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| Updated On - Feb 26, 2026

The CBSE Class 12 Geography (Set 64/2/3) Question Paper 2026 is available for download here of CBSE Board Exam 2026. This CBSE 12th Geography (Set 64/2/3) solved question paper includes detailed solutions, answer key, and the latest CBSE marking scheme to help students understand the exam pattern and important topics.

By practicing the CBSE Class 12 Geography (Set 64/2/3) 2026 board exam paper PDF, students can improve answer-writing strategy, time management, and overall exam performance.

CBSE Class 12 Geography (Set 64/2/3) Question Paper 2026 with Solution PDF

CBSE Class 12 Geography (Set 64/2/3) Question Paper 2026 with Solution PDF Download PDF Check Solutions

CBSE Class 12 Geography (Set 64/2/3) Question Paper 2026 with Solution PDF


Question 1:

Arrange the following coal mining areas of India from south to north direction of their location and choose the correct option:


I. Singareni

II. Neyveli

III. Jharia

IV. Talchar

  • (A) II, I, III, IV
  • (B) II, I, IV, III
  • (C) I, II, IV, III
  • (D) I, II, III, IV
Correct Answer: (B) II, I, IV, III
View Solution




This question requires knowledge of the geographical locations of major coalfields in India. The task is to arrange them in a sequence from the southernmost to the northernmost.


\textcolor{red{Step 1: Understanding the Question

We need to identify the states where each coal mining area is located and then arrange these locations based on their latitudinal position from south to north.


\textcolor{red{Step 2: Detailed Explanation

First, let's locate each coalfield:


II. Neyveli: This is a major lignite coalfield located in the state of Tamil Nadu, which is the southernmost state among the options.

I. Singareni: These coalfields are located in the Godavari Valley in the state of Telangana. Telangana is geographically north of Tamil Nadu.

IV. Talchar: This coalfield is situated in the Mahanadi river valley in the state of Odisha. Odisha is located to the north-east of Telangana.

III. Jharia: This is one of India's largest coal reserves, located in the Damodar river valley in the state of Jharkhand. Jharkhand is to the north of Odisha.



Now, arranging these locations from south to north gives the following sequence:


Neyveli (Tamil Nadu) - Southmost

Singareni (Telangana)

Talchar (Odisha)

Jharia (Jharkhand) - Northmost



This corresponds to the sequence of Roman numerals: II, I, IV, III.


\textcolor{red{ Step 3: Final Answer

The correct south-to-north sequence is II, I, IV, III, which matches option (B).
Quick Tip: Remember the relative positions: Neyveli (Tamil Nadu - South) → Singareni (Telangana) → Talchar (Odisha) → Jharia (Jharkhand - North). Think of the eastern coastal states from south to north.


Question 2:

The concept 'identifying the uniqueness of any region and understanding how it is different from others', is concerned with which one of the following approaches of geography?

  • (A) Post-modernism
  • (B) Behaviouralism
  • (C) Regional analysis
  • (D) Areal differentiation
Correct Answer: (D) Areal differentiation
View Solution




This question tests the understanding of key philosophical approaches in geography. It asks to identify the specific term for the study of regional uniqueness and variation.


\textcolor{red{Step 1: Understanding the Question

The core of the question is the concept of studying what makes a region unique and how it differs from other regions. We need to match this concept with the correct geographical approach from the given options.


\textcolor{red{Step 2: Detailed Explanation

Let's analyze the options in the context of the question:


(A) Post-modernism: This is a broad philosophical movement that critiques grand theories and universal truths, emphasizing multiple perspectives and deconstruction of knowledge. It is not specifically about regional uniqueness.

(B) Behaviouralism: This approach in human geography focuses on the cognitive processes behind human spatial behaviour and decision-making, rather than on the characteristics of regions themselves.

(C) Regional analysis: This is a broad field of study that focuses on regions. While it includes the study of uniqueness, the specific concept described in the question has a more precise name.

(D) Areal differentiation: This term, popularized by geographer Richard Hartshorne, refers to the study of the variations in the Earth's surface. Its central tenet is to describe and explain the differences between places, thereby identifying the unique character of each region. This perfectly matches the description in the question.



The concept of 'identifying the uniqueness of any region and understanding how it is different from others' is the very definition of Areal Differentiation.


\textcolor{red{ Step 3: Final Answer

The correct approach concerned with identifying the uniqueness and differences of regions is Areal Differentiation. Therefore, option (D) is the correct answer.
Quick Tip: Remember: Areal differentiation = Identifying uniqueness + Understanding differences between regions. This concept is strongly associated with Richard Hartshorne and the regional approach in geography.


Question 3:

Match Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option:

  • (A) & iv & iii & i & ii
  • (B) & iii & iv & ii & i
  • (C) & iii & iv & i & ii
  • (D) & iv & iii & ii & i
Correct Answer: (A) iv iii i ii
View Solution




This question assesses knowledge of the distribution of important minerals and their major mining centers in India.


\textcolor{red{Step 1: Understanding the Question

The task is to correctly match each mineral in Column-I with its corresponding major mining area in Column-II.


\textcolor{red{Step 2: Detailed Explanation

Let's establish the correct pairs by identifying the primary mineral found in each listed mining area:


a. Iron-ore: Sundargarh (iv) in Odisha is a key district in the major iron-ore belt of eastern India. Thus, a matches with iv.

b. Manganese: Chandrapur (iii) district in Maharashtra, along with nearby Nagpur and Bhandara, is a major center for manganese mining. Thus, b matches with iii.

c. Bauxite: Katni (i) in Madhya Pradesh is historically known for its significant bauxite deposits, which are the primary ore for aluminium. Thus, c matches with i.

d. Copper: Bhilwara (ii) district in Rajasthan is part of the state's copper belt, which also includes the famous Khetri mines. Thus, d matches with ii.



The correct set of matches is: a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii.


\textcolor{red{ Step 3: Final Answer

We now check the options to find the one that corresponds to our derived sequence. Option (A) presents the sequence iv, iii, i, ii for a, b, c, d respectively, which is correct.
Quick Tip: Remember key mineral belts: Iron-ore in Odisha (Sundargarh), Manganese in Maharashtra (Chandrapur), Bauxite in MP (Katni), Copper in Rajasthan (Bhilwara/Khetri).


Question 4:

Read the following sentences in Geography and choose the correct option:


I. The climate of this area is very hot.

II. It occurs close to the surface.

III. It requires special techniques.

IV. Safety equipment is relatively low.

  • (A) Only I, II and III are correct.
  • (B) Only I, III and IV are correct.
  • (C) Only II, III and IV are correct.
  • (D) Only I, II and IV are correct.
Correct Answer: (C) Only II, III and IV are correct.
View Solution




This question presents a set of characteristics related to a geographical activity, likely a form of resource extraction, and asks to identify the correct combination of statements.


\textcolor{red{Step 1: Understanding the Question

We need to analyze the four given statements to determine the activity they describe and then identify the group of statements that accurately characterize this activity. The phrases "close to the surface" and "safety equipment" strongly suggest the context is mining.


\textcolor{red{Step 2: Detailed Explanation

The statements point towards the characteristics of surface mining (or open-cast mining). Let's evaluate each statement in this context:


Statement I: "The climate of this area is very hot." Climate is a geographical variable of a region, not a defining characteristic of a mining method. Surface mining can occur in hot, cold, or temperate climates. Therefore, this statement is not a necessary or defining feature.

Statement II: "It occurs close to the surface." This is the fundamental prerequisite for surface mining. Minerals are extracted this way only when they are located near the Earth's surface, making it economical to remove the overlying material (overburden). This statement is correct.

Statement III: "It requires special techniques." All forms of mining require specialized techniques, machinery (like excavators, draglines, dumper trucks for surface mining), and engineering expertise. This statement is correct.

Statement IV: "Safety equipment is relatively low." When compared to underground mining, which has risks like tunnel collapses, explosions, and poor ventilation, surface mining is generally less hazardous. While safety is paramount, the complexity and amount of safety gear for workers might be considered "relatively low." This statement is correct in a comparative sense.



Based on the analysis, statements II, III, and IV are the correct descriptors for surface mining.


\textcolor{red{ Step 3: Final Answer

The option that includes only the correct statements II, III, and IV is (C).
Quick Tip: In mining geography: Surface mining = close to surface + special techniques + relatively lower safety gear. Underground mining = deep deposits + more safety equipment + complex techniques.


Question 5:

Read the following statements about 'agribusiness' carefully and choose the correct option:


I. It is a commercial farming on an industrial scale.

II. Its raw materials are received from forests.

III. It is highly structured, mechanised and large in size.

IV. Its example is tea plantation.

  • (A) Only I, II and IV are correct.
  • (B) Only I, II and IV are correct.
  • (C) Only I, II and III are correct.
  • (D) Only I, II, III and IV are correct.
Correct Answer: (C) Only I, II and III are correct.
View Solution




This question asks to identify the correct statements describing the concept of 'agribusiness'. A careful analysis reveals a significant flaw in the question's options, but we can deduce the intended answer by following a logical, albeit forced, path.


\textcolor{red{Step 1: Understanding the Question

We must evaluate four statements about agribusiness and select the option that contains the correct set of statements.


\textcolor{red{Step 2: Detailed Explanation

Let's analyze each statement based on the standard definition of agribusiness:


Statement I: "It is a commercial farming on an industrial scale." This is the core definition of agribusiness. It involves large-scale, capital-intensive farming with a commercial objective. This statement is correct.

Statement II: "Its raw materials are received from forests." This is fundamentally incorrect. Agribusiness deals with agricultural products (crops, livestock). Industries that use raw materials from forests are classified under forestry or forest-based industries, not agribusiness.

