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Dipanwita Pramanik

Content Writer | Updated On - Sep 20, 2025

The CBSE Class 12th Board Physics examination for the year 2025 was conducted on February 21, 2025. An estimated 17.88 lakh students are appearing from 7,842 centers in India and 26 other countries.

The exam carries a total of 70 marks for the theory paper, while 30 marks are assigned to internal assessment. The question paper includes multiple-choice questions (1 mark each), short-answer questions (2-3 marks each), and long-answer questions (5 marks each).

CBSE Class 12 Physics question paper and solution PDF is available for download here.

CBSE Class 12 Physics (Set 3 - 55/1/3) Question Paper 2025 with Solutions

CBSE Board Class 12 Physics Question Paper 2025 download iconDownload PDF Check Solutions
CBSE Class 12 Physics Question Paper 2025 Set 3 - 55-1-3


Question 1:

A charge \( Q \) is fixed in position. Another charge \( q \) is brought near charge \( