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Sanghamitra Deb

Content Writer | Updated On - Dec 5, 2025

CBSE Class 12 Geography Exam 2025 Question Paper with Solution PDF is available for download. CBSE conducted the exam successfully on February 24, 2025, from 10:30 AM to 1:30 PM in pen-paper mode. As per students’ initial reactions, the CBSE Class 12 Geography 2025 Question Paper was reported as well-balanced and moderate. The map-based and application-based questions were moderately difficult, while multiple-choice and conceptual questions were reported as easy.

CBSE Class 12 Geography (Set 3 – 64/4/3) Question Paper 2025 with Solution PDF

CBSE Board Class 12 Geography Question Paper Download PDF Check Solutions
CBSE Class 12 Geography Question Paper 2025 With Solutions Set 3 64 4 3

Question 1:

Read the following features and identify the crop:

It is a tropical plantation crop and has three varieties.

Karnataka alone accounts for more than two-third of its total production of India.

It is grown in the highlands of Western Ghats in Karnataka and Kerala.


 

  • (A) Sugarcane
  • (B) Tea
  • (C) Coffee
  • (D) Cotton
Correct Answer: (C) Coffee
View Solution



1. Varieties: Coffee has three main varieties: Arabica, Robusta, and Liberica.


2. Production Share: Karnataka is the leading producer, accounting for approximately 70% (more than two-thirds) of the total coffee production in India.


3. Region: It is strictly a plantation crop cultivated on the slopes of the Western Ghats (specifically Baba Budan Hills in Karnataka).


Tea is primarily grown in Assam and West Bengal. Sugarcane and Cotton are not hill-slope plantation crops in this specific context.
Quick Tip: Key Association: Karnataka + Western Ghats + Plantation = Coffee.


Question 2:

Read the following statements related to plantation agriculture carefully and choose the correct option.

I. It requires good transportation system.

II. It needs large capital investment.

III. It is a single crop specialisation.

IV. It is best developed in Eurasian Steppes.

Options :

  • (A) Only I, III and IV are correct.
  • (B) Only II, III and IV are correct.
  • (C) Only I, II and IV are correct.
  • (D) Only I, II and III are correct.
Correct Answer: (D) Only I, II and III are correct.
View Solution



Statement I is correct: Plantation products (like tea, coffee, rubber) are often perishable or meant for export, requiring an efficient transport network connecting estates to factories and markets.


Statement II is correct: It is a capital-intensive system requiring huge investment in land, machinery, and labor infrastructure.


Statement III is correct: The defining feature of plantation agriculture is monoculture, or single crop specialization.


Statement IV is incorrect: The Eurasian Steppes are famous for Extensive Commercial Grain Farming (Wheat), not tropical plantations. Plantations are found in tropical regions.


Therefore, the correct combination is I, II, and III.
Quick Tip: Geographical mismatch: Steppes (Temperate Grasslands) \(\neq\) Plantations (Tropical).


Question 3:

Identify the most appropriate characteristic of chain stores from the following.

  • (A) They are equally effective in rural and urban areas.
  • (B) They deal in retail and wholesale trading.
  • (C) They employ highly skilled specialists in many executive tasks.
  • (D) They provide services to individual consumers who can afford to pay.
Correct Answer: (C) They employ highly skilled specialists in many executive tasks.
View Solution



According to the NCERT Human Geography textbook (Chapter on Tertiary Activities):


Chain stores rely on economies of scale.


They are able to purchase merchandise in very large quantities.


A specific characteristic mentioned is that ``They employ highly skilled specialists in many executive tasks.''


Option (A) is incorrect as they are mostly urban. Option (B) is incorrect as they are primarily retail outlets (multiple shops). Option (D) is a generic statement more suited to departmental stores.
Quick Tip: Chain Stores = Centralized Purchasing + Decentralized Selling + Skilled Executives.


Question 4:

Arrange the following sea ports connecting the western part of United States of America (USA) to western Europe and choose the correct option.

I. Honolulu

II. London

III. San Francisco

IV. Colon

Options :

  • (A) I, III, IV, II
  • (B) I, III, II, IV
  • (C) III, I, II, IV
  • (D) III, I, IV, II
Correct Answer: (A) I, III, IV, II
View Solution



We trace the route geographically from West to East (Pacific to Atlantic):


1. Honolulu (I): Located in Hawaii, in the middle of the Pacific Ocean (approx. \(157^\circ\) W).


2. San Francisco (III): Located on the West Coast of mainland USA (approx. \(122^\circ\) W).


3. Colon (IV): Located at the Atlantic terminus of the Panama Canal (\(79^\circ\) W), which ships must pass through to reach Europe.


