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| Updated On - Feb 26, 2026

The CBSE Class 12 Geography (Set 64/2/2) Question Paper 2026 is available for download here of CBSE Board Exam 2026. This CBSE 12th Geography (Set 64/2/2) solved question paper includes detailed solutions, answer key, and the latest CBSE marking scheme to help students understand the exam pattern and important topics.

By practicing the CBSE Class 12 Geography (Set 64/2/2) 2026 board exam paper PDF, students can improve answer-writing strategy, time management, and overall exam performance.

CBSE Class 12 Geography (Set 64/2/2) Question Paper 2026 with Solution PDF

CBSE Class 12 Geography (Set 64/2/2) Question Paper 2026 with Solution PDF Download PDF Check Solutions
CBSE Class 12 Geography (Set 64/2/2) Question Paper 2026 with Solution PDF

Question 1:

Match Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option:


  • (A) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
  • (B) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
  • (C) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii
  • (D) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i
Correct Answer: (A) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
View Solution



Step 1: Identify the major mining centre for Iron ore.

Sundargarh district in Odisha is a well-known iron ore mining region (part of the Odisha-Jharkhand iron belt). Therefore, Iron ore \(\rightarrow\) Sundargarh (iv).


Step 2: Identify the major mining centre for Manganese.

Chandrapur in Maharashtra is famous for manganese mining and is an important mineral-producing region. Hence, Manganese \(\rightarrow\) Chandrapur (iii).


Step 3: Identify the major mining centre for Bauxite.

Katni in Madhya Pradesh is known for bauxite deposits and mining activities. Thus, Bauxite \(\rightarrow\) Katni (i).


Step 4: Identify the major mining centre for Copper.

Balaghat (Madhya Pradesh) is famous for the Malanjkhand Copper Mine, one of the largest copper mines in India. Therefore, Copper \(\rightarrow\) Balaghat (ii).


Step 5: Form the correct matching.

a (Iron ore) \(\rightarrow\) iv (Sundargarh)

b (Manganese) \(\rightarrow\) iii (Chandrapur)

c (Bauxite) \(\rightarrow\) i (Katni)

d (Copper) \(\rightarrow\) ii (Balaghat)


Thus, the correct option is (A).
Quick Tip: For Geography MCQs on minerals, remember famous mining pairs: Balaghat–Copper, Sundargarh–Iron ore, Katni–Bauxite, and Chandrapur–Manganese. These standard matches are frequently asked in exams.


Question 2:

The concept, ``understanding the parts in totality would lead to understanding of the whole'' is concerned with which one of the following approaches of geography?

  • (A) Regional analysis
  • (B) Spatial organisation
  • (C) Areal differentiation
  • (D) Exploration and description
Correct Answer: (A) Regional analysis
View Solution




Step 1: Understand the meaning of the given statement.

The statement says that if we study individual parts in their totality (completely and in detail), we can understand the whole system. In geography, this refers to studying smaller units such as regions, places, or areas to understand the larger geographical reality.


Step 2: Explain the concept of Regional Analysis.

Regional analysis is an important geographical approach that focuses on the detailed study of regions as integrated units. A region includes physical, economic, cultural, and social elements that together form a complete geographical unit. By analysing each component (climate, population, resources, economy, etc.) within a region, geographers develop a holistic understanding of the entire geographical system.


Step 3: Examine Option (B) Spatial Organisation.

Spatial organisation deals with the arrangement and distribution of geographical phenomena over space, such as settlement patterns or land use. It focuses more on spatial patterns rather than understanding the whole through the study of parts. Hence, it does not directly match the given concept.


Step 4: Examine Option (C) Areal Differentiation.

Areal differentiation emphasises how one area differs from another area. It is mainly concerned with regional differences and uniqueness rather than integrating parts to understand the whole system. Therefore, it is not the best fit for the statement.


Step 5: Examine Option (D) Exploration and Description.

Exploration and description is an early traditional approach of geography that focuses on describing places and discoveries. It is descriptive in nature and does not involve analytical integration of parts into a whole.


Step 6: Logical Conclusion.

Since the statement clearly reflects a holistic understanding through the study of individual parts (regions), it directly corresponds to the regional approach in geography. Regional analysis studies each region comprehensively and then integrates the knowledge to understand the entire geographical framework.

\[ \boxed{(A)\ Regional analysis} \] Quick Tip: Whole through parts = Regional Approach. In exams, any question about holistic regional understanding usually points to Regional Analysis.


Question 3:

Read the information given in the box carefully and identify the mineral.


It is a non-ferrous ore.
Odisha is the largest producer state.
It is used in manufacturing of aluminium.

  • (A) Copper
  • (B) Mica
  • (C) Bauxite
  • (D) Manganese
Correct Answer: (C) Bauxite
View Solution




Step 1: Identify the type of mineral (Non-ferrous ore).

Non-ferrous minerals are those which do not contain iron. Common examples include bauxite, copper, mica, and lead. This clue immediately eliminates manganese because manganese is associated with ferrous mineral groups.


Step 2: Analyse the production clue (Odisha as the largest producer).

Odisha is well known for its rich bauxite reserves, especially in regions like Koraput, Kalahandi, and Panchpatmali hills. India’s largest bauxite deposits are concentrated in Odisha, making it the leading producer of bauxite in the country.


Step 3: Examine the industrial use (Manufacturing of aluminium).

Aluminium is not found in pure form in nature. It is extracted mainly from bauxite ore through the Bayer process and Hall-Héroult process. This is the most decisive clue because aluminium production is directly linked with bauxite.


Step 4: Eliminate incorrect options logically.

Copper is a non-ferrous metal but it is not used to manufacture aluminium.

Mica is used in electrical and electronic industries, not for aluminium production.

Manganese is mainly used in steel manufacturing and is not a source of aluminium.


Step 5: Final deduction.

Since the mineral is non-ferrous, largely produced in Odisha, and used for aluminium manufacturing, the only mineral that satisfies all three conditions is Bauxite.

\[ \boxed{(C)\ Bauxite} \] Quick Tip: Key exam fact: Aluminium is extracted from Bauxite and Odisha is the leading producer of Bauxite in India.


Question 4:

Which one of the following is the least labour intensive cultivation method?

  • (A) Plantation agriculture
  • (B) Subsistence agriculture
  • (C) Extensive commercial cultivation
  • (D) Market gardening
Correct Answer: (C) Extensive commercial cultivation
View Solution




Step 1: Understand the meaning of labour-intensive cultivation.

Labour-intensive agriculture refers to farming systems that require a large number of workers per unit of land. In contrast, least labour-intensive cultivation uses machines, large farms, and requires fewer human workers.


Step 2: Analyse Plantation Agriculture.

Plantation agriculture involves crops like tea, coffee, rubber, and sugarcane. These crops require continuous care, manual plucking, processing, and maintenance. Hence, plantation farming is highly labour-intensive.


Step 3: Analyse Subsistence Agriculture.

Subsistence agriculture is practised on small landholdings using traditional tools and family labour. It involves manual ploughing, sowing, and harvesting, making it one of the most labour-intensive systems.


Step 4: Analyse Market Gardening.

Market gardening involves the cultivation of fruits, vegetables, and perishable crops near urban markets. It requires intensive care, irrigation, and frequent harvesting, which increases labour requirements.


Step 5: Analyse Extensive Commercial Cultivation.

Extensive commercial cultivation is practised on large farms (e.g., wheat farming in prairies and steppes). It uses heavy mechanisation such as tractors, harvesters, and modern irrigation systems. Because machines replace human labour and land area is large, the labour required per unit area is very low.


Step 6: Final Conclusion.

Among all the given options, extensive commercial cultivation uses maximum mechanisation and minimum human labour, making it the least labour-intensive cultivation method.

\[ \boxed{(C)\ Extensive commercial cultivation} \] Quick Tip: Extensive farming = Large land + High mechanisation + Low labour (important MCQ concept).


Question 5:

Foot-loose industries are located ____.

  • (A) where energy supply is continuous
  • (B) where good accessibility by rail/road is available
  • (C) where cheap and skilled labour is available
  • (D) where market facilities are available
Correct Answer: (D) where market facilities are available
View Solution




Step 1: Understand the concept of foot-loose industries.

Foot-loose industries are those industries that are not tied to any specific raw material source, power supply, or transport route. They use light raw materials, produce high-value goods, and have low transport costs. Therefore, they have flexibility in choosing their location.


Step 2: Analyse dependence on energy supply (Option A).

