities offer jobs, education, and healthcare, pulling people from rural areas.

- Industrialisation: Industrial belts provide employment, attracting labor.


3. Social/Cultural Factors:

- Places of religious or cultural significance attract people, while areas of social unrest push them away.
Quick Tip: Factors = Geo (Climate/Land) + Eco (Jobs/Minerals) + Social (Peace/Religion).


Question 33:

``Rearing of animals in ranches is organized on the scientific basis.'' Examine the statement.

Correct Answer: Descriptive Answer (See Solution)
View Solution



1. Commercial Livestock Rearing:

This statement refers to Commercial Livestock Rearing, which is distinct from subsistence herding. It is capital intensive and organized scientifically.


2. Ranches:

Animals are kept on huge permanent fenced farms called ranches. These are divided into paddocks to regulate grazing (scientific management of pastures).


3. Scientific Breeding:

Emphasis is placed on breeding, genetic improvement, disease control, and health care of the livestock to maximize quality and yield.


4. Specialization:

It is a specialized activity where usually only one type of animal (sheep, cattle, etc.) is reared for specific products like wool or meat for export markets.
Quick Tip: Ranching = Fences + Science + Export + One Animal Type.


Question 34:

``Mixed economies have public, private and joint sector industries.'' Examine the statement.

Correct Answer: Descriptive Answer (See Solution)
View Solution



1. Definition of Mixed Economy:

A mixed economy combines elements of capitalism (market economy) and socialism (command economy).


2. Public Sector:

Strategic industries (defence, railways, nuclear power) are owned and managed by the state (Government) to ensure public welfare and national security.


3. Private Sector:

Consumer goods and other non-strategic industries are owned by private individuals or corporations, driven by the profit motive.


4. Joint Sector:

Some industries are managed jointly by the state and private individuals, allowing the government to regulate while leveraging private efficiency.
Quick Tip: Mixed Economy = Govt (Welfare) + Private (Profit) co-existing. Example: India.


Question 35:

How does personal communication system enable the user to establish direct contact with the world of knowledge and information ? Analyse.

Correct Answer: Descriptive Answer (See Solution)
View Solution



1. Internet and E-mail:

The internet is the most effective personal communication system. It acts as a vast library, providing instant access to global data, research, and news.


2. E-Commerce and E-Governance:

It facilitates direct transactions and interactions with government/businesses, bypassing intermediaries and accessing services directly.


3. Social Connectivity:

Platforms allow users to share ideas, debate, and gain diverse perspectives from across the globe instantly.


4. Efficiency:

It handles huge amounts of data at low cost and high speed, making knowledge accessible to anyone with a connection, thus democratizing information.
Quick Tip: Personal Communication = Internet = Access to World Knowledge.


Question 36:

Analyse the changing pattern of imports in India.

Correct Answer: Descriptive Answer (See Solution)
View Solution



1. Food Grains Decline:

In the 1950s/60s, India imported massive amounts of food grains. After the Green Revolution, these imports have declined significantly as India became self-sufficient.


2. Petroleum Dominance:

Crude oil and petroleum products remain the largest import item due to rising industrial and transport demand and lack of domestic reserves.


3. Capital Goods Rise:

Imports of capital goods (machinery, technology) have increased to support India's industrialization and infrastructure development.


4. Precious Stones:

Pearls and semi-precious stones are major imports, which are processed/polished in India and then re-exported (value addition).
Quick Tip: Imports Trend: Food \(\downarrow\), Oil \(\uparrow\), Machinery \(\uparrow\), Raw Stones \(\uparrow\).


Question 37:

Define the concept of `Common Property Resource'. Explain any four characteristics of common property resources in India.

Correct Answer: Descriptive Answer (See Solution)
View Solution



Definition:

Common Property Resources (CPRs) are land or resources owned by the state or community, not by individuals, meant for public use.


Characteristics:

1. Community Access: Every member of the community has the right to access and use these resources (e.g., village panchayat land).

2. Livelihood Support: They provide fodder for livestock, fuel wood for cooking, and other minor forest produce, crucial for landless and marginal farmers.

3. Management: They are typically managed by community bodies like the Gram Sabha or Panchayat.

4. Ecological Importance: They often include forests, pastures, and water bodies that maintain the ecological balance of the village.
Quick Tip: CPR = Village Commons. Benefit = Poor people (Fuel/Fodder).