4. London (II): Located in Western Europe (UK, \(0^\circ\) Longitude).


The correct logical sequence is Honolulu \(\rightarrow\) San Francisco \(\rightarrow\) Colon \(\rightarrow\) London.
Quick Tip: Think Longitude: Hawaii (Westmost) \(\rightarrow\) California \(\rightarrow\) Panama Canal \(\rightarrow\) Europe (Eastmost).


Question 5:

Choose the correctly matched pair of ports :

\hspace{1cm} Port \hspace{3cm} Example

  • (A) Naval Port \hspace{1.8cm} -- \hspace{0.5cm} Abadan
  • (B) Entrepot Port \hspace{1.4cm} -- \hspace{0.5cm} Kochchi
  • (C) Oil Port \hspace{2.3cm} -- \hspace{0.5cm} Esskhira
  • (D) Commercial Port \hspace{0.8cm} -- \hspace{0.5cm} Dover
Correct Answer: (C) Oil Port -- Esskhira
View Solution



(A) Abadan (Iran) is a major oil refinery and oil port, not typically classified primarily as a Naval port in this context.


(B) Kochchi (India) is a commercial/naval port. Typical examples of Entrepot ports are Singapore, Rotterdam, or Copenhagen.


(C) Esskhira (Tunisia) is explicitly listed in the NCERT textbook as an Oil Port.


(D) Dover (UK) is a Packet Station (Ferry Port) handling passengers and mail across the English Channel, not a general commercial port.


Therefore, (C) is the correctly matched pair.
Quick Tip: Textbook Examples: Oil Ports = Tripoli, Esskhira, Abadan. Packet Station = Dover, Calais.


Question 6:

Arrange the following coal mines of India according to their location from north to south and choose the correct option.

I. Singareni

II. Neyveli

III. Singrauli

IV. Korba

Options :

  • (A) IV, I, III, II
  • (B) I, III, IV, II
  • (C) III, IV, I, II
  • (D) III, I, IV, II
Correct Answer: (C) III, IV, I, II
View Solution



We locate the mines on the map of India:


1. Singrauli (III): Located on the border of Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh (Northernmost in this list).


2. Korba (IV): Located in Chhattisgarh (South of Singrauli).


3. Singareni (I): Located in the Godavari Valley of Telangana (South of Chhattisgarh).


4. Neyveli (II): Located in Tamil Nadu (Southernmost, famous for Lignite).


Sequence North to South: III \(\rightarrow\) IV \(\rightarrow\) I \(\rightarrow\) II.
Quick Tip: Map Trick: Singrau-LI (Up/MP) vs Singare-NI (Telangana). Neyveli is deep south (TN).


Question 7:

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option.

Assertion (A) : Foot loose industries can be located in a wide variety of places.

Reason (R) : Location of foot loose industries is determined by transport network accessibility.

  • (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  • (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  • (C) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
  • (D) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
Correct Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
View Solution



Assertion (A) is true: Foot loose industries are not raw-material specific. They produce small, light components and are not weight-losing, allowing them to be located anywhere.


Reason (R) is true: The most important factor for their location is accessibility by road or transport network to bring in parts and dispatch products.


Logical Link: Since the primary requirement is transport accessibility (which is available in many places) rather than a fixed resource location, they can be located in a wide variety of places. Thus, (R) explains (A).
Quick Tip: Foot Loose = Mobile. Constraint = Transport Access.


Question 8:

Which one of the following is not a challenge of adolescent population faced by the society ?

  • (A) High marriage age
  • (B) Drug abuse and alcoholism
  • (C) Low female literacy
  • (D) Dropouts from school
Correct Answer: (A) High marriage age
View Solution



The challenges listed in the NCERT text regarding adolescents include:

- Lower age at marriage (Child marriage).

- Illiteracy.

- Drug abuse and alcoholism.

- School dropouts.


A ``High marriage age'' is a positive development indicator and helps control population growth and improve health; it is not a challenge. The challenge is ``low marriage age''.
Quick Tip: Distinguish between the "problem" (Low age) and the "solution" (High age).


Question 9:

Which one of the following is the characteristic of `Phase-III' of population growth in India ?

  • (A) High female literacy and declining population
  • (B) Improvisation in medical facilities and living conditions
  • (C) Great Economic Depression and effects of World War II
  • (D) Low population growth and low net increase
Correct Answer: (B) Improvisation in medical facilities and living conditions
View Solution



Phase III (1951-1981) was the period of population explosion.


The explosion occurred because the mortality (death) rate fell rapidly due to better health services, sanitation, and general developmental activities (improvisation in living conditions).


However, the fertility rate remained high, creating a large gap and rapid growth.