Statement III: "It is highly structured, mechanised and large in size." This is a key characteristic of agribusiness, which relies on technology, mechanization, and organized management for efficiency and scale. This statement is correct.

Statement IV: "Its example is tea plantation." Tea plantations are classic examples of large-scale, commercial, and often vertically integrated agricultural operations, fitting the description of agribusiness perfectly. This statement is correct.



Reconciling with the Options:

Our analysis shows that statements I, III, and IV are correct, while II is incorrect. However, there is no option for "I, III, and IV". More importantly, the incorrect statement II is included in all given options (A, B, C, D). This indicates a flawed question.


To arrive at the given "Correct Answer" (C), we must follow the logic the question forces upon us. Since statement II is in every option, we are forced to accept it as correct for the purpose of this question. If we accept I, II, and III as correct, then option (C) becomes the answer. This would imply that statement IV ("Its example is tea plantation") must be considered incorrect. One could weakly argue that 'plantation agriculture' is sometimes treated as a separate category from modern, corporate 'agribusiness', but this is a poor distinction as plantations are a form of agribusiness.


Given the flawed nature of the question, the most likely intent was option (C), forcing the acceptance of the incorrect statement II and the exclusion of the correct statement IV.


\textcolor{red{ Step 3: Final Answer

Based on the provided answer key and by navigating the flawed options, we select (C). This assumes a forced acceptance of statement II and rejection of statement IV.
Quick Tip: Agribusiness = Agriculture + Business. It involves large-scale commercial farming (like tea, coffee, rubber plantations). Remember: Forest products are not raw materials for agribusiness.


Question 6:

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option:


Assertion (A): The restoration of ecological balance is the main focus of drought prone area programme.



Reason (R): Growing population pressure is forcing to utilize the marginal lands for agriculture.

  • (B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  • (C) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.
  • (D) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
Correct Answer: (B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
View Solution




This is an Assertion-Reason question that tests the understanding of a specific government program (DPAP) and a general geographical process, as well as the causal link between them.


\textcolor{red{Step 1: Understanding the Question

We need to first determine if the Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) are individually true or false. Then, we must assess if (R) provides the correct explanation for (A).


\textcolor{red{Step 2: Detailed Explanation


Analysis of Assertion (A): "The restoration of ecological balance is the main focus of drought prone area programme." The Drought Prone Area Programme (DPAP) was initiated to tackle the special problems of regions that are frequently affected by drought. Its core strategy involves integrated watershed management, which includes activities like soil conservation, afforestation, and water resource development. These activities are aimed at reversing environmental degradation and restoring the ecological balance of the area. Thus, the Assertion (A) is true.

Analysis of Reason (R): "Growing population pressure is forcing to utilize the marginal lands for agriculture." This is a widely recognized phenomenon in human and agricultural geography. As population increases, the demand for food and land also increases, leading to the expansion of agriculture into areas that are less suitable (marginal) due to poor soil, low rainfall, or difficult terrain. Thus, the Reason (R) is also true.

Analysis of the Link between (A) and (R): Does (R) explain (A)? While the use of marginal lands (R) does contribute to ecological imbalance, it is not the primary or direct reason why the DPAP's main focus is ecological restoration. The DPAP's focus is a direct response to the problem of drought and desertification caused by a combination of climatic factors and unsustainable land use practices. The two statements are correct facts about related issues (environment and population pressure), but one does not serve as the direct explanation for the other.



\textcolor{red{ Step 3: Final Answer

Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true statements, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation for Assertion (A). This corresponds to option (B).
Quick Tip: In Assertion-Reason questions, verify each statement independently first. Then check if the Reason logically explains the Assertion. Sometimes both are true but unrelated.


Question 7:

Read the following sub-fields of social geography carefully and choose the correct option:


I. Resource Geography

II. Leisure Geography

III. Gender Geography

IV. Marketing Geography

  • (B) I and IV are correct.
  • (C) II and III are correct.
  • (D) II and IV are correct.
Correct Answer: (C) II and III are correct.
View Solution




This question requires knowledge of the sub-disciplines within the field of Human Geography, specifically identifying those that belong to Social Geography.


\textcolor{red{Step 1: Understanding the Question

We need to examine the four listed sub-fields and determine which two are correctly categorized under Social Geography. Social Geography studies the relationships between social phenomena and spatial environments.


\textcolor{red{Step 2: Detailed Explanation

Let's classify each of the given sub-fields:


I. Resource Geography: This field studies the distribution, exploitation, and conservation of natural resources. It is primarily a branch of Economic Geography or Environmental Geography.

II. Leisure Geography: This field examines the spatial patterns of recreation, tourism, and sport. As these are social activities, Leisure Geography is a recognized sub-field of Social Geography.

III. Gender Geography: This field focuses on how gender shapes and is shaped by space, place, and environment. It deals with social constructs and identities, making it a core component of contemporary Social Geography.

IV. Marketing Geography: This field analyzes the spatial distribution of markets, consumer behaviour, and retail locations. It is a sub-field of Economic Geography.



From the analysis, Leisure Geography (II) and Gender Geography (III) are the sub-fields of Social Geography.


\textcolor{red{ Step 3: Final Answer

The correct combination is II and III. This corresponds to option (C).
Quick Tip: Social Geography focuses on people, communities, and social relationships. Key sub-fields: Gender Geography, Leisure Geography, Urban Social Geography, Welfare Geography. Economic sub-fields like Resource and Marketing Geography are not part of Social Geography.


Question 8:

During which one of the following decades, 'Gaddi' was included in the Scheduled Tribe list in Chamba district, Himachal Pradesh?

  • (A) 1950s
  • (B) 1960s
  • (C) 1970s
  • (D) 1980s
Correct Answer: (C) 1970s
View Solution




This is a fact-based question concerning the timeline of tribal welfare and recognition policies in India, specifically for the Gaddi community of Himachal Pradesh.


\textcolor{red{Step 1: Understanding the Question

The question asks for the specific decade when the Gaddi pastoralist community of the Chamba district was officially granted Scheduled Tribe (ST) status.


\textcolor{red{Step 2: Detailed Explanation

The development initiatives for the tribal areas of Himachal Pradesh, particularly the Bharmaur region of Chamba district where the Gaddis predominantly reside, were intensified during the Fifth Five-Year Plan.


The Fifth Five-Year Plan ran from 1974 to 1979.

During this plan, the Tribal Sub-Plan was introduced in 1974 with the aim of focused development for tribal populations.

As part of this initiative, the Bharmaur region was officially notified as a tribal area on 21 November 1975.

This notification included the recognition of the Gaddis of this region as a Scheduled Tribe.


Since the key events (Tribal Sub-Plan and official notification) occurred in the mid-1970s, the correct decade is the 1970s.


\textcolor{red{ Step 3: Final Answer

The inclusion of the Gaddi community in the Scheduled Tribe list for Chamba district took place in the 1970s. Therefore, option (C) is the correct answer.
Quick Tip: Remember: Bharmaur (Chamba district) was notified as a tribal area in 1975. The Gaddis were included in the Scheduled Tribe list in the 1970s under the Fifth Five-Year Plan.


Question 9:

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both statements carefully and choose the correct option:


Assertion (A): There is a strong dichotomy between physical elements and human beings.



Reason (R): Nature and human are intricately intertwined.

  • (B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  • (C) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.
  • (D) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
Correct Answer: (C) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.
View Solution




This question explores the fundamental philosophical debate in geography regarding the relationship between humanity and nature.


\textcolor{red{Step 1: Understanding the Question

We need to evaluate the truthfulness of an Assertion (A) and a Reason (R). Assertion (A) claims a strong separation (dichotomy) between humans and nature, while Reason (R) claims they are interconnected. Then, we must determine their relationship.


\textcolor{red{Step 2: Detailed Explanation


Analysis of Assertion (A): "There is a strong dichotomy between physical elements and human beings." This statement represents a dualistic viewpoint, which posits that humans are separate from and superior to nature. While this was a dominant theme in some older Western philosophical traditions, modern geographical thought has largely moved away from this idea. Contemporary geography emphasizes the complex interactions and mutual constitution of society and nature, arguing that a strict dichotomy is a false and misleading concept. Therefore, Assertion (A) is considered incorrect in the context of modern geography.

Analysis of Reason (R): "Nature and human are intricately intertwined." This statement reflects the current consensus in geography and environmental studies. It acknowledges that humans are a part of ecological systems, constantly modifying their environment and being influenced by it. This perspective rejects dualism and focuses on the integrated, hybrid nature of the human-environment relationship. Therefore, Reason (R) is correct.



Since Assertion (A) is incorrect and Reason (R) is correct, they are contradictory. (R) directly refutes (A).


\textcolor{red{ Step 3: Final Answer

The correct evaluation is that Assertion (A) is incorrect, but Reason (R) is correct. This corresponds to option (C).
Quick Tip: Modern geography rejects the nature-culture dichotomy. Key concepts: "Hybrid Geographies" (Whatmore), "consubstantiality" (Dardel) - all emphasizing that humans and nature are intertwined, not separate.


Question 10:

Which one of the following organisations regulate the air traffic of major airports?

  • (A) Indian Airport Commission
  • (B) Indian Air Control Board
  • (C) Indian Air Transport Authority
  • (D) Indian Airport Authority
Correct Answer: (D) Indian Airport Authority
View Solution




This question tests knowledge of the institutional framework governing civil aviation in India.


\textcolor{red{Step 1: Understanding the Question

The question asks to identify the official body responsible for managing and regulating air traffic in India's major airports.


\textcolor{red{Step 2: Detailed Explanation

The management of airports and air traffic control in India is handled by a single statutory body under the Ministry of Civil Aviation.