Question 38:

Distinguish between `irrigated' and `rainfed agriculture' in India with examples.

Correct Answer: Descriptive Answer (See Solution)
View Solution



1. Irrigated Agriculture:

- Water Source: Relies on artificial supply (canals, tube wells) to supplement rainfall.

- Objective: Protect crops from drought (Protective) or provide moisture for high yields (Productive).

- Crops: Water-intensive crops like Rice, Sugarcane, Wheat.


2. Rainfed (Barani) Agriculture:

- Water Source: Relies entirely on natural rainfall.

- Objective: Focuses on moisture conservation.

- Types: Divided into Dryland Farming (regions <75cm rain, hardy crops like Millets, Pulses) and Wetland Farming (regions >75cm rain, crops like Rice, Jute).
Quick Tip: Irrigated = Assured Water (Wheat/Rice). Rainfed = Monsoon Dependent (Millets/Pulses).


Question 39:

``Spatial variation in population density is found in India.'' Explain the statement with examples.

Correct Answer: Descriptive Answer (See Solution)
View Solution



India's population density is extremely uneven due to diverse geographical and economic factors.


1. High Density Areas:

States like Bihar (1106 persons/sq km) and West Bengal have very high density due to fertile alluvial soil (Ganga delta), flat terrain, and abundant water favoring intensive agriculture.


2. Moderate Density Areas:

Peninsular states like Gujarat, Andhra Pradesh, and Odisha have moderate density due to rocky terrain and variable rainfall.
Quick Tip: Density extremes: Bihar (>1100) vs Arunachal (<20). Reason: Geography (Plains vs Mountains).


Question 40:

``Population distribution pattern in India is highly uneven.'' Explain the statement with examples.

Correct Answer: Descriptive Answer (See Solution)
View Solution



The spatial distribution of population in India is skewed.


1. Concentration in Plains:

A large percentage of the population lives in the Northern Plains (UP, Bihar, West Bengal) because of flat land, fertile soil, and water availability. Uttar Pradesh alone has the highest population.


2. Sparse in Difficult Terrains:

Regions with harsh environments like the Himalayan states (Uttarakhand, Himachal, North-East) and the deserts of Rajasthan have very low population concentration.


3. Urban Concentration:

Population is also highly concentrated in urban industrial agglomerations like Mumbai-Pune, Delhi-NCR, and Kolkata.
Quick Tip: UP has more people than many countries. Himalayas have very few. This is the "uneven" pattern.


Question 41:

Identify the geographical feature marked as 'A' on the map. (An area of nomadic herding)


Correct Answer: South-West Africa (Namibia/Kalahari)
View Solution



The shaded area marked 'A' is located in the south-western part of Africa, covering parts of Namibia and Botswana.


This corresponds to the arid and semi-arid region of the Kalahari Desert, which is a well-known region for nomadic herding.
Quick Tip: Map Region: South-West Africa = Kalahari Desert = Nomadic Herding.


Question 42:

Identify the geographical feature marked as 'B' on the map. (A major sea port)

Correct Answer: Sydney
View Solution



The point 'B' is located on the south-eastern coast of Australia.


This is the location of Sydney, which is a major commercial sea port and city in Australia.
Quick Tip: East Coast Australia Port = Sydney.


Question 43:

Identify the geographical feature marked as 'C' on the map. (An area of extensive commercial grain farming)

Correct Answer: Pampas
View Solution



The shaded area 'C' is located in Argentina, South America.


This region represents the Pampas grasslands, which are famous for extensive commercial grain farming (wheat) and livestock ranching.
Quick Tip: Argentina Grasslands = Pampas.


Question 44:

Identify the geographical feature marked as 'D' on the map. (A major airport)

Correct Answer: Rome
View Solution



The point 'D' is located in the Italian peninsula in Europe.


It corresponds to Rome (Fiumicino Airport), the capital city of Italy.
Quick Tip: Capital of Italy = Rome.


Question 45:

Identify the geographical feature marked as 'E' on the map. (An inland waterway)

Correct Answer: Rhine Waterway
View Solution



The line 'E' traces the path of a major river flowing from Switzerland/Germany to the North Sea.


This is the Rhine Waterway, the most heavily used inland waterway in Europe.
Quick Tip: Major European River flowing North = Rhine.


Question 46:

Identify the geographical feature marked as 'F' on the map. (A major airport)

Correct Answer: Tokyo
View Solution



The point 'F' is located on the island of Honshu in Japan.