(C) corresponds to Phase II (1921-51). (D) corresponds to Phase I (1901-21).
Quick Tip: Phase III = Explosion. Cause = Better Health (Deaths \(\downarrow\)) + High Births.


Question 10:

``A very large proportion of workers are engaged in other services in highly urbanized areas.'' With reference to the given statement choose the correct option.

I. Large scale urbanisation and industrialisation require more workers.

II. Historically, it is a sectoral shift in the economy of the country.

III. Percentage of female workers is relatively high in secondary sector.

IV. It is a shift of workers from farm-based to non-farm-based occupations.

Options :

  • (A) Only I, II and III are correct.
  • (B) Only II, III and IV are correct.
  • (C) Only I, III and IV are correct.
  • (D) Only I, II and IV are correct.
Correct Answer: (D) Only I, II and IV are correct.
View Solution



Statement I is correct: Urbanization creates demand for services, requiring labor.


Statement II is correct: The move to services represents a sectoral shift (structural change) in the economy.


Statement III is incorrect: There is no general rule that female participation is highest in the secondary sector; in India, it is highest in the primary sector (agriculture), and in urban areas, it is growing in the tertiary sector.


Statement IV is correct: Urban jobs are predominantly non-farm based.


Therefore, the correct combination is I, II, and IV.
Quick Tip: Service Sector Growth = Urbanization + Sectoral Shift (Farm to Non-Farm).


Question 11:

The objective of Border Roads Organisation is :

  • (A) To construct roads in moderately elevated plateau areas.
  • (B) To construct roads in high altitude mountainous terrains.
  • (C) To construct roads in low lying plain areas.
  • (D) To construct roads in coastal areas for linking ports.
Correct Answer: (B) To construct roads in high altitude mountainous terrains.
View Solution



The Border Roads Organisation (BRO) was established in May 1960.


Its primary goal is to accelerate economic development and strengthen defence preparedness through the improvement of roads.


It operates primarily in the North and North-Eastern border areas of India.


Geographically, these border areas correspond to the high-altitude mountainous terrains of the Himalayas.
Quick Tip: BRO = Strategic Borders = Himalayas = High Altitude.


Question 12:

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option.

Assertion (A) : The significance of Kolkata sea port has declined in the recent times.

Reason (R) : Kolkata port is confronted with the problem of silt accumulation in the Hugli river.

  • (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  • (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  • (C) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
  • (D) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
Correct Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
View Solution



Assertion (A) is correct: Kolkata was once the premier port of British India, but its relative significance has declined due to the rise of other ports (like Haldia, Paradip, Visakhapatnam) and operational challenges.


Reason (R) is correct: Kolkata is a riverine port located on the Hugli river. It faces a constant natural problem of silt accumulation (siltation) which reduces the depth of the channel.


Logical Link: Because of siltation (R), heavy dredging is required and very large ships cannot enter, which limits the port's capacity and traffic, directly causing a decline in its significance (A).
Quick Tip: Riverine Ports (like Kolkata) generally face Siltation problems.


Question 13:

Which one of the following is incorrectly matched ?


Correct Answer: (D) Marginal worker -- Total population/Total working population
View Solution



Option (A) is correct: Physiological density measures the pressure of total population on agricultural land.


Option (B) is correct: Agricultural density measures the pressure of the agricultural population on cultivable land.


Option (C) is correct: Arithmetic density is simply people per unit area.


Option (D) is incorrect: A ``Marginal Worker'' is a Census category defined by the \textit{duration of work (someone who works for less than 183 days in a year). The ratio shown (Total Population / Total Working Population) is related to the dependency ratio, not the definition of a marginal worker.
Quick Tip: Worker definitions are based on Time: Main (>183 days) vs Marginal (<183 days).


Question 14:

Identify the characteristics of `Phase-I' of population growth in India and choose the correct option.

I. Stagnant phase of population growth

II. Low or negative net growth of population

III. Rapid fall in the mortality rate

IV. Poor health and medical services


  • (A) Only I, II and III are correct.
  • (B) Only II, III and IV are correct.
  • (C) Only I, II and IV are correct.
  • (D) Only I, III and IV are correct.
Correct Answer: (C) Only I, II and IV are correct.
View Solution



Phase I (1901-1921) refers to the Stagnant Phase (Statement I).


Growth was extremely low, and even negative during the 1911-1921 decade (Statement II).


This was due to very High Birth Rates and very High Death Rates. There was no "rapid fall" in mortality during this phase; that happened later in Phase II (Statement III is incorrect).


The high mortality was caused by epidemics, food shortages, and poor health/medical services (Statement IV).


Thus, I, II, and IV are correct.
Quick Tip: Phase I = 1901-1921 = Stagnant = High Birth + High Death.