The correct name of this organization is the Airports Authority of India (AAI).

AAI was formed on April 1, 1995, by merging the International Airports Authority of India and the National Airports Authority.

Its primary responsibilities include the design, development, operation, and maintenance of international and domestic airports, as well as providing Air Traffic Management Services (ATMS) over the entire Indian airspace.


Now let's look at the given options:


(A), (B), and (C) are incorrect names and do not represent any existing official body.

(D) "Indian Airport Authority" is a slight variation of the official name "Airports Authority of India". In the context of a multiple-choice question, this is the intended and closest correct answer.



\textcolor{red{ Step 3: Final Answer

The Airports Authority of India (AAI) is the organization that regulates air traffic. Option (D) is the correct choice among the given options.
Quick Tip: Remember: AAI (Airports Authority of India) = Air Traffic Management + Airport Development. Formed in 1995 by merging IAAI and NAA.


Question 11:

Which one of the following inland waterway and its stretch is correctly matched?

  • (A) National Waterways No. 1 – Allahabad – Haldia
  • (B) National Waterways No. 3 – Sadiya – Dhubri
  • (C) National Waterways No. 2 – Kottapuram – Kollam
  • (D) National Waterways No. 5 – Kakinada – Puducherry
Correct Answer: (A) National Waterways No. 1 – Allahabad – Haldia
View Solution




This question tests the knowledge of India's major National Waterways (NW) and their respective geographical stretches.


\textcolor{red{Step 1: Understanding the Question

The task is to identify which of the given options correctly pairs a National Waterway number with its corresponding route.


\textcolor{red{Step 2: Detailed Explanation

Let's review the correct routes for the major National Waterways mentioned in the options:


National Waterway 1 (NW-1): This is the Ganga-Bhagirathi-Hooghly river system, stretching from Allahabad (Prayagraj) to Haldia.

National Waterway 2 (NW-2): This waterway is on the Brahmaputra River, from Sadiya to Dhubri in Assam.

National Waterway 3 (NW-3): This is the West Coast Canal in Kerala, from Kottapuram to Kollam.

National Waterway 4 (NW-4): This connects Kakinada to Puducherry through a system of canals and the Godavari and Krishna rivers.

National Waterway 5 (NW-5): This is on the Brahmani River and Mahanadi Delta system in Odisha and West Bengal.



Now, let's evaluate the given options based on this information:


(A) National Waterways No. 1 – Allahabad – Haldia: This is a correct match.

(B) National Waterways No. 3 – Sadiya – Dhubri: This is incorrect. The Sadiya-Dhubri stretch is NW-2.

(C) National Waterways No. 2 – Kottapuram – Kollam: This is incorrect. The Kottapuram-Kollam stretch is NW-3.

(D) National Waterways No. 5 – Kakinada – Puducherry: This is incorrect. The Kakinada-Puducherry stretch is part of NW-4.



\textcolor{red{ Step 3: Final Answer

Only option (A) provides the correct pairing of the waterway number and its route.
Quick Tip: Remember: NW-1: Allahabad-Haldia (Ganga), NW-2: Sadiya-Dhubri (Brahmaputra), NW-3: Kottapuram-Kollam (Kerala backwaters), NW-4: Kakinada-Puducherry (Godavari-Krishna).


Question 12:

Read the information given in the box carefully and identify the mineral:


- It is a non-ferrous ore.

- Odisha is the largest producer state.

- It is used in manufacturing of aluminium.

  • (B) Mica
  • (C) Bauxite
  • (D) Manganese
Correct Answer: (C) Bauxite
View Solution




This question requires identifying a mineral based on a set of given characteristics.


\textcolor{red{Step 1: Understanding the Question

We need to analyze three clues—its metallic type, largest producing state, and its primary industrial use—to identify the correct mineral from the options.


\textcolor{red{Step 2: Detailed Explanation

Let's analyze each clue:


Clue 1: "It is a non-ferrous ore." This means the ore does not contain iron as its primary constituent. This eliminates minerals like iron ore and manganese (which is a ferro-alloy). Copper and Bauxite are non-ferrous.

Clue 2: "Odisha is the largest producer state." This points to a mineral for which Odisha has the highest production in India. Odisha is a leading producer of Bauxite, iron ore, and manganese.

Clue 3: "It is used in manufacturing of aluminium." This is the most definitive clue. The primary ore from which aluminium is extracted is Bauxite.



Now, let's check if Bauxite fits all three clues:


Is it non-ferrous? Yes.

Is Odisha the largest producer? Yes, Odisha accounts for over half of India's bauxite production.

Is it used for aluminium? Yes, it is the only ore for aluminium.


All three clues perfectly match Bauxite.


\textcolor{red{ Step 3: Final Answer

The mineral described is Bauxite. Therefore, option (C) is the correct answer.
Quick Tip: Remember: Bauxite → Aluminium. Odisha is the largest producer (Panchpatmali mines in Koraput). Non-ferrous = no iron content.


Question 13:

Which one of the following contributes maximum in India's export?

  • (A) Agriculture and allied products
  • (B) Ores and minerals
  • (C) Manufactured goods
  • (D) Mineral fuels and lubricants
Correct Answer: (C) Manufactured goods
View Solution




This question assesses the understanding of the composition of India's international trade, specifically its export basket.


\textcolor{red{Step 1: Understanding the Question

We need to identify which of the given categories of products has the largest share in India's total export value.


\textcolor{red{Step 2: Detailed Explanation

India's export profile has shifted significantly over the decades from primary products to value-added manufactured goods. Let's analyze the contribution of each category:


(A) Agriculture and allied products: This category includes items like rice, spices, marine products, and sugar. While India is a major agricultural exporter, its share typically ranges from 10-14% of total exports.

(B) Ores and minerals: This includes exports of iron ore and other minerals. This share is relatively small compared to other categories.

(C) Manufactured goods: This is the dominant category in India's export basket, consistently accounting for the largest share. It is a broad category that includes:

Engineering goods: The single largest component, including machinery, auto parts, and iron \& steel products.
Electronic goods: A rapidly growing segment.
Gems and Jewellery.
Textiles and readymade garments.
Chemicals and pharmaceutical products.

Collectively, manufactured goods contribute over 60% of India's merchandise exports.

(D) Mineral fuels and lubricants: This category is dominated by petroleum products, which are refined in India from imported crude oil and then exported. While significant, its share is less than that of the entire manufactured goods sector.



\textcolor{red{ Step 3: Final Answer

Given its vast and diverse components, the 'Manufactured goods' sector contributes the maximum value to India's exports. Therefore, option (C) is correct.
Quick Tip: Remember: Engineering goods (26.67%) + Electronics (8.82%) + Pharma (6.96%) = Manufactured goods dominate India's exports. Agriculture is around 11-12%.


Question 14:

Which one of the following ports is situated at Zuari Estuary?

  • (A) New Mangalore
  • (B) Kochchi
  • (C) Marmagao
  • (D) Ennore
Correct Answer: (C) Marmagao
View Solution




This question tests geographical knowledge about the location of major Indian ports.


\textcolor{red{Step 1: Understanding the Question

We need to identify which port among the options is located at the estuary of the Zuari River. An estuary is a partly enclosed coastal body of brackish water with one or more rivers or streams flowing into it, and with a free connection to the open sea.


\textcolor{red{Step 2: Detailed Explanation

First, we must locate the Zuari River. The Zuari is one of the main rivers in the state of Goa on the west coast of India. It flows into the Arabian Sea, forming a major estuary.

Now let's examine the location of each port:


(A) New Mangalore: This port is located in Panambur, Karnataka, north of the confluence of the Gurupura and Netravati rivers.

(B) Kochchi (Kochi): This port is located in Kerala, situated on the Willingdon Island in the Lake of Kochi.

(C) Marmagao: This is the main port of Goa, situated at the mouth of the Zuari River estuary. It is a natural harbour and is a leading iron ore exporting port of India.

(D) Ennore: Now known as Kamarajar Port, it is located on the Coromandel Coast in Chennai, Tamil Nadu.



Based on this analysis, only Marmagao port is located in Goa and specifically at the Zuari Estuary.


\textcolor{red{ Step 3: Final Answer

The correct option is (C) Marmagao.
Quick Tip: Remember: Marmagao (Goa) = Zuari Estuary. Vasco da Gama city lies at the mouth of Zuari River where it meets the Arabian Sea.


Question 15:

Congo comes under which of the following categories of human development?

  • (A) Very high
  • (B) High
  • (C) Medium
  • (D) Low
Correct Answer: (D) Low
View Solution




This question assesses knowledge about the Human Development Index (HDI) and the classification of countries based on it.


\textcolor{red{Step 1: Understanding the Question

We need to place the Democratic Republic of the Congo into one of the four official categories of human development as defined by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).


\textcolor{red{Step 2: Key Formulas and Approach

The HDI categories are based on the following score thresholds:


Very High Human Development: HDI value of 0.800 and above.

High Human Development: HDI value from 0.700 to 0.799.

Medium Human Development: HDI value from 0.550 to 0.699.

Low Human Development: HDI value below 0.550.



\textcolor{red{Step 3: Detailed Explanation

The Democratic Republic of the Congo has faced prolonged political instability, conflict, and economic challenges. These factors severely impact its performance on the key indicators of HDI: life expectancy, education, and per capita income.

According to recent UNDP Human Development Reports, the HDI value for the Democratic Republic of the Congo is consistently well below the 0.550 mark (e.g., 0.479 in the 2021-22 report). An HDI score in this range places it firmly in the Low Human Development category.