Industries that require continuous energy supply (like heavy industries) are usually location-bound. Foot-loose industries do not necessarily depend heavily on a fixed energy source, so this is not the most suitable factor.


Step 3: Analyse transport accessibility (Option B).

Good rail/road accessibility is important for many industries, but foot-loose industries are not strictly dependent on transport routes because their inputs and outputs are light and easy to transport.


Step 4: Analyse cheap and skilled labour (Option C).

Although labour availability can influence location, foot-loose industries are not primarily labour-oriented; instead, they focus on flexibility and profit maximisation.


Step 5: Analyse market facilities (Option D).

Since foot-loose industries produce high-value and lightweight goods (e.g., electronics, software, precision instruments), they prefer to locate near markets to reduce distribution cost and ensure better consumer access. Hence, market proximity becomes the dominant location factor.


Step 6: Conclusion.

Therefore, foot-loose industries are mainly located where market facilities are available.

\[ \boxed{(D)\ where market facilities are available} \] Quick Tip: Foot-loose industries = Location flexible + Market-oriented + Low transport cost goods.


Question 6:

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option.

Assertion (A): The economic development of a region depends upon its resource base.

Reason (R): Sometimes resource rich regions remain backward.

  • (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  • (B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  • (C) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.
  • (D) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
Correct Answer: (B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
View Solution




Step 1: Evaluate Assertion (A).

The resource base of a region (such as minerals, water, land, and forests) plays a significant role in shaping its economic development. Regions rich in resources can develop industries, agriculture, and trade more easily. Hence, Assertion (A) is logically correct.


Step 2: Evaluate Reason (R).

It is also true that some resource-rich regions remain economically backward. This may happen due to poor governance, lack of infrastructure, low technological development, or unequal distribution of resources. Therefore, Reason (R) is also true.


Step 3: Examine the relationship between Assertion and Reason.

The assertion states a general principle that resources support development, while the reason highlights an exception where development does not occur despite resource availability. The reason does not directly explain why development depends on resources; instead, it shows a contrasting situation.


Step 4: Logical Conclusion.

Since both statements are true but the reason does not correctly explain the assertion, the correct option is (B).

\[ \boxed{(B)\ Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).} \] Quick Tip: If both A and R are true but R does not explain A → Always choose Option B.


Question 7:

Which one of the following inland waterway and its stretch is correctly matched?

(Waterways) \hspace{2cm (Stretch)

  • (A) National Waterways No. 1 -- Allahabad -- Haldia
  • (B) National Waterways No. 2 -- Sadiya -- Dhubri
  • (C) National Waterways No. 3 -- Kottapuram -- Kollam
  • (D) National Waterways No. 6 -- Kakinada -- Puducherry
Correct Answer: (A) National Waterways No. 1 -- Allahabad -- Haldia
View Solution




Step 1: Understand the concept of National Waterways.

National Waterways are designated inland water routes used for transportation of goods and passengers. Each waterway has a specific river stretch defined by the government.


Step 2: Recall National Waterway No. 1.

National Waterway No. 1 runs along the Ganga–Bhagirathi–Hooghly river system from Allahabad (Prayagraj) to Haldia. It is the longest and most important inland waterway in India.


Step 3: Check other options for correctness.

National Waterway No. 2 actually runs from Sadiya to Dhubri on the Brahmaputra River.

National Waterway No. 3 runs from Kottapuram to Kollam in Kerala along the West Coast Canal.

National Waterway No. 6 is not associated with the Kakinada–Puducherry stretch.


Step 4: Identify the standard textbook match.

The most widely accepted and standard correct match in geography textbooks is:
NW-1 \(\rightarrow\) Allahabad to Haldia.


Step 5: Conclusion.

Thus, the correctly matched inland waterway and stretch is National Waterway No. 1 -- Allahabad -- Haldia.

\[ \boxed{(A)\ National Waterways No. 1 -- Allahabad -- Haldia} \] Quick Tip: Remember: NW-1 = Ganga Waterway (Allahabad/Prayagraj to Haldia).


Question 8:

The main Indira Gandhi Canal terminates in which one of the following districts of Rajasthan?

  • (A) Bikaner
  • (B) Barmer
  • (C) Ganganagar
  • (D) Jaisalmer
Correct Answer: (D) Jaisalmer
View Solution




Step 1: Understand the origin of Indira Gandhi Canal.