Question 15:

Which one of the following stages of demographic transition theory is an indicative of primitive stage ?

  • (A) Stage I
  • (B) First part of stage II
  • (C) Second part of stage II
  • (D) Stage III
Correct Answer: (A) Stage I
View Solution



Stage I of the Demographic Transition Theory describes a pre-industrial, agrarian society.


It is characterized by high fertility and high mortality.


People rely on manual labor, technology is low, and life expectancy is low. This state is indicative of a ``primitive'' society.
Quick Tip: Primitive = Stage I. Developing = Stage II. Developed = Stage III.


Question 16:

The highest difference between the crude birth rate and crude death rate is observed in which one of the following stages of demographic transition theory ?

  • (A) End of stage I
  • (B) End of the first part of stage II
  • (C) End of the second part of stage II
  • (D) End of stage III
Correct Answer: (B) End of the first part of stage II
View Solution



The natural increase rate depends on the gap between the Birth Rate and Death Rate.


In the first part of Stage II, the Death Rate declines sharply due to medical improvements, while the Birth Rate remains consistently high.


This creates the widest gap (maximum difference) between the two lines on the graph, leading to a population explosion. This gap typically peaks near the end of the first part of Stage II before the birth rate starts falling in the second part.
Quick Tip: Visualise the graph: The "bulge" is biggest in early Stage II.


Question 17:

Net increase in population during third stage of demographic transition theory is low due to which one of the following reasons ?

  • (A) Low birth rate and low death rate
  • (B) Low birth rate and high death rate
  • (C) High birth rate and low death rate
  • (D) High birth rate and high death rate
Correct Answer: (A) Low birth rate and low death rate
View Solution



Stage III (Low Stationary) is characterized by a stable or slowly growing population.


This stability is achieved because the Birth Rate has fallen significantly (due to family planning/literacy) and the Death Rate is also low (due to healthcare).


When both rates are low and nearly equal, the net increase is very small.
Quick Tip: Low Inputs (Births) + Low Outputs (Deaths) = Low Net Change.


Question 18:

Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow :


In agriculturally important countries, agro products are exchanged for manufactured goods, whereas industrialised nations export machinery and finished products and import food grains and other raw materials. Foreign investment can boost trade in developing countries which lack in capital required for the development of mining, oil drilling, heavy engineering, lumbering and plantation agriculture. By developing such capital intensive industries in developing countries, the industrial nations ensure import of food stuffs, minerals and create markets for their finished products. This entire cycle steps up the volume of trade between nations.


What types of items are exported by the industrialised nations ?

Correct Answer: Machinery and finished products
View Solution



The passage explicitly describes the trade composition of industrialised nations.


It states: ``...industrialised nations export machinery and finished products and import food grains...''


Therefore, the items exported are machinery and manufactured/finished goods.
Quick Tip: In source-based questions, lift the answer directly from the relevant sentence in the paragraph.


Question 19:

Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow :

In agriculturally important countries, agro products are exchanged for manufactured goods, whereas industrialised nations export machinery and finished products and import food grains and other raw materials. Foreign investment can boost trade in developing countries which lack in capital required for the development of mining, oil drilling, heavy engineering, lumbering and plantation agriculture. By developing such capital intensive industries in developing countries, the industrial nations ensure import of food stuffs, minerals and create markets for their finished products. This entire cycle steps up the volume of trade between nations.


Mention the way by which trade could be boosted in developing countries.

Correct Answer: Foreign Investment
View Solution



The passage identifies a solution for developing countries that lack capital.


It states: ``Foreign investment can boost trade in developing countries which lack in capital...''


This investment helps develop capital-intensive sectors like mining and plantations, thereby generating trade volume.
Quick Tip: Look for the phrase "boost trade" in the text to find the cause.


Question 20:

Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow :


In agriculturally important countries, agro products are exchanged for manufactured goods, whereas industrialised nations export machinery and finished products and import food grains and other raw materials. Foreign investment can boost trade in developing countries which lack in capital required for the development of mining, oil drilling, heavy engineering, lumbering and plantation agriculture. By developing such capital intensive industries in developing countries, the industrial nations ensure import of food stuffs, minerals and create markets for their finished products. This entire cycle steps up the volume of trade between nations.


Finished products of industrialised nations find the market in which types of countries ?

Correct Answer: Developing countries (or agriculturally important countries)
View Solution



The passage explains the cycle of trade.


Industrial nations invest in developing countries to ensure raw material supply and to ``create markets for their finished products''.


Thus, the finished goods are sold back to the developing countries where the investment was made.
Quick Tip: The relationship is symbiotic: Developing nations provide materials and buy finished goods.