\textcolor{red{Step 4: Final Answer

Based on its HDI score, Congo falls under the Low category of human development. Therefore, option (D) is correct.
Quick Tip: Remember HDI thresholds: Very High (\(≥\) 0.800), High (0.700-0.799), Medium (0.550-0.699), Low (\(<\)0.550). Congo consistently ranks in the Low category.


Question 16:

How many countries fall under the low category of 'human development' index in the given table?

  • (A) 2
  • (B) 4
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 5
Correct Answer: (A) 2
View Solution




This question requires applying the HDI classification criteria to the data provided in the table.


\textcolor{red{Step 1: Understanding the Question

We need to count how many countries listed in the table have an HDI value that places them in the "Low Human Development" category.


\textcolor{red{Step 2: Key Formulas and Approach

The threshold for the Low Human Development category is an HDI value below 0.550.


\textcolor{red{Step 3: Detailed Explanation

Let's examine each country's HDI value from the table and compare it to the 0.550 threshold:


Belarus: HDI = 0.801. This is \(\geq\) 0.800, so it is in the 'Very High' category.

Botswana: HDI = 0.708. This is between 0.700 and 0.799, so it is in the 'High' category.

Micronesia: HDI = 0.593. This is between 0.550 and 0.699, so it is in the 'Medium' category.

Nigeria: HDI = 0.516. This is below 0.550, so it is in the 'Low' category.

Tajikistan: HDI = 0.400. This is below 0.550, so it is in the 'Low' category.


By applying the rule, we find that two countries, Nigeria and Tajikistan, fall into the low category.


\textcolor{red{Step 4: Final Answer

There are 2 countries in the low category. Therefore, option (A) is correct.
Quick Tip: Apply the threshold (\(<\) 0.550) to each value. Nigeria (0.516) and Tajikistan (0.400) qualify. Belarus (0.801) is Very High, Botswana (0.708) is High, Micronesia (0.593) is Medium.


Question 17:

Which of the following European country falls under very high category of human development?

  • (A) Chile
  • (B) Mexico
  • (C) Botswana
  • (D) Belarus
Correct Answer: (D) Belarus
View Solution




This question has two conditions that must be met: the country must be European, and it must have a 'Very High' HDI.


\textcolor{red{Step 1: Understanding the Question

We need to identify the country from the given options that is geographically in Europe AND falls into the 'Very High Human Development' category based on the provided table.


\textcolor{red{Step 2: Key Formulas and Approach

The threshold for the Very High Human Development category is an HDI value of 0.800 and above.


\textcolor{red{Step 3: Detailed Explanation

Let's evaluate each option based on the two conditions:


(A) Chile: This is a country in South America, not Europe. So, it does not meet the first condition.

(B) Mexico: This is a country in North America, not Europe. So, it does not meet the first condition.

(C) Botswana: This is a country in Africa, not Europe. So, it does not meet the first condition.

(D) Belarus: This is a country in Eastern Europe. It meets the first condition. Now, let's check its HDI from the table. The HDI for Belarus is 0.801, which is \(\geq\) 0.800. Therefore, it also meets the second condition of being in the 'Very High' category.



\textcolor{red{Step 4: Final Answer

Belarus is the only country among the options that is both European and has a Very High HDI. Therefore, option (D) is correct.
Quick Tip: Belarus (0.801) is the only European country in the table and qualifies for Very High HDI category. Remember: Europe ≠ all countries with high HDI; check both geography and HDI value.


Question 18.1:

Define the concept of 'outbound migration'.

Correct Answer:
View Solution




\textcolor{red{Step 1: Understanding the Question

The question asks for a clear and precise definition of the term 'outbound migration'.


\textcolor{red{Step 2: Detailed Explanation

Outbound migration, more commonly known as emigration, is the act of leaving one's own country or region of residence to settle permanently or for a long term in another country.

It is viewed from the perspective of the country of origin (the place being left).


Definition: The process of moving out of a place of origin (source) to a place of destination.

Example: When a person from India moves to Canada, for India, this is an act of outbound migration or emigration. The person is an emigrant from India.

Contrast: The opposite of outbound migration is inbound migration or immigration, which is the act of arriving and settling in a new country. In the example above, the same person is an immigrant to Canada.



\textcolor{red{ Step 3: Final Answer

In summary, outbound migration is the movement of people away from their home country to take up residence elsewhere.
Quick Tip: Remember: Outbound migration (emigration) is the movement of people out of their home country to settle in another country. It is the opposite of inbound migration (immigration).


Question 18.2:

Describe the factors that influence the movement of people across borders.

Correct Answer:
View Solution




\textcolor{red{Step 1: Understanding the Question

The question asks for a description of the various factors that cause or encourage people to migrate internationally. These factors are best explained using the 'Push and Pull' model of migration.


\textcolor{red{Step 2: Detailed Explanation

The factors influencing international migration can be categorized as follows:


1. Push Factors (Reasons to Leave a Country):

These are negative conditions in the home country that compel or encourage people to emigrate.


Economic Factors: Lack of employment opportunities, low wages, poverty, economic recession, and lack of prospects for career advancement.

Political Factors: Political instability, war, civil unrest, persecution (based on religion, ethnicity, or political beliefs), and lack of personal freedom and security.

Social Factors: Poor quality of life, lack of access to quality education and healthcare, social discrimination, and limited social mobility.

Environmental Factors: Natural disasters (like droughts, floods, earthquakes), climate change impacts (like sea-level rise), and environmental degradation.



2. Pull Factors (Reasons to Go to a Country):

These are positive conditions in the destination country that attract people to immigrate.


Economic Factors: Availability of better-paying jobs, higher standard of living, economic prosperity, and opportunities for business and investment.

Political Factors: Political stability, peace, democracy, rule of law, and protection of human rights.

Social Factors: Better opportunities for education (universities), advanced healthcare facilities, social security benefits, and the presence of family or community networks (diaspora).

Environmental Factors: Favorable climate, clean and safe environment, and attractive landscapes.



\textcolor{red{ Step 3: Final Answer

The movement of people across borders is a complex decision influenced by a combination of push factors that drive them away from their homeland and pull factors that attract them to a new country, spanning economic, political, social, and environmental domains.
Quick Tip: Remember: Migration is influenced by push factors (unemployment, poverty, conflict, disasters) that force people to leave, and pull factors (better jobs, education, stability, freedom) that attract people to destinations. Usually, multiple factors combine to influence migration decisions.


Question 18.3:

Discuss the impact of globalization on international trade and investment flows.

Correct Answer:
View Solution




\textcolor{red{Step 1: Understanding the Question

The question asks for a discussion on how globalization—the process of increasing interconnectedness of countries—has affected the patterns and volume of international trade and investment.


\textcolor{red{Step 2: Detailed Explanation

Globalization has profoundly transformed the global economy. Its impact on trade and investment is multifaceted:


Impact on International Trade:


Increased Volume: Globalization, facilitated by organizations like the World Trade Organization (WTO), has led to the reduction of tariffs and other trade barriers, causing a massive increase in the volume of global trade.

Rise of Global Supply Chains: Companies now source parts and assemble products in different countries to minimize costs. This has boosted trade in intermediate goods (parts and components).

Diversification of Goods and Services: Trade is no longer dominated by primary goods. There is a huge increase in the trade of manufactured goods, services (like IT, finance, tourism), and digital products.

Greater Competition: Domestic markets are now open to international competition, which can lead to lower prices and more choices for consumers but can also threaten local industries.



Impact on Investment Flows:


Surge in Foreign Direct Investment (FDI): Multinational Corporations (MNCs) have expanded their operations globally by setting up factories and offices in foreign countries. This has led to a dramatic increase in FDI flows, especially to developing countries.

Growth of Portfolio Investment: Financial globalization has made it easier for investors to buy stocks and bonds in foreign markets, leading to a massive increase in cross-border portfolio investment flows.

Integration of Financial Markets: Capital can now move more freely and quickly across borders, linking financial markets around the world. This can bring capital for development but also increases the risk of financial crises spreading globally (contagion).

Technology Transfer: FDI is a major channel for the transfer of technology, management skills, and knowledge from developed to developing countries, boosting productivity and innovation.



\textcolor{red{ Step 3: Final Answer

In conclusion, globalization has acted as a powerful engine for the growth and integration of the world economy, leading to an unprecedented expansion in the scale and complexity of international trade and investment flows, connecting countries in a web of economic interdependence.
Quick Tip: Remember: Globalization has dramatically increased international trade (volume, diversity, patterns) and investment flows (FDI, portfolio, MNC expansion). While it has brought economic growth and integration, it has also created challenges like inequality and vulnerability to global crises.


Question 19.1:

Study the given map and answer the following questions:


Name the easternmost terminal station of the given rail route.

Correct Answer:
View Solution




\textcolor{red{Step 1: Understanding the Question

The question asks to identify the station located at the far eastern end of the railway line shown in the map.


\textcolor{red{Step 2: Detailed Explanation

The map displays the route of the Trans-Siberian Railway, the longest railway line in the world. It traverses Siberia from its western terminus in Moscow. By tracing the line eastward across the map, we can see that it terminates at a port city on the Pacific Coast. This easternmost terminal station is Vladivostok. Vladivostok is a major port on the Sea of Japan and serves as Russia's primary commercial hub in the Pacific.


\textcolor{red{ Step 3: Final Answer

The easternmost terminal station is Vladivostok.
Quick Tip: Vladivostok is the eastern terminus of the Trans-Siberian Railway, located on the Pacific coast. It is Russia's most important Pacific port.


Question 19.2:

Name the most important agro centre along the rail route.

Correct Answer:
View Solution




\textcolor{red{Step 1: Understanding the Question

The question asks to identify a major agricultural center situated along the Trans-Siberian Railway route shown on the map.