The Indira Gandhi Canal originates from the Harike Barrage at the confluence of the Sutlej and Beas rivers in Punjab. It was constructed to provide irrigation to the arid regions of Rajasthan.


Step 2: Trace the route of the canal.

The canal flows southwest through the Thar Desert region and passes through several districts of Rajasthan such as Sri Ganganagar, Bikaner, and Jaisalmer.


Step 3: Identify the terminal region.

The canal system is designed to irrigate the western desert areas, and its main branch extends deep into the desert region of Rajasthan. The terminal reach of the canal lies in the Jaisalmer district.


Step 4: Eliminate incorrect options.

Ganganagar and Bikaner are major irrigated regions but not the terminal point.
Barmer is influenced by canal irrigation but is not the main termination of the canal system.


Step 5: Conclusion.

Hence, the main Indira Gandhi Canal terminates in Jaisalmer district.

\[ \boxed{(D)\ Jaisalmer} \] Quick Tip: Indira Gandhi Canal = Lifeline of Thar Desert → Extends up to Jaisalmer.


Question 9:

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option.

Assertion (A): There is a strong dichotomy between physical elements and human beings.

Reason (R): Nature and humans are intricately intertwined.

  • (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  • (B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  • (C) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.
  • (D) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
Correct Answer: (C) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.
View Solution




Step 1: Analyse Assertion (A).

The assertion claims that there is a strong dichotomy (complete separation) between physical elements and human beings. Modern geography does not support this rigid separation because humans and the environment interact continuously. Hence, the assertion is incorrect.


Step 2: Analyse Reason (R).

The reason states that nature and humans are intricately intertwined. This reflects the core idea of human geography and environmental interaction, where humans modify nature and nature influences human life. Therefore, the reason is correct.


Step 3: Compare Assertion and Reason logically.

Since the assertion talks about separation while the reason talks about interdependence, they contradict each other. Modern geographical thought emphasises unity rather than dichotomy between humans and nature.


Step 4: Final Conclusion.

Assertion is incorrect, but Reason is correct. Therefore, the correct option is (C).

\[ \boxed{(C)\ (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.} \] Quick Tip: Human Geography principle: Humans and nature are interdependent, not separate.


Question 10:

Read the following sub-fields of social geography carefully and choose the correct option:

I. Resource Geography II. Leisure Geography

III. Gender Geography IV. Marketing Geography

  • (A) I and III are correct.
  • (B) I and IV are correct.
  • (C) II and III are correct.
  • (D) II and IV are correct.
Correct Answer: (C) II and III are correct.
View Solution




Step 1: Understand the scope of Social Geography.

Social geography is a branch of human geography that studies spatial aspects of social phenomena such as culture, gender, leisure, social inequality, and quality of life. It mainly focuses on human society and its spatial behaviour.


Step 2: Examine Resource Geography (I).

Resource geography primarily deals with the distribution, utilisation, and management of natural resources. It is generally classified under economic or resource geography rather than social geography. Hence, it is not a core sub-field of social geography.


Step 3: Examine Leisure Geography (II).

Leisure geography studies recreational activities, tourism, and the spatial pattern of leisure behaviour in society. Since it directly relates to human lifestyle and social activities, it is an important sub-field of social geography.


Step 4: Examine Gender Geography (III).

Gender geography focuses on spatial inequalities, gender roles, and the social experiences of different genders in space and place. It is a well-recognised sub-field of social geography.


Step 5: Examine Marketing Geography (IV).

Marketing geography is mainly related to economic geography and studies market distribution, consumer behaviour, and spatial market analysis rather than core social structures.


Step 6: Final Conclusion.

Thus, the correct sub-fields of social geography from the given list are Leisure Geography and Gender Geography.

\[ \boxed{(C)\ II and III are correct} \] Quick Tip: Social Geography = Society related fields (Gender, Leisure, Culture, Population).


Question 11:

Arrange the following coal mining areas of India from south to north direction of their location and choose the correct option:

I. Singareni

II. Neyveli

III. Jharia

IV. Talcher

  • (A) II, I, III, IV
  • (B) I, II, IV, III
  • (C) I, II, IV, III
  • (D) I, III, II, IV
Correct Answer: (A) II, I, IV, III
View Solution




Step 1: Understand the requirement of the question.