Question 21:

Study the map of the Rhine waterway and answer the questions that follow :

Identify both the terminal ports of the Rhine waterway.


Correct Answer: Rotterdam and Basel
View Solution



The Rhine waterway is navigable for large vessels between the North Sea and Switzerland.


The terminal port at the mouth (North Sea end) is Rotterdam (Netherlands).


The terminal port at the southern end (upstream) is Basel (Switzerland).
Quick Tip: Rhine Ends: Top = Rotterdam. Bottom = Basel.


Question 22:

Study the map of the Rhine waterway and answer the questions that follow :

Identify any two countries through which the Rhine waterway passes.

Correct Answer: Germany and The Netherlands (or Switzerland/France)
View Solution



The map shows the river flowing through Western Europe.


It passes through Germany (major stretch with cities like Cologne).


It flows into the sea through The Netherlands.


It also touches France and Switzerland. Any two are correct.
Quick Tip: Primary countries: Germany and Netherlands.


Question 23:

Study the map of the Rhine waterway and answer the questions that follow :

On the map, which river joins the Rhine waterway from the east ?

Correct Answer: River Main (or Neckar/Ruhr)
View Solution



The map indicates tributaries joining from the right side (East).


The River Main joins the Rhine near Frankfurt/Mainz.


The River Neckar joins near Mannheim. The River Ruhr joins near Duisburg.
Quick Tip: Frankfurt is on the Main. Main flows from East to West into the Rhine.


Question 24:

Name both the terminal ports of the Rhine waterway.

Correct Answer: Rotterdam and Basel
View Solution



The navigable stretch of the Rhine for ocean-going vessels extends from Rotterdam in the Netherlands to Basel in Switzerland.
Quick Tip: Rotterdam = Sea Port. Basel = River Port (Inland).


Question 25:

Name any two countries through which the Rhine waterway passes.

Correct Answer: Germany and The Netherlands
View Solution



The Rhine is the most important waterway in Europe, flowing through Switzerland, France, Germany, and The Netherlands.
Quick Tip: It is the industrial lifeline of Germany.


Question 26:

Write the name of any one tributary which joins the Rhine waterway from the east.

Correct Answer: River Main (or Ruhr/Neckar)
View Solution



The River Main is a major eastern tributary that joins the Rhine. It is significant because of the Rhine-Main-Danube canal.
Quick Tip: Main connects Rhine to Danube.


Question 27:

``Human geography is a highly interdisciplinary subject.'' Analyse the statement.

Correct Answer: Descriptive Answer (See Solution)
View Solution



1. Synthesis: Human geography integrates knowledge from various fields to understand the relationship between humans and the earth.

2. Connections: It connects with Social Sciences (Sociology \(\rightarrow\) Social Geog), Economics (Economics \(\rightarrow\) Economic Geog), and Political Science (Political Science \(\rightarrow\) Political Geog).

3. Objective: This interdisciplinary approach is necessary to capture the complexity of human life in different spatial contexts.
Quick Tip: Interdisciplinary = Mixing subjects to get a complete picture.


Question 28:

``Human geography tries to explain the relationship of human beings with the physical environs of their occupancy.'' Analyse the statement.

Correct Answer: Descriptive Answer (See Solution)
View Solution



1. Interaction: The core of the subject is the dynamic interaction between the physical environment (Nature) and the socio-cultural environment (Man).

2. Evolution: It traces how this relationship has evolved from ``Environmental Determinism'' (nature controlling man) to ``Possibilism'' (man modifying nature).

3. Cultural Landscape: It explains how human activities create a ``cultural landscape'' (buildings, farms, roads) on the physical stage provided by the earth.
Quick Tip: Man + Environment = Human Geography.


Question 29:

``Skilled manpower is an important component of the service sector.'' Explain the statement.

Correct Answer: Descriptive Answer (See Solution)
View Solution



1. Nature of Services: Services are intangible and involve doing something for others. The quality of the service depends entirely on the skill of the performer.

2. Specialization: Modern services (like healthcare, engineering, IT) require specialized training, experience, and technical knowledge.

3. Value Addition: In the tertiary and quaternary sectors, value is generated by the mental labor and expertise of the worker (human capital) rather than by machines.
Quick Tip: Service Sector = Human Capital Intensive.


Question 30:

``Nuclear energy has emerged as a viable source in recent times.'' Evaluate the statement in Indian context.

Correct Answer: Descriptive Answer (See Solution)
View Solution



1. Alternative to Fossil Fuels: With coal and petroleum reserves depleting, nuclear energy offers a sustainable alternative to meet India's growing energy demands.

2. Resource Availability: India has significant reserves of Thorium (in Monazite sands of Kerala) and some Uranium (in Jharkhand, Rajasthan), which can be utilized.