This corresponds to Tokyo, the capital city and a major global aviation hub.
Quick Tip: Capital of Japan = Tokyo.


Question 47:

Identify the geographical feature marked as 'G' on the map. (A terminal station of a trans-continental railway)

Correct Answer: St. Petersburg (Leningrad)
View Solution



The point 'G' is located on the western edge of Russia near the Baltic Sea.


This is St. Petersburg, the western terminal station of the Trans-Siberian Railway.
Quick Tip: Western End of Trans-Siberian = St. Petersburg.


Question 48:

Name the area of nomadic herding in Southern Africa.

Correct Answer: The Velds (or Kalahari Desert region)
View Solution



The semi-arid and arid regions of Southern Africa, particularly the Kalahari desert and parts of the Velds, are traditional areas for nomadic herding.
Quick Tip: Southern Africa Dry Region = Kalahari.


Question 49:

Name a major sea port located in South-eastern part of Australia.

Correct Answer: Sydney (or Melbourne)
View Solution



Sydney is the largest and most significant port city located on the south-eastern coast of Australia.
Quick Tip: Major Australian Port = Sydney.


Question 50:

Name an area of extensive commercial grain farming of South America.

Correct Answer: Pampas
View Solution



The Pampas of Argentina are the prime region for commercial wheat cultivation in South America.
Quick Tip: Argentina = Pampas.


Question 51:

Name a major airport in Mexico.

Correct Answer: Mexico City
View Solution



The major international gateway for Mexico is the Benito Juárez International Airport in Mexico City.
Quick Tip: Capital = Mexico City.


Question 52:

Name the inland waterway of Egypt.

Correct Answer: Suez Canal (or Nile River)
View Solution



The Suez Canal is the most critical man-made waterway in Egypt facilitating international trade. The Nile is also an inland waterway but Suez is the major commercial highway.
Quick Tip: Egypt Trade Route = Suez Canal.


Question 53:

Name the major international airport of Japan.

Correct Answer: Tokyo
View Solution



Tokyo (served by Narita and Haneda airports) is the primary international air hub of Japan.
Quick Tip: Japan Hub = Tokyo.


Question 54:

Name the terminal station of the western end of Trans-Siberian Railway.

Correct Answer: St. Petersburg
View Solution



The Trans-Siberian Railway connects Vladivostok in the East to St. Petersburg in the West.
Quick Tip: West End = St. Petersburg.


Question 55:

Locate and label the following on the political outline map of India:

The state leading in the production of rice.


Correct Answer: West Bengal
View Solution



West Bengal is the largest producer of rice in India.


The state produces three crops of rice in a year (Aus, Aman, and Boro) due to the favorable hot and humid climate and the fertile alluvial soil of the Ganga-Brahmaputra delta.


On the map, locate the state in eastern India bordering Bangladesh.
Quick Tip: Rice requires high water. The Delta region of West Bengal is ideal.


Question 56:

Locate and label the following on the political outline map of India:

An oil refinery in Uttar Pradesh.

Correct Answer: Mathura
View Solution



The Mathura Refinery is the major oil refinery located in the state of Uttar Pradesh.


It is owned by the Indian Oil Corporation (IOC) and is strategically located to supply petroleum products to the north-western region of India.


On the map, locate the point in western Uttar Pradesh, south of New Delhi.
Quick Tip: Mathura is famous for the refinery (and the Taj Mahal pollution concerns associated with it).


Question 57:

Locate and label the following on the political outline map of India:

The sea port situated at the head of Vembanad Kayal.

Correct Answer: Kochi (Cochin)
View Solution



Kochi is a natural harbour situated at the head (opening) of the Vembanad Kayal, which is a famous lagoon or backwater in Kerala.


It has a strategic location close to the Suez-Colombo route and is known as the ``Queen of the Arabian Sea''.


On the map, locate the port on the central coast of Kerala.
Quick Tip: Kayal = Backwater/Lagoon in Kerala. Kochi is the main port inside this lagoon.


Question 58:

Locate and label the following on the political outline map of India:

Important bauxite mines located in southern Odisha.

Correct Answer: Koraput
View Solution



Odisha is the largest bauxite producing state.


The most important bauxite deposits in the \textit{southern part of the state are found in the Koraput district (specifically the Panchpatmali hills).


On the map, locate the southernmost district of Odisha.
Quick Tip: Southern Odisha = Koraput district (famous for Bauxite).