The question asks us to arrange the coal mining areas from south to north based on their geographical location (latitudinal position) in India. Therefore, we must first identify the state and approximate location of each coalfield on the map of India.


Step 2: Locate Neyveli (II).

Neyveli is a major lignite coalfield located in Tamil Nadu in southern India. Tamil Nadu lies in the southernmost part among the given options. Hence, Neyveli will come first in the south-to-north arrangement.


Step 3: Locate Singareni (I).

Singareni coalfields are situated in Telangana (earlier part of Andhra Pradesh region). Telangana lies north of Tamil Nadu but still in southern India. Therefore, Singareni is north of Neyveli but south of the remaining coalfields.


Step 4: Locate Talcher (IV).

Talcher coalfield is located in Odisha in eastern India. Geographically, Odisha lies further north compared to Telangana. Hence, Talcher should be placed after Singareni in the south-to-north sequence.


Step 5: Locate Jharia (III).

Jharia coalfield is situated in Jharkhand, which is in eastern India but significantly north of Odisha and Telangana. It is one of the northernmost coalfields among the given options.


Step 6: Arrange from south to north logically.

South (lowest latitude) → Neyveli (Tamil Nadu)

Then → Singareni (Telangana)

Then → Talcher (Odisha)

North (highest latitude) → Jharia (Jharkhand)


Final Order: II, I, IV, III

\[ \boxed{(A)\ II, I, IV, III} \] Quick Tip: For location-based questions, always recall states on the India map: Tamil Nadu (South) → Telangana → Odisha → Jharkhand (North).


Question 12:

Which one of the following ports is situated at Zuari Estuary?

  • (A) New Mangalore
  • (B) Kochchi
  • (C) Marmagao
  • (D) Ennore
Correct Answer: (C) Marmagao
View Solution




Step 1: Understand what an estuary is.

An estuary is a coastal water body where a river meets the sea. Many natural ports in India are located at estuaries because they provide safe and deep harbours for ships.


Step 2: Identify the location of the Zuari Estuary.

The Zuari River flows through the state of Goa and forms an estuary along the Arabian Sea coast. This estuary is an important natural harbour region in western India.


Step 3: Analyse each port option geographically.

New Mangalore Port is located in Karnataka near the Gurupur and Netravati rivers, not at the Zuari estuary.

Kochchi Port is located in Kerala near the Vembanad backwaters and Periyar estuary.

Ennore Port is located on the Coromandel Coast in Tamil Nadu near Chennai.


Step 4: Identify the correct port associated with Zuari Estuary.

Marmagao Port is situated in Goa and is specifically located at the mouth of the Zuari estuary. It is one of the major natural harbours on the western coast of India.


Step 5: Conclusion.

Since the Zuari estuary is in Goa and Marmagao Port is located there, the correct answer is Marmagao.

\[ \boxed{(C)\ Marmagao} \] Quick Tip: Marmagao Port = Goa Coast = Zuari Estuary (important map-based fact).


Question 13:

Which one of the following organisations regulate the air traffic of major airports of India?

  • (A) Airport Authority of India
  • (B) Indian Airport Commission
  • (C) Indian Air Control Board
  • (D) Airport Development Authority
Correct Answer: (A) Airport Authority of India
View Solution




Step 1: Understand the meaning of air traffic regulation.

Air traffic regulation refers to the control and management of aircraft movement in airspace and at airports to ensure safety, efficiency, and smooth operation of flights. This function is carried out through Air Traffic Control (ATC) systems.


Step 2: Identify the official aviation authority in India.

The Airport Authority of India (AAI) is a statutory body under the Ministry of Civil Aviation. It is responsible for managing civil aviation infrastructure and air navigation services across India.


Step 3: Examine the functions of AAI.

AAI performs several key roles including:

Air Traffic Control (ATC) services
Communication and navigation systems
Airport management and maintenance
Regulation of civil air traffic in Indian airspace


Step 4: Eliminate incorrect options.

Indian Airport Commission, Indian Air Control Board, and Airport Development Authority are not recognised statutory bodies responsible for regulating air traffic in India.


Step 5: Conclusion.

Therefore, the organisation that regulates air traffic at major airports in India is the Airport Authority of India.

\[ \boxed{(A)\ Airport Authority of India} \] Quick Tip: AAI = Air Traffic Control + Airport Management (important one-line exam fact).