3. Technology: India has developed indigenous nuclear technology (3-stage nuclear power programme) to harness this energy safely.

4. Efficiency: Nuclear power plants generate massive amounts of electricity from very small quantities of fuel, making them efficient for base-load power.
Quick Tip: Nuclear = Thorium (Kerala) + Uranium (Jharkhand) + High Efficiency.


Question 31:

In which decade is the maximum increase in number of towns/UAs observed ?


Correct Answer: 1981 - 1991
View Solution



Decadal increase in towns:

1971-81: \(3378 - 2590 = 788\)

1981-91: \(4689 - 3378 = 1311\)

1991-01: \(5161 - 4689 = 472\)

The maximum increase is 1311 in the decade 1981-1991.
Quick Tip: Calculate difference: 1991 minus 1981 value is the highest.


Question 32:

Describe the trend of urbanisation in India.

Correct Answer: Continuous increasing trend
View Solution



The data shows a steady upward trend in urbanisation.

The total urban population has increased nearly 9-fold from 1931 to 2001.

The percentage of urban population has risen continuously from 11.99% to 27.78%.
Quick Tip: Trend = Upward/Positive Growth.


Question 33:

The lowest increase in the percentage of total urban population is recorded in which decade ?

Correct Answer: 1951 - 1961
View Solution



Calculating percentage point increase:

1941-51: \(17.29 - 13.86 = 3.43\)

1951-61: \(17.97 - 17.29 = 0.68\)

1961-71: \(19.91 - 17.97 = 1.94\)

The lowest increase is 0.68% during 1951-1961.
Quick Tip: Look for the smallest gap in the "%" column.


Question 34:

``Long healthy life with adequate means of living and education are some of the important keys to human development.'' Explain the statement.

Correct Answer: Descriptive Answer (See Solution)
View Solution



1. Health (Long and Healthy Life):

Access to health resources allows people to live longer, disease-free lives. A healthy population is more productive and capable of contributing to society.


2. Education (Knowledge):

Literacy and education empower people. They open up access to knowledge, better job opportunities, and the ability to make informed choices about life.


3. Resources (Adequate Means of Living):

Access to resources (income/purchasing power) is essential to buy food, shelter, and decent living standards. Without economic means, freedom of choice is restricted.


4. Human Development Index (HDI):

These three dimensions correspond to the core indicators of the HDI: Life Expectancy, Literacy/Enrollment, and Per Capita Income.
Quick Tip: HDI Components = Health + Education + Access to Resources.


Question 35:

``India's water demand is highly dominated by irrigational needs.'' Evaluate the statement.

Correct Answer: Descriptive Answer (See Solution)
View Solution



1. Agrarian Structure:

Agriculture employs a large section of India's population. Water is the primary input for this sector.


2. Monsoon Dependence:

Due to the erratic nature of the monsoon, irrigation is necessary to ensure crop survival and productivity in dry seasons and regions.


3. Water-Intensive Crops:

Crops like rice, sugarcane, and cotton require large volumes of water. The shift to HYV seeds during the Green Revolution further increased irrigation demand.


4. Statistics:

Irrigation consumes nearly 89% of surface water and 92% of groundwater in India, proving the dominance of agricultural needs over domestic or industrial use.
Quick Tip: Agriculture takes ~90% of India's water.


Question 36:

``In India, water resources are getting polluted with industrial effluents, domestic waste and insecticides used in agriculture.'' Evaluate the statement.

Correct Answer: Descriptive Answer (See Solution)
View Solution



1. Industry:

Factories discharge toxic heavy metals, chemical residues, and hot water directly into rivers, killing aquatic life and poisoning water (e.g., Leather industry, Chemical plants).


2. Domestic Sewage:

Urban centers generate massive amounts of sewage. Due to lack of treatment plants, this is often dumped into rivers like the Yamuna, increasing coliform bacteria levels.


3. Agriculture:

Farmers use chemical fertilizers and pesticides. These chemicals leach into the soil to contaminate groundwater and run off into surface water bodies, causing eutrophication.
Quick Tip: Pollution Sources = Factories + Cities + Farms.


Question 37:

``In India, sea ports have emerged as gateways of international trade.'' Substantiate the statement.

Correct Answer: Descriptive Answer (See Solution)
View Solution



1. Trade Volume:

About 95% of India's foreign trade by volume and 70% by value is conducted through sea routes. Ports are the essential interface for this trade.


2. Infrastructure:

India has 12 major ports and many minor ports handling bulk cargo like oil, iron ore, and coal, as well as containers.