Question 59:

Locate and label the following on the political outline map of India:

The international airport in Assam.

Correct Answer: Guwahati
View Solution



The major international airport serving Assam and the North East is the Lokpriya Gopinath Bordoloi International Airport.


It is located in Guwahati.


On the map, locate the city on the banks of the Brahmaputra river in western Assam.
Quick Tip: Gateway to North East India = Guwahati Airport.


Question 60:

Locate and label the following on the political outline map of India:

Important iron ore mines located in southern Chhattisgarh.

Correct Answer: Bailadila
View Solution



Chhattisgarh has two main iron ore belts: Dalli-Rajhara (Central) and Bailadila (Southern).


The Bailadila range produces very high-grade hematite ore and is located in the Bastar/Dantewada region in the south.


On the map, locate the point in the southern tip of Chhattisgarh.
Quick Tip: "Bailadila" means "Hump of an Ox". It is in the far south of Chhattisgarh.


Question 61:

Locate and label the following on the political outline map of India:

Important copper mines located in southern Rajasthan.

Correct Answer: Udaipur
View Solution



Rajasthan is a major copper producer.


While Khetri (Jhunjhunu) is in the north, the important copper mines in \textit{southern Rajasthan are located in the Udaipur district (e.g., Kho-Dariba, Delwara).


On the map, locate Udaipur in the southern part of Rajasthan.
Quick Tip: North Rajasthan Copper = Khetri. South Rajasthan Copper = Udaipur.


Question 62:

Name the state leading in the production of rice.

Correct Answer: West Bengal
View Solution



West Bengal is the largest producer of rice in India.


The state contributes a significant share to the national output due to the availability of fertile alluvial soil in the Ganga delta and abundant rainfall.


Farmers here can grow three crops of rice in a year, known locally as 'Aus', 'Aman', and 'Boro'.
Quick Tip: Rice = High Water + Alluvial Soil = West Bengal.


Question 63:

Name the place where an oil refinery is located in Uttar Pradesh.

Correct Answer: Mathura
View Solution



The Mathura Refinery is the only major oil refinery located in the state of Uttar Pradesh.


It was commissioned in 1982 to meet the petroleum product demand of the north-western region of India.
Quick Tip: Mathura Refinery is often linked to questions about the Taj Mahal (pollution zone).


Question 64:

Name the sea port situated at the head of Vembanad Kayal.

Correct Answer: Kochi (Cochin)
View Solution



Kochi is a major port located on the west coast of India in Kerala.


It is a natural harbour situated at the head (opening) of the Vembanad Kayal, which is the largest lake/backwater in Kerala.
Quick Tip: Kayal means "Backwater" or "Lagoon". Kochi is the Queen of the Arabian Sea situated here.


Question 65:

Name the place where important bauxite mines are located in southern Odisha.

Correct Answer: Koraput
View Solution



Odisha is the largest producer of bauxite in India.


The Koraput district in the southern part of the state contains the famous Panchpatmali deposits, which are the largest bauxite deposits in the country.
Quick Tip: Bauxite + South Odisha = Koraput.


Question 66:

Name the international airport in Assam.

Correct Answer: Guwahati
View Solution



The major international airport in Assam is located in the city of Guwahati.


It is officially named the Lokpriya Gopinath Bordoloi International Airport.
Quick Tip: Guwahati is the gateway to the North East.


Question 67:

Name the place where important iron ore mines are located in southern Chhattisgarh.

Correct Answer: Bailadila
View Solution



The iron ore mines in southern Chhattisgarh are located in the Bailadila range (Bastar/Dantewada districts).


It produces high-grade hematite ore which is exported to Japan and South Korea via Visakhapatnam port.
Quick Tip: Southern Chhattisgarh = Bailadila. Central Chhattisgarh = Dalli-Rajhara.


Question 68:

Name the place where important copper mines are located in southern Rajasthan.

Correct Answer: Udaipur
View Solution



While the Khetri mines are in northern Rajasthan, the important copper deposits in southern Rajasthan are found in the Udaipur district.


Specific mining locations include Kho-Dariba and Delwara in the Udaipur region.
Quick Tip: North Rajasthan = Khetri. South Rajasthan = Udaipur.

*The article might have information for the previous academic years, please refer the official website of the exam.

Ask your question

Subscribe To Our News Letter

Get Latest Notification Of Colleges, Exams and News

© 2026 Patronum Web Private Limited