\textcolor{red{Step 2: Detailed Explanation

The Trans-Siberian Railway passes through several important cities. One of the most significant agricultural centers is Omsk. It is located in the fertile black earth (chernozem) soil belt of the Western Siberian Plain. Due to its location, Omsk has developed as a major hub for grain production, food processing (flour milling, meat packing), and the manufacturing of agricultural machinery. It serves as a collection and distribution point for the vast agricultural hinterland.


\textcolor{red{ Step 3: Final Answer

The most important agro centre is Omsk.
Quick Tip: Omsk is the premier agricultural center on the Trans-Siberian route, benefiting from the fertile black earth region of Western Siberia.


Question 19.3:

Name the Sea near to the westernmost terminal station.

Correct Answer:
View Solution




\textcolor{red{Step 1: Understanding the Question

The question asks to identify the sea that is located near the western end of the Trans-Siberian railway network.


\textcolor{red{Step 2: Detailed Explanation

The westernmost terminal of the main Trans-Siberian line is Moscow. However, the Russian railway network extends further west from Moscow to major cities like St. Petersburg. St. Petersburg is a crucial port city located on the Gulf of Finland, which is an arm of the Baltic Sea. Therefore, the Baltic Sea is the major sea that serves the western end of this vast railway network, connecting it to European and Atlantic shipping routes.


\textcolor{red{ Step 3: Final Answer

The sea near the westernmost terminal station is the Baltic Sea.
Quick Tip: The Baltic Sea is the body of water closest to the western terminus of the Trans-Siberian network, with St. Petersburg serving as the major Baltic port.


Question 20 (a):

Supporting the statement, trade in developing countries.

Correct Answer:
View Solution




\textcolor{red{Step 1: Understanding the Question

(Assuming the statement is "Foreign investment supports trade in developing countries.") The question asks to explain how foreign investment acts as a catalyst for improving the international trade performance of developing nations.


\textcolor{red{Step 2: Detailed Explanation

Foreign investment, particularly Foreign Direct Investment (FDI), plays a crucial role in enhancing the trade capabilities of developing countries in several ways:


Boosts Export Capacity and Diversification: FDI often establishes modern manufacturing and service facilities. This helps developing countries to move away from exporting only raw materials and start exporting higher-value manufactured goods and services. For example, FDI in the electronics sector in Vietnam turned it into a major electronics exporter.

Technology and Skill Transfer: Multinational corporations (MNCs) bring advanced technology, efficient production techniques, and modern management skills. This knowledge spreads to local firms (spillover effect), making the entire domestic industry more productive and competitive in global markets.

Integration into Global Value Chains (GVCs): Foreign firms integrate local production units into their global supply chains. A developing country might specialize in manufacturing a specific component for a global product (e.g., a car part or a phone screen), which is then exported for further assembly. This ensures a steady flow of trade.

Access to International Markets: MNCs have established global marketing and distribution networks. By producing in a developing country, they provide an immediate channel for the products to be sold in markets across Europe, North America, and other developed regions, which local firms might find difficult to access on their own.

Infrastructure Development: FDI can lead to improvements in local infrastructure, such as ports, roads, and communication networks, which are essential for efficient international trade.



\textcolor{red{ Step 3: Final Answer

In summary, foreign investment is a powerful driver of trade for developing countries by enhancing their production capabilities, providing access to technology and global markets, and integrating them into the international economy.
Quick Tip: Foreign investment boosts trade in developing countries through export diversification, technology transfer, global value chain integration, infrastructure development, and market access. It transforms economies from commodity exporters to manufactured goods exporters.


Question 20 (b):

Dumping of goods can harm the domestic producers of the developing countries.

Correct Answer:
View Solution




\textcolor{red{Step 1: Understanding the Question

The question asks to explain the negative effects of 'dumping' on the local industries and producers in developing nations. Dumping is an unfair trade practice where goods are exported to another country at a price lower than their normal value.


\textcolor{red{Step 2: Detailed Explanation

Dumping severely harms domestic producers in developing countries through the following mechanisms:


Unfair Price Competition: Dumped goods are sold at artificially low prices that domestic producers, who do not have the same scale or government subsidies, cannot compete with. This leads to a sharp decline in the sales and revenues of local firms.

Closure of Domestic Industries: Unable to compete with below-cost imports, many local firms, especially small and medium-sized enterprises (SMEs), are forced to reduce production or shut down completely. This leads to de-industrialization in the affected sectors.

Job Losses: When domestic factories close or scale back, it results in widespread unemployment. This has severe social and economic consequences in developing countries where alternative employment opportunities may be scarce.

Destruction of Infant Industries: Developing countries often try to nurture new ('infant') industries. Dumping can destroy these industries before they have a chance to grow, become efficient, and achieve economies of scale.

Discouragement of Investment: The threat of dumping creates an uncertain and risky environment, discouraging new domestic and foreign investment in the affected industries, thereby stunting long-term growth.


For example, the dumping of agricultural products like poultry or rice from developed countries has been shown to devastate local farming communities in parts of Africa and Latin America.


\textcolor{red{ Step 3: Final Answer

In conclusion, dumping is a predatory practice that can cripple the industrial base of developing countries by destroying domestic producers, causing job losses, and undermining efforts towards industrialization and economic self-sufficiency.
Quick Tip: Dumping harms domestic producers in developing countries by undercutting prices, forcing industry closures, causing job losses, discouraging investment, and blocking industrialization. Anti-dumping duties under WTO rules provide some protection against this unfair trade practice.


Question 21:

Study the given table carefully and answer the questions that follow:





21.1 During which decade the increase in number of towns/UAs is the lowest?

Correct Answer:
View Solution




\textcolor{red{Step 1: Understanding the Question

The question requires us to analyze the 'No. of Towns/UAs' column and find the 10-year period (decade) where the absolute increase in the number of towns was the smallest.


\textcolor{red{Step 2: Key Formulas and Approach

We need to calculate the difference in the number of towns between consecutive census years.

Increase = (Number of towns in later year) - (Number of towns in earlier year)


\textcolor{red{Step 3: Detailed Explanation

Let's calculate the increase for each decade presented in the table:


1961 to 1971: 2,590 - 2,365 = 225

1971 to 1981: 3,382 - 2,590 = 792

1981 to 1991: 4,652 - 3,382 = 1,270

1991 to 2001: 5,161 - 4,652 = 509


Comparing the calculated increases (225, 792, 1270, 509), the lowest value is 225.


\textcolor{red{Step 4: Final Answer

The lowest increase in the number of towns occurred during the decade 1961-1971.
Quick Tip: To find the decade with lowest increase in number of towns, subtract the previous decade's town count from the current decade and compare all values.


Question 21.2:

Mention the number of towns/UAs during 1981-91.

Correct Answer:
View Solution




\textcolor{red{Step 1: Understanding the Question

The question asks for the number of towns/UAs (Urban Agglomerations) during the period of 1981 to 1991. This can be interpreted as the data points for the start and end of this decade.


\textcolor{red{Step 2: Detailed Explanation

By reading the data directly from the table provided:


In the census year 1981, the number of towns/UAs was 3,382.

In the census year 1991, the number of towns/UAs was 4,652.


The increase during this decade was 4,652 - 3,382 = 1,270, which was the highest among all decades shown.


\textcolor{red{ Step 3: Final Answer

The number of towns/UAs was 3,382 in 1981 and 4,652 in 1991.
Quick Tip: When a question asks for "number during" a decade, refer to the census figures at the beginning and end of that decade as recorded in the table.


Question 21.3:

Explain the decennial growth rate of urban population.

Correct Answer:
View Solution




\textcolor{red{Step 1: Understanding the Question

The question asks for an explanation of the trend of the decennial growth rate of India's urban population, based on the data in the "Growth (%)" column of the table.


\textcolor{red{Step 2: Detailed Explanation

The decennial growth rate is the percentage by which the urban population increased over a ten-year period. Analyzing the trend from the table reveals a distinct pattern:


1961-1971 (38.23%): This decade saw a significant growth rate, reflecting the post-independence industrialization and development efforts that spurred migration to cities.

1971-1981 (46.14%): This decade marks the peak of urban population growth rate. This acceleration was due to several factors, including sustained industrial growth, the impact of the Green Revolution creating rural surplus labor, and an increase in the number of towns being classified as urban.

1981-1991 (36.47%) and 1991-2001 (31.13%): After the peak in 1971-81, the growth rate began to decline. This slowdown does not mean that urbanization stopped; the absolute number of people moving to cities was still very large. The decline in the percentage rate can be attributed to a higher base population and some saturation in major metropolitan areas.



\textcolor{red{ Step 3: Final Answer

The decennial growth rate of India's urban population shows a trend of acceleration up to the 1971-81 decade, where it peaked at 46.14%. Following this peak, the rate of growth began to slow down in the subsequent decades, falling to 31.13% in 1991-2001. This indicates a maturing phase of urbanization where, despite a lower growth rate, the absolute increase in the urban population remains substantial.
Quick Tip: Decennial growth rate shows the pace of urbanization over decades. India's urban growth rate peaked in 1971-81 and has been declining since, though absolute urban population continues to grow. This indicates maturation of the urbanization process.


Question 22:

Explain the decennial growth rate of urban population.

Correct Answer:
View Solution




\textcolor{red{Step 1: Understanding the Question

This question is a repetition of 21.3 and asks for an explanation of the decennial growth rate of India's urban population, based on the data in the provided table.


\textcolor{red{Step 2: Detailed Explanation

The decennial growth rate represents the percentage increase in the urban population from one census to the next (over a 10-year period). The trend observed in the table is as follows:


The growth rate shows a clear upward trend from the 1960s to the 1970s, moving from 38.23% in 1961-71 to a peak of 46.14% in 1971-81. This period is often considered the phase of most rapid urbanization in post-independence India.