Question 14:

Which one of the following contributes maximum in India’s export?

  • (A) Agriculture and allied products
  • (B) Ores and minerals
  • (C) Manufactured goods
  • (D) Mineral fuels and lubricants
Correct Answer: (C) Manufactured goods
View Solution




Step 1: Understand the structure of India’s exports.

India’s export composition has shifted over time from primary products (like raw agricultural goods) to secondary and value-added manufactured goods due to industrialisation and global trade integration.


Step 2: Analyse Agriculture and allied products (Option A).

Although India exports agricultural items such as rice, tea, and spices, their share is lower compared to industrial and manufactured exports.


Step 3: Analyse Ores and minerals (Option B).

Exports of ores and minerals exist but are limited because India increasingly uses its mineral resources for domestic industrial growth rather than exporting raw materials.


Step 4: Analyse Mineral fuels and lubricants (Option D).

India is largely dependent on imports of crude oil and petroleum products, so this category does not contribute the maximum to exports.


Step 5: Analyse Manufactured goods (Option C).

Manufactured goods such as textiles, machinery, automobiles, chemicals, pharmaceuticals, and engineering goods form the largest share of India’s exports due to higher value addition and strong global demand.


Step 6: Conclusion.

Hence, manufactured goods contribute the maximum share in India’s total exports.

\[ \boxed{(C)\ Manufactured goods} \] Quick Tip: India’s export trend: Primary goods ↓, Manufactured goods ↑ (most important exam concept).


Question 15:

Study the given table (Human Development Index 2022) and answer the question:



Which of the following European country falls under very high category of human development?

  • (A) Chile
  • (B) Mexico
  • (C) Botswana
  • (D) Belarus
Correct Answer: (D) Belarus
View Solution




Step 1: Understand the classification of Human Development Index (HDI).

The Human Development Index (HDI) is a composite index prepared by UNDP to measure the level of human development of countries based on life expectancy, education, and per capita income. Countries are classified into categories such as very high, high, medium, and low human development.


Step 2: Recall the HDI category ranges.

Very High Human Development: 0.800 and above

High Human Development: 0.700–0.799

Medium Human Development: 0.550–0.699

Low Human Development: Below 0.550


Step 3: Identify the European country among the given options.

Chile belongs to South America.

Mexico belongs to North America.

Botswana is located in Africa.

Belarus is a European country.


Step 4: Check the HDI value from the given table.

According to the table (HDI 2022), Belarus has an HDI value around 0.801, which is equal to or slightly above the threshold of 0.800.


Step 5: Match the HDI value with the category.

Since countries having HDI value of 0.800 or above fall under the very high human development category, Belarus satisfies this condition.


Step 6: Final Conclusion.

Therefore, the European country in the very high human development category is Belarus.

\[ \boxed{(D)\ Belarus} \] Quick Tip: HDI ≥ 0.800 = Very High Human Development (commonly asked in table-based MCQs).


Question 16:

Congo comes under which one of the following categories of human development?

  • (A) Very high
  • (B) High
  • (C) Medium
  • (D) Low
Correct Answer: (D) Low
View Solution




Step 1: Understand what the question is asking.

The question requires identification of the human development category of Congo based on its HDI value given in the table.


Step 2: Recall HDI classification ranges.

Very High: 0.800 and above

High: 0.700–0.799

Medium: 0.550–0.699

Low: Below 0.550


Step 3: Observe the HDI value of Congo from the table.

From the given HDI table, Congo’s HDI value is shown to be approximately 0.548.


Step 4: Compare the value with HDI categories.

Since 0.548 is less than 0.550, it clearly falls in the “Low Human Development” category according to the UNDP classification.


Step 5: Conceptual interpretation.

Countries with low HDI generally have lower life expectancy, lower educational attainment, and lower income levels. Many Sub-Saharan African countries, including Congo, fall into this category due to developmental challenges.


Step 6: Final Conclusion.

Thus, Congo belongs to the low human development category.

\[ \boxed{(D)\ Low} \] Quick Tip: If HDI < 0.550, the country is classified under Low Human Development.


Question 17:

How many countries fall under the low category of human development in the given table?

  • (A) 2
  • (B) 4
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 5
Correct Answer: (A) 2
View Solution




Step 1: Understand the requirement of the question.