3. Connectivity:

Ports connect the Indian hinterland (production centers) to the global economy. For example, Marmagao connects Goan iron ore to international buyers.
Quick Tip: Ports = Entry/Exit points for 95% of trade volume.


Question 38:

``Satellites are mode of communication in themselves as well as they regulate the use of other means of communication.'' Substantiate the statement.

Correct Answer: Descriptive Answer (See Solution)
View Solution



1. Direct Mode:

Satellites enable communication in remote and inaccessible areas through satellite phones and provide direct-to-home (DTH) broadcasting for TV and Radio.


2. Regulation/Backbone:

They regulate and connect terrestrial networks. Mobile networks, internet backbones, and long-distance calls rely on satellite links to function seamlessly across large distances.


3. Strategic Use:

They provide vital data for weather forecasting and disaster management, which is a form of mass communication for public safety.
Quick Tip: Satellites = Coverage + Connectivity Backbone.


Question 39:

``Market gardening and horticulture specialise in the cultivation of high value crops.'' Justify the statement.

Correct Answer: Descriptive Answer (See Solution)
View Solution



1. Crop Type:

They grow vegetables, fruits, and flowers. These crops command higher prices per unit in the market compared to cereals.


2. Urban Demand:

They cater to urban markets where wealthy consumers are willing to pay a premium for fresh quality produce.


3. Investment:

High capital investment is required for irrigation, quality seeds, fertilizers, and transportation (truck farming), which is justified by the high returns (value) of the crops.
Quick Tip: High Value = High Price = Fruits/Veg for Cities.


Question 40:

``High-tech industries are regionally concentrated, self-sustained and highly specialized.'' Justify the statement.

Correct Answer: Descriptive Answer (See Solution)
View Solution



1. Regional Concentration:

They form ``Technopoles'' (e.g., Silicon Valley). Clustering allows sharing of infrastructure, talent, and research facilities.


2. Self-Sustained:

They rely on continuous R\&D. Innovation drives their growth, making them self-sustaining without needing traditional raw materials.


3. Highly Specialized:

They produce advanced technology (hardware, software, biotech) requiring specialized white-collar skills, distinct from general manufacturing.
Quick Tip: Technopoles = Clustered High-Tech Zones.


Question 41:

``In India, the Swachh Bharat Mission is launched to improve the quality of life in urban slums.'' Evaluate the statement.

Correct Answer: Descriptive Answer (See Solution)
View Solution



1. Objective:

The mission aims to make India open-defecation free and achieve scientific municipal solid waste management.


2. Impact on Slums:

Urban slums suffer most from poor sanitation. Building community toilets and household toilets directly improves hygiene and dignity.


3. Health Benefits:

Proper waste disposal and sanitation reduce the spread of water-borne and vector-borne diseases, improving the overall quality of life and health indices in slum areas.
Quick Tip: Swachh Bharat = Sanitation + Waste Management = Better Health.


Question 42:

Suggest any five measures to solve the problem of air pollution in India.

Correct Answer: Descriptive Answer (See Solution)
View Solution



1. Green Fuel: Promoting the use of CNG and LPG in vehicles and households to reduce particulate emissions.

2. Public Transport: Encouraging mass rapid transit systems (Metro, Buses) to reduce the number of private vehicles on the road.

3. Renewable Energy: Shifting from coal-based thermal power to solar and wind energy.

4. Industrial Regulations: Enforcing strict emission norms for industries and relocating polluting industries away from cities.

5. Afforestation: Planting trees (Green Belts) to absorb carbon dioxide and filter dust.
Quick Tip: Solution = Clean Fuel + Public Transport + Trees + Regulations.


Question 43:

Identify the geographical feature marked as 'A' on the map. (A major sea port)


Correct Answer: Vancouver
View Solution



Feature 'A' is on the Pacific coast of Canada. It is Vancouver.
Quick Tip: West Canada Port = Vancouver.


Question 44:

Identify the geographical feature marked as 'B' on the map. (A major airport)

Correct Answer: Santiago
View Solution



Feature 'B' is in Chile, South America. It is the airport at Santiago.
Quick Tip: Chile Airport = Santiago.


Question 45:

Identify the geographical feature marked as 'C' on the map. (A terminal station of a trans-continental railway)

Correct Answer: Perth
View Solution



Feature 'C' is on the southwest coast of Australia. It is Perth.
Quick Tip: West Australia Rail Terminal = Perth.


Question 46:

Identify the geographical feature marked as 'D' on the map. (A major area of nomadic herding)

Correct Answer: Sahara Desert (North Africa)
View Solution



Feature 'D' covers North Africa. It is the Sahara region.
Quick Tip: North Africa = Nomadic Herding.


Question 47:

Identify the geographical feature marked as 'E' on the map. (A major area of extensive commercial grain farming)

Correct Answer: The Velds
View Solution



Feature 'E' is in South Africa. It represents the Velds.
Quick Tip: South Africa Grain = Velds.


Question 48:

Identify the geographical feature marked as 'F' on the map. (A major area of commercial livestock rearing)

Correct Answer: New Zealand
View Solution



Feature 'F' is New Zealand, famous for livestock.
Quick Tip: NZ = Livestock.


Question 49:

Identify the geographical feature marked as 'G' on the map. (A major area of subsistence gathering)

Correct Answer: Congo Basin
View Solution



Feature 'G' is in Central Africa. It is the Congo Basin.
Quick Tip: Central Africa = Gathering.


Question 50:

Name any one sea port of North America.

Correct Answer: Vancouver (or New York)
View Solution



Vancouver is a major port.
Quick Tip: Port = Vancouver.


Question 51:

Name any one airport of South America.

Correct Answer: Santiago
View Solution



Santiago is a major airport.
Quick Tip: Airport = Santiago.


Question 52:

Name the terminal station at the western end of Australian Trans-Continental Railway.

Correct Answer: Perth
View Solution



Perth is the western terminal.
Quick Tip: West = Perth.


Question 53:

Name the area of nomadic herding in the eastern part of Africa.

Correct Answer: Somalia / Ethiopia
View Solution



Somalia is in East Africa (Herding).
Quick Tip: East Africa = Somalia.


Question 54:

Name the area of extensive commercial grain farming of South Africa.

Correct Answer: The Velds
View Solution



Velds are the grasslands.
Quick Tip: South Africa = Velds.


Question 55:

Name any one area of commercial livestock rearing of Oceania.

Correct Answer: New Zealand
View Solution



New Zealand is the area.
Quick Tip: Oceania = NZ.


Question 56:

Name the area of subsistence gathering of Africa.

Correct Answer: Congo Basin
View Solution



Congo Basin is the area.
Quick Tip: Gathering = Congo.


Question 57:

Locate and label: The state leading in the production of wheat.


Correct Answer: Uttar Pradesh
View Solution



Uttar Pradesh is the state.
Quick Tip: Wheat = UP.


Question 58:

Locate and label: An oil refinery in Bihar.

Correct Answer: Barauni
View Solution



Barauni is the refinery.
Quick Tip: Refinery = Barauni.


Question 59:

Locate and label: A major sea port of Andhra Pradesh.

Correct Answer: Visakhapatnam
View Solution



Visakhapatnam is the port.
Quick Tip: Port = Vizag.


Question 60:

Locate and label: Important coal mines located in West Bengal.

Correct Answer: Raniganj
View Solution



Raniganj is the coalfield.
Quick Tip: Coal = Raniganj.


Question 61:

Locate and label: Important iron ore mines located in Odisha.

Correct Answer: Mayurbhanj
View Solution



Mayurbhanj is the mine area.
Quick Tip: Iron = Mayurbhanj.


Question 62:

Locate and label: Important manganese mines located in Karnataka.

Correct Answer: Bellary / Sandur
View Solution



Bellary is the area.
Quick Tip: Manganese = Bellary.


Question 63:

Locate and label: An important international airport in Punjab.

Correct Answer: Amritsar
View Solution



Amritsar is the airport city.
Quick Tip: Airport = Amritsar.


Question 64:

Name the state leading in wheat production.

Correct Answer: Uttar Pradesh
View Solution



Uttar Pradesh.
Quick Tip: UP = Wheat.


Question 65:

Name the place of the oil refinery located in Bihar.

Correct Answer: Barauni
View Solution



Barauni.
Quick Tip: Bihar = Barauni.


Question 66:

Name the place where a major sea port is located in Andhra Pradesh.

Correct Answer: Visakhapatnam
View Solution



Visakhapatnam.
Quick Tip: AP = Vizag.


Question 67:

Name the place where important coal mines are located in West Bengal.

Correct Answer: Raniganj
View Solution



Raniganj.
Quick Tip: WB = Raniganj.


Question 68:

Name the place where important iron ore mines are located in Odisha.

Correct Answer: Mayurbhanj
View Solution



Mayurbhanj.
Quick Tip: Odisha = Mayurbhanj.


Question 69:

Name the place where important manganese mines are located in Karnataka.

Correct Answer: Bellary
View Solution



Bellary.
Quick Tip: Karnataka = Bellary.


Question 70:

Name the place where an international airport is located in Punjab.

Correct Answer: Amritsar
View Solution



Amritsar.
Quick Tip: Punjab = Amritsar.

*The article might have information for the previous academic years, please refer the official website of the exam.

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