After 1981, the trend reverses, and the decennial growth rate starts to decline. It dropped to 36.47% in the 1981-91 decade and further to 31.13% in the 1991-2001 decade.


Reasons for the Trend:


Peak in 1971-81: This was driven by strong rural-to-urban migration, reclassification of many rural areas as urban, and natural increase within cities.

Decline after 1981: This slowdown in the rate of growth can be attributed to a larger base population (making high percentage growth harder to achieve) and potentially some disincentives of urban life, such as congestion and pollution, becoming more prominent.



\textcolor{red{ Step 3: Final Answer

The decennial growth rate of India's urban population peaked in the 1971-81 decade at 46.14%, indicating the fastest pace of urbanization during that time. Subsequently, the growth rate has shown a declining trend, suggesting a stabilization in the pace of urbanization, even though the absolute number of urban dwellers continues to increase significantly.
Quick Tip: Decennial growth rate shows the pace of urbanization over decades. India's urban growth rate peaked in 1971-81 and has been declining since, though absolute urban population continues to grow. This indicates maturation of the urbanization process.


Question 23:

Explain the importance of the 'Northern Atlantic Sea Route'.

Correct Answer:
View Solution




\textcolor{red{Step 1: Understanding the Question

The question asks for an explanation of the significance of the North Atlantic Sea Route, which is one of the world's most critical maritime corridors.


\textcolor{red{Step 2: Detailed Explanation

The Northern Atlantic Sea Route is of paramount importance due to its geographical, economic, and historical significance.


World's Busiest Trade Route: It is often referred to as the 'Big Trunk Route' because it connects the two most industrially developed regions of the world: Western Europe and the eastern coast of North America. It carries more foreign trade than the rest of the world's routes combined.

Economic Powerhouses Link: It links major economic centers like London, Rotterdam, Hamburg, and Antwerp in Europe with ports like New York, Boston, Montreal, and Philadelphia in North America. This facilitates massive trade in manufactured goods, raw materials, machinery, vehicles, and food products.

Advanced Port Facilities: Both sides of the route are lined with highly advanced and efficient ports with deep-water harbours and modern cargo handling facilities (e.g., container terminals, bulk cargo docks), which supports the massive volume of traffic.

Strategic Location: It provides a direct link across the Atlantic Ocean and connects to other major sea lanes, including routes to the Mediterranean Sea, the Baltic Sea, and through the St. Lawrence Seaway into the Great Lakes region of North America.

Historical Significance: It has historically been the primary route for migration, trade, and cultural exchange between Europe and the Americas for centuries.



\textcolor{red{ Step 3: Final Answer

The Northern Atlantic Sea Route's importance stems from its status as the world's busiest maritime highway, linking the highly industrialized and prosperous regions of Western Europe and North America. It facilitates the largest volume of international trade, is equipped with highly developed port infrastructure, and holds immense strategic and historical value, making it the backbone of the global shipping network.
Quick Tip: The Northern Atlantic Sea Route is the busiest ocean route globally, connecting major North American and European ports. Its importance stems from heavy industrial traffic, strategic location, economic significance, energy trade, and historical role in transatlantic commerce.


Question 24:

(a) Explain the economic factors affecting the distribution of world population.

OR

(b) Explain the physical factors affecting the distribution of world population.

Correct Answer:
View Solution




(a) Economic Factors Affecting the Distribution of World Population


\textcolor{red{Step 1: Understanding the Question

This question asks to explain how economic activities and opportunities influence where people live, leading to uneven population distribution across the globe.


\textcolor{red{Step 2: Detailed Explanation

Economic factors are human-related factors that attract people to certain areas because of the potential for livelihood and prosperity.


Mineral Resources: Areas rich in valuable mineral deposits attract population. Mining and industrial activities develop, creating jobs and attracting workers, even in otherwise inhospitable environments. For example, the gold mines of the Australian outback or the oil fields in the Middle East.

Urbanization: Cities and towns are major centers of population because they offer better employment opportunities, educational and medical facilities, and better means of transport and communication. The lure of a better life (pull factor) causes high rates of rural-to-urban migration, leading to densely populated urban centers.

Industrialization: Industrial belts provide jobs to a large number of people, including factory workers, transport operators, shopkeepers, and service providers. These areas become magnets for population. The Kobe-Osaka region of Japan and the Mumbai-Pune belt in India are examples of densely populated industrial regions.

Agriculture: Areas with fertile land that can support intensive agriculture tend to have high population densities. The availability of agricultural work and food security attracts and sustains large populations, as seen in the river plains of South and Southeast Asia.



\textcolor{red{ Step 3: Final Answer

Economic factors like the presence of mineral resources, urbanization, industrialization, and agricultural potential significantly shape global population distribution. These factors create employment and wealth, acting as powerful pull factors that lead to the concentration of population in specific regions.



OR



(b) Physical Factors Affecting the Distribution of World Population


\textcolor{red{Step 1: Understanding the Question

This question asks to explain how natural or environmental conditions influence the pattern of human settlement and population density across the world.


\textcolor{red{Step 2: Detailed Explanation

Physical or geographical factors play a fundamental role in determining where humans can thrive.


Availability of Water: Water is the most essential factor for life. People prefer to live in areas where fresh water is easily available. River valleys are among the most densely populated areas in the world because they provide water for drinking, bathing, cooking, irrigation, and transport. Deserts, with scarce water, are sparsely populated.

Landforms: People prefer living on flat plains and gentle slopes. This is because such areas are favourable for agriculture, construction of roads and industries. Mountainous and hilly areas are less populated due to difficult terrain, poor transport links, and limited land for farming. For this reason, the Ganga plains are densely populated while the Himalayan region is not.

Climate: Areas with a comfortable, moderate climate that is neither too hot nor too cold attract more people. Regions with extreme climates, such as very hot deserts (Sahara) or cold polar regions (Siberia, Northern Canada), are very sparsely populated. Areas with heavy rainfall or harsh seasons are also less favored.

Soils: Fertile soils are crucial for agriculture and livestock rearing. Therefore, areas with fertile loamy or alluvial soils have more people living on them as these can support intensive agriculture. The river plains of the Nile, Ganga, and Yangtze are examples of regions with fertile soils and high population densities.



\textcolor{red{ Step 3: Final Answer

Physical factors, including the availability of water, favorable landforms, moderate climate, and fertile soils, are the primary determinants of world population distribution. These natural conditions dictate the carrying capacity of a region and explain why river valleys and coastal plains are densely populated while deserts, high mountains, and polar regions are not.
Quick Tip: Population distribution results from the interplay of physical factors (terrain, climate, soil, water) and economic factors (jobs, industry, trade, agriculture). Dense populations cluster where both sets of factors are favorable, while harsh physical conditions or lack of economic opportunities lead to sparse populations.


Question 25 (a):

Explain the problem of 'low productivity' of Indian agriculture.
Analyse the role of 'National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture' to solve this problem. + 3 = 5

Correct Answer:
View Solution




Part 1: Problem of 'Low Productivity' in Indian Agriculture


\textcolor{red{Step 1: Understanding the Question

This part requires explaining the reasons why agricultural output per unit of land (yield) in India is low compared to international standards.


\textcolor{red{Step 2: Detailed Explanation

The problem of low productivity in Indian agriculture is multifaceted and stems from a combination of institutional, technological, and environmental factors:


Dependence on Monsoon: Over half of India's cropped area is rain-fed and dependent on the unpredictable monsoon, making it vulnerable to droughts and floods.

Small and Fragmented Landholdings: The average farm size is very small and plots are often scattered, which makes modern farming and mechanization uneconomical and inefficient.

Lack of Modern Inputs: There is low and imbalanced use of high-yielding variety (HYV) seeds, chemical fertilizers, and pesticides, especially among small and marginal farmers due to high costs and lack of awareness.

Soil Degradation: Years of intensive farming without proper management have led to soil exhaustion, nutrient depletion, and loss of fertility.

Inadequate Infrastructure: Poor rural infrastructure, including lack of sufficient irrigation, rural roads, storage facilities (godowns and cold storages), and reliable power supply, hampers productivity.



Part 2: Role of 'National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture' (NMSA)


\textcolor{red{Step 1: Understanding the Question

This part requires analyzing how the NMSA program helps to address the problems of low productivity.


\textcolor{red{Step 2: Detailed Explanation

The NMSA aims to make agriculture more productive, sustainable, and climate-resilient. It directly addresses low productivity through its key components:


Improved Water Management: Through its 'Per Drop More Crop' component, NMSA promotes micro-irrigation (drip and sprinkler systems) to use water more efficiently, which is critical for enhancing productivity, especially in water-scarce regions.

Enhanced Soil Health: The mission promotes Soil Health Cards, which inform farmers about the nutrient status of their soil and recommend balanced fertilizer use. This prevents nutrient depletion and improves soil fertility, leading to higher yields.

Climate Change Adaptation: NMSA promotes climate-resilient agricultural practices and crop varieties that can withstand weather extremities like droughts and floods, thereby stabilizing and enhancing productivity in a changing climate.



\textcolor{red{ Step 3: Final Answer

In conclusion, NMSA plays a crucial role in tackling low agricultural productivity by focusing on making the use of key resources like water and soil more efficient and sustainable. By promoting climate-resilient technologies and scientific soil management, it aims to enhance crop yields and make farming more resilient and profitable.
Quick Tip: Low productivity in Indian agriculture stems from small holdings, poor irrigation, limited inputs, soil degradation, and climate vulnerability. NMSA addresses this through soil health management, water efficiency, crop diversification, climate-resilient practices, and capacity building for sustainable productivity enhancement.