We need to count the number of countries from the given table whose HDI value falls under the “Low Human Development” category.


Step 2: Recall the HDI threshold for low category.

According to UNDP classification, countries with HDI value below 0.550 are placed in the low human development category.


Step 3: Carefully observe the HDI values in the given table.

From the table, the countries with HDI values below 0.550 are:

Sudan (HDI ≈ 0.516)
Yemen (HDI ≈ 0.424)


Step 4: Verify other countries to avoid mistakes.

Countries like Nigeria (around 0.548) may appear close to the threshold but depending on the table classification, only those strictly below 0.550 and listed in the low category are counted. The table specifically classifies two countries in the low HDI group.


Step 5: Count the total number of low HDI countries.

Total countries under Low Human Development category = 2


Step 6: Final Conclusion.

Hence, the correct answer is 2 countries.

\[ \boxed{(A)\ 2} \] Quick Tip: Always first mark HDI < 0.550 in the table, then count — avoids silly mistakes in exam.


Question 18:

Study the given map carefully and answer the questions that follow (Trans-Siberian Railway):




Question (18.1) Name the easternmost terminal station of the given rail route.

Correct Answer:
View Solution




Step 1: Understand the rail route shown in the map.

The map represents the Trans-Siberian Railway, which is the longest railway line in the world. It runs across the entire breadth of Russia from the western part in Europe to the far eastern region near the Pacific coast.


Step 2: Identify the direction of the railway line.

From the map, the railway clearly begins in western Russia (Moscow region) and extends eastward across major Siberian cities such as Omsk, Novosibirsk, Irkutsk, and further towards the Pacific coast.


Step 3: Locate the eastern end of the railway route.

The line finally terminates at the far eastern coastal city of Russia, which is situated near the Sea of Japan. This city is marked at the extreme eastern end of the railway on the map.


Step 4: Identify the terminal station geographically.

The easternmost terminal station of the Trans-Siberian Railway is Vladivostok, which is a major port city located in the Russian Far East. It serves as the final destination of this transcontinental railway line.


Final Answer:

Vladivostok Quick Tip: Trans-Siberian Railway runs from Moscow (West) to Vladivostok (East) — world’s longest railway route.


Question (18.2):

Name the most important agro centre along the rail route.

Correct Answer:
View Solution




Step 1: Observe the major cities marked along the railway route.

The map shows several important cities along the Trans-Siberian Railway such as Omsk, Novosibirsk, Irkutsk, and others located in the Siberian region.


Step 2: Understand the meaning of an agro centre.

An agro centre refers to a region that is well known for agricultural production, food processing, and agricultural trade. Such centres are usually located in fertile plains with suitable climatic conditions.


Step 3: Identify the agricultural region along the route.

The southwestern Siberian region around Omsk is known for extensive agricultural activities due to fertile steppe lands and favourable conditions for wheat and other crops.


Step 4: Match the city with its geographical importance.

Omsk is a major agricultural and agro-processing centre located along the Trans-Siberian Railway. It plays a key role in transporting agricultural products across Russia through this railway network.


Final Answer:

Omsk Quick Tip: Omsk = Major agricultural (agro) centre of the Siberian region along the Trans-Siberian Railway.


Question (18.3):

Name the sea near the westernmost terminal station.

Correct Answer:
View Solution




Step 1: Identify the westernmost terminal station of the railway.

The Trans-Siberian Railway begins from Moscow, which is located in the western part of Russia on the European side. It serves as the western terminal of the route.


Step 2: Analyse the geographical location of Moscow.

Although Moscow is inland, it lies in the western region of Russia, relatively closer to the Baltic Sea region and connected through major transport and trade networks.


Step 3: Identify the nearest sea to the western terminal region.

The sea associated with the western part of Russia and nearest to the Moscow–European Russia region is the Baltic Sea, located near St. Petersburg in the northwest of Moscow.


Step 4: Logical geographical conclusion.

Since the western terminal is in European Russia and the nearest significant sea in that region is the Baltic Sea, it is considered the correct answer in map-based geographical context.


Final Answer:

Baltic Sea Quick Tip: Western Russia (Moscow region) is geographically linked with the Baltic Sea zone in map-based questions.

CBSE Class 12 Preparation Tips | Must Watch Before Exam

*The article might have information for the previous academic years, please refer the official website of the exam.

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