Question 25 (b):

Explain the problems of the 'indebtedness' of Indian farmers.
Analyse the importance of 'farmer's portal' in helping the farmers. + 3 = 5

Correct Answer:
View Solution




Part 1: Problems of 'Indebtedness' of Indian Farmers


\textcolor{red{Step 1: Understanding the Question

This part requires an explanation of the causes and consequences of the widespread problem of debt among Indian farmers.


\textcolor{red{Step 2: Detailed Explanation

Farmer indebtedness is a severe crisis with deep-rooted problems:


High Input Costs: The cost of seeds, fertilizers, pesticides, and machinery is constantly rising, forcing farmers to take loans at the start of every crop season.

Crop Failure: Due to unreliable monsoons, pests, and diseases, crop failure is common. When a crop fails, the farmer loses the investment and is unable to repay the loan, falling into a debt trap.

Unremunerative Prices: Farmers often do not get fair prices for their produce due to market fluctuations, lack of storage facilities, and exploitation by middlemen. Their income is often insufficient to cover costs and repay loans.

Dependence on Informal Lenders: Many small farmers lack access to formal credit from banks and are forced to borrow from local moneylenders who charge exorbitant interest rates, making repayment extremely difficult.

Social Obligations: Farmers also take loans for social purposes like marriages and festivals, which adds to their non-productive debt burden.



Part 2: Importance of 'Farmer's Portal'


\textcolor{red{Step 1: Understanding the Question

This part requires an analysis of how a digital platform like the Farmer's Portal can assist farmers and potentially help alleviate their problems.


\textcolor{red{Step 2: Detailed Explanation

The Farmer's Portal is an important digital initiative that empowers farmers by providing them with timely and relevant information:


Access to Market Information: The portal provides real-time information on the prices of various crops in different markets (mandis). This helps farmers make informed decisions about when and where to sell their produce to get the best price, protecting them from middlemen.

Weather Advisories: It provides localized weather forecasts and crop-specific advisories. This helps farmers to plan their agricultural activities better and take preventive measures against adverse weather, reducing the risk of crop failure.

Information on Government Schemes: Farmers can get detailed information about various government schemes related to subsidies on inputs, crop insurance (like PMFBY), and credit facilities. This knowledge helps them to access benefits they might otherwise be unaware of.



\textcolor{red{ Step 3: Final Answer

The Farmer's Portal is an important tool in the fight against farmer indebtedness. By providing crucial information on market prices, weather, and government schemes, it empowers farmers to increase their income, reduce risks, and access institutional support, thereby breaking the cycle of debt.
Quick Tip: Farmer indebtedness arises from informal credit, crop failures, low prices, high input costs, and inadequate institutional credit. The Farmer's Portal helps by providing information on schemes, market prices, weather, technical knowledge, and financial services, empowering farmers to make informed decisions and access institutional support.


Question 26 (a):

Explain the problems of 'farmer's indebtedness' and suggest any three measures to overcome it. + 3 = 5

Correct Answer:
View Solution




Part 1: Problems of Farmer's Indebtedness


\textcolor{red{Step 1: Understanding the Question

This part requires an explanation of the causes and consequences of the widespread problem of debt among Indian farmers.


\textcolor{red{Step 2: Detailed Explanation

The problems of farmer indebtedness in India are severe and arise from a combination of factors:


Vicious Cycle of Debt: Farmers take loans for inputs, but due to crop failure or low prices, they are unable to repay. They then take another, larger loan to cover the old one, trapping them in a cycle.

Dependence on Moneylenders: Lack of access to formal banking forces them to borrow from informal sources at extremely high interest rates.

Income Volatility: Agriculture is a risky profession with income highly dependent on weather and market prices, both of which are unpredictable.

Rising Costs: The cost of cultivation has increased significantly, while the increase in farm income has not kept pace.

Social Consequences: Extreme debt pressure leads to severe mental stress, and in tragic cases, farmer suicides. It also leads to the sale of land, turning farmers into landless labourers.



Part 2: Three Measures to Overcome It


\textcolor{red{Step 1: Understanding the Question

This part asks for three concrete suggestions to solve the problem of farmer indebtedness.


\textcolor{red{Step 2: Detailed Explanation


Strengthening Institutional Credit: The government must ensure easy and timely access to low-interest loans for all farmers, especially small and marginal ones, through banks and cooperatives. Expanding the reach of the Kisan Credit Card (KCC) scheme is crucial to reduce dependence on moneylenders.

Ensuring Remunerative Prices and Income Support: The government should ensure that farmers receive the Minimum Support Price (MSP) for their crops. Schemes like PM-KISAN, which provide direct income support, should be strengthened to provide farmers with a basic income cushion against risks.

Expanding Crop Insurance Coverage: Making crop insurance more effective and accessible is vital. The Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY) should ensure quick and fair settlement of claims in case of crop failure, providing a safety net that prevents farmers from falling into debt.



\textcolor{red{ Step 3: Final Answer

In summary, farmer indebtedness is a critical issue caused by high costs, uncertain income, and a lack of formal credit. It can be overcome through a three-pronged strategy of providing accessible institutional credit, assuring remunerative prices and income, and creating a robust crop insurance system.
Quick Tip: Farmer indebtedness arises from informal credit, crop failures, low prices, and high costs. Solutions: institutional credit, crop insurance, and income support through MSP and direct benefit transfers.


Question 26 (b):

Explain the causes of air pollution and suggest any three measures to overcome it. + 3 = 5

Correct Answer:
View Solution




Part 1: Causes of Air Pollution


\textcolor{red{Step 1: Understanding the Question

This part requires an explanation of the main sources that release harmful pollutants into the atmosphere.


\textcolor{red{Step 2: Detailed Explanation

Air pollution is caused by the presence of solid particles, liquid droplets, or gases in the air in harmful concentrations. The primary causes are:


Vehicular Emissions: A major source in urban areas, vehicles release pollutants like carbon monoxide (CO), nitrogen oxides (NOx), hydrocarbons, and particulate matter (PM2.5).

Industrial Pollution: Factories, power plants, and refineries release large amounts of pollutants like sulfur dioxide (SO2), NOx, and particulate matter from burning fossil fuels like coal and oil.

Agricultural Activities: The burning of crop residue (stubble burning), especially in North India, releases massive amounts of smoke, PM2.5, and other harmful gases into the air, causing severe seasonal pollution.

Construction and Demolition: Dust and fine particles are released from construction sites, road building, and demolition activities, contributing significantly to particulate matter pollution.

Domestic Sources: Burning of solid fuels like wood, coal, and cow dung for cooking and heating in households is a major source of indoor and outdoor air pollution.



Part 2: Three Measures to Overcome It


\textcolor{red{Step 1: Understanding the Question

This part asks for three practical measures to control and reduce air pollution.


\textcolor{red{Step 2: Detailed Explanation


Shift to Cleaner Energy and Transport: This involves promoting the use of public transport, adopting electric vehicles (EVs), and shifting from coal-based power to renewable energy sources like solar and wind power. Implementing stricter emission standards for vehicles (like Bharat Stage VI) is also key.

Control Industrial and Construction Dust: Industries must be mandated to install pollution control devices like electrostatic precipitators and scrubbers. For construction, measures like covering sites, sprinkling water to suppress dust, and using green nets are effective.

Stop Stubble Burning: A complete ban on crop residue burning must be strictly enforced. This should be supported by providing farmers with economically viable alternatives, such as subsidizing machinery (e.g., Happy Seeder) that allows them to sow the next crop without burning the stubble.



\textcolor{red{ Step 3: Final Answer

In summary, air pollution is caused by emissions from vehicles, industries, agriculture, and construction. It can be overcome by a comprehensive strategy that includes shifting to clean transport and energy, enforcing strict industrial emission controls, and providing sustainable solutions to agricultural practices like stubble burning.
Quick Tip: Air pollution causes: industries, vehicles, stubble burning, fossil fuels. Key solutions: cleaner fuels, industrial emission controls, and agricultural residue management.


Question 27:

"There are many challenges for the society to channelise adolescents in the right direction." Evaluate the statement.

Correct Answer:
View Solution




\textcolor{red{Step 1: Understanding the Question

The question asks for an evaluation of the statement that guiding adolescents (age 10-19) is a challenging task for society. This requires explaining the various challenges adolescents face and how they make guidance difficult.


\textcolor{red{Step 2: Detailed Explanation

The statement is highly accurate. Adolescence is a period of intense physical, emotional, and psychological change, making this age group vulnerable and difficult to guide. The key challenges for society are:


Peer Pressure: Adolescents have a strong need to belong and are highly influenced by their friends. This can lead them towards negative behaviors like substance abuse, bullying, or risky activities, often against their better judgment or family values. Society finds it hard to counteract the powerful, immediate influence of the peer group.

Influence of Media and Technology: The constant exposure to social media, internet, and television presents adolescents with a barrage of often unrealistic and inappropriate content. This can lead to issues like poor body image, cyberbullying, addiction to gadgets, and exposure to adult content, making it difficult for parents and teachers to instill balanced values.

\titem Identity Crisis and Emotional Turmoil: Adolescence is a time of "storm and stress." Hormonal changes cause mood swings and emotional volatility. They are trying to figure out "who they are," which can lead to confusion, rebellion against authority, and communication gaps with elders, making them resistant to guidance.

Academic and Career Pressure: The immense pressure to perform well in exams and choose a successful career path creates significant stress and anxiety. This can lead to mental health issues and a focus on competition rather than on developing as a well-rounded individual.

Lack of Guidance and Support Systems: With the rise of nuclear families and working parents, many adolescents lack consistent adult supervision and emotional support at home. Schools often lack adequate counseling services to help them navigate their challenges.



\textcolor{red{ Step 3: Final Answer

In conclusion, society faces significant challenges in guiding adolescents due to a combination of powerful external influences (peers, media), internal turmoil (hormonal changes, identity crisis), and weakening traditional support systems (family, community). Effectively channeling their energy requires a concerted effort from parents, schools, and policymakers to create a supportive, understanding, and structured environment that addresses their unique physical, emotional, and social needs.
Quick Tip: Adolescents face challenges like peer pressure, media influence, academic stress, hormonal changes, and lifestyle issues. Society must provide guidance through family support, school counseling, positive peer influence, and community programs to channel them in the right direction.


Question 28 (a):

"The earliest human beings depended on their immediate environment for their sustenance." Examine the statement with reference to hunting and gathering.

Correct Answer:
View Solution




\textcolor{red{Step 1: Understanding the Question

The question asks to examine the validity of the statement that early humans relied entirely on their local environment for survival, using the examples of hunting and gathering.


\textcolor{red{Step 2: Detailed Explanation

The statement is entirely correct. Hunter-gatherer societies, the earliest form of human society, had an intimate and total dependence on their immediate natural surroundings. This dependence is evident in all aspects of their lives:


Food (Sustenance): Their diet was sourced directly from the local ecosystem.

Gathering: They collected edible plants, fruits, nuts, berries, and roots that grew wild in their vicinity. This required deep knowledge of local flora and their seasonal availability.

Hunting: They hunted animals found in their local territory, using traps, and primitive weapons. They also engaged in fishing in nearby rivers and lakes. Their movement was often dictated by the seasonal migration of animal herds.


Shelter: They used whatever materials the environment provided for shelter. This included living in natural caves and rock shelters or constructing temporary huts using branches, leaves, and animal skins.

Clothing: Their clothing was made from the resources available, primarily animal hides and skins to protect them from the elements.

Tools: All their tools were crafted from materials found locally. Stones like flint were chipped to make axes and scrapers; wood was used for spears and digging sticks; and animal bones and horns were fashioned into needles and other small tools.


This complete dependence meant that early humans lived a nomadic lifestyle, moving from place to place as local resources were depleted or as seasons changed, always in search of food and water within their environment.


\textcolor{red{ Step 3: Final Answer

The statement is strongly supported by the evidence from hunter-gatherer societies. Their survival was a direct function of their ability to extract resources—food, shelter, clothing, and tools—from their immediate physical environment. They did not practice agriculture or trade, making them completely reliant on what nature provided locally.
Quick Tip: Hunter-gatherers depended completely on immediate environment for food (wild animals, plants), shelter (caves, temporary structures), clothing (animal skins), and tools (stone, bone, wood). They had deep environmental knowledge and lived nomadic lives following resources.


Question 28 (b):

"Commercial livestock rearing is well organised and capital intensive." Examine the statement with comparison to nomadic herding.

Correct Answer:
View Solution




\textcolor{red{Step 1: Understanding the Question

The question asks to evaluate the statement that commercial livestock rearing is organized and requires high capital, and to do so by contrasting it with the practice of nomadic herding.


\textcolor{red{Step 2: Detailed Explanation

The statement is accurate. Commercial livestock rearing and nomadic herding represent two opposite ends of the spectrum in animal husbandry.


Commercial Livestock Rearing: Well-Organised and Capital-Intensive


Well-Organised: It is a scientific, systematic, and commercial venture.

Animals are kept in permanent, large farms or ranches with well-defined boundaries.

There is a focus on a single type of animal (e.g., cattle for beef, sheep for wool) and specialization in products.

Breeding is scientifically controlled to produce high-yield breeds. Animal health is monitored by veterinarians.

Rearing is linked to processing industries and organized markets for export.


Capital-Intensive: It requires a large investment of money.

Huge expenditure on purchasing or leasing vast tracts of land.

Investment in infrastructure like fences, sheds, water pipelines, and machinery.

High recurring costs for scientifically produced fodder and veterinary services.




Comparison with Nomadic Herding


Organisation: Nomadic herding is a traditional, subsistence-oriented activity. Herders do not have permanent ranches; they move with their animals over large areas in search of natural pasture and water. Their routes are based on traditional knowledge, not scientific plans.

Capital: It is not capital-intensive. Herders rely on natural resources, own few permanent assets, and have minimal expenditure on infrastructure or scientific inputs. Their wealth is in their animals, not in land or equipment.

Animals and Products: They rear multiple types of animals (sheep, goats, camels) to meet a variety of needs (food, clothing, transport). Production is primarily for the family's own consumption, with only surplus products being sold.



\textcolor{red{ Step 3: Final Answer

In conclusion, the statement is valid. Commercial livestock rearing is a highly organized, scientific, and market-oriented system that requires significant capital investment in land and technology. This stands in stark contrast to nomadic herding, which is a traditional, mobile, low-investment, subsistence lifestyle dependent on natural resources and family labour.
Quick Tip: Commercial livestock rearing is well-organized (scientific management, specialization, infrastructure) and capital intensive (land, equipment, breeding stock, technology). In contrast, nomadic herding is traditional, low-investment, mobile, and based on communal land use.


Question 29:

On the given political map of the world, seven geographical features have been marked as A, B, C, D, E, F and G. Identify any five with the help of the following information and write their correct names:

A. A major sea-port

B. A major air-port

C. A major shipping canal

D. A major area of 'subsistence gathering'

E. A major area of 'nomadic herding'

F. A major area of 'commercial livestock rearing'

G. A major area of 'extensive commercial grain farming'

Correct Answer:
View Solution




\textcolor{red{Step 1: Understanding the Question

This question requires identifying specific geographical locations on a world map based on descriptive clues. Students must locate the marked points (A-G) and name them correctly. (Note: Since the map is not provided, a list of probable correct answers based on typical map questions is given below).


\textcolor{red{Step 2: Detailed Explanation


A. A major sea-port: Depending on the location marked, this could be Rotterdam (Europe's busiest port), Singapore (major Asian hub), or New York (major North American port).

B. A major air-port: Common examples on world maps include London Heathrow, Dubai International, or Atlanta Hartsfield-Jackson.

C. A major shipping canal: There are two primary man-made canals of global importance. If marked between Africa and Asia, it is the Suez Canal. If marked in Central America, it is the Panama Canal.

D. A major area of 'subsistence gathering': This activity is practiced in tropical rainforests. The marked area would likely be the Amazon Basin (South America) or the Congo Basin (Africa).

E. A major area of 'nomadic herding': This is practiced in arid and semi-arid regions. The marked area could be Mongolia (Central Asia), the Sahara Desert (North Africa), or the Arabian Peninsula.

F. A major area of 'commercial livestock rearing': This is practiced in temperate grasslands. The marked area would likely be the Pampas of Argentina, the Great Plains of the USA, or the grasslands of Australia.

G. A major area of 'extensive commercial grain farming': This activity is also located in temperate grasslands. Common examples are the Prairies of North America (USA/Canada), the Steppes of Eurasia (Ukraine/Russia), or the Downs in Australia.



\textcolor{red{ Step 3: Final Answer

The final answer would consist of correctly naming any five of the marked locations on the actual map provided in the exam.
Quick Tip: Remember key examples: Ports (Rotterdam), Airports (Heathrow), Canals (Suez), Subsistence gathering (Amazon), Nomadic herding (Mongolia), Commercial livestock (Great Plains), Commercial grain (Prairies).


Question 30:

On the given political outline map of India, locate and label any five of the following seven geographical features with appropriate symbols:

30.1 The state leading in the production of sugarcane.

30.2 An oil refinery located in Bihar.

30.3 Important coal mines located in West Bengal.

30.4 Important iron ore mines located in Coastal Maharashtra.

30.5 Important manganese mines located in Madhya Pradesh.

30.6 A major sea-port located in Odisha.

30.7 An important international airport in Telangana.

Correct Answer:
View Solution




\textcolor{red{Step 1: Understanding the Question

This question requires students to identify and accurately mark five out of seven specified geographical features on an outline map of India.


\textcolor{red{Step 2: Identification and Location


30.1 The state leading in the production of sugarcane: This is Uttar Pradesh. Students should shade or label the entire state of Uttar Pradesh.

30.2 An oil refinery located in Bihar: The major oil refinery in Bihar is at Barauni. This should be marked as a point in the Begusarai district of Bihar.

30.3 Important coal mines located in West Bengal: The largest coalfield is Raniganj. This area should be marked in the Paschim Bardhaman district of West Bengal, near the border with Jharkhand.

30.4 Important iron ore mines located in Coastal Maharashtra: The key iron ore mining region is in the Ratnagiri-Sindhudurg belt. A point should be marked in the southern coastal part of Maharashtra.

30.5 Important manganese mines located in Madhya Pradesh: The most important manganese mine in MP (and India) is at Balaghat. This should be marked as a point in the southeastern part of Madhya Pradesh.

30.6 A major sea-port located in Odisha: The main sea-port in Odisha is Paradip. This should be marked on the coast of Odisha, in the delta region of the Mahanadi river.

30.7 An important international airport in Telangana: The international airport is the Rajiv Gandhi International Airport, located in Hyderabad. This should be marked at the location of Hyderabad, the capital of Telangana.



\textcolor{red{ Step 3: Final Answer

The student needs to correctly locate and label any five of these features on the map provided in the examination.
Quick Tip: Map locations: Uttar Pradesh (sugarcane), Barauni (Bihar refinery), Raniganj (WB coal), Ratnagiri (Maharashtra iron ore), Balaghat (MP manganese), Paradip (Odisha port), Hyderabad (Telangana airport).

CBSE Class 12 Preparation Tips | Must Watch Before Exam

*The article might have information for the previous academic years, please refer the official website of the exam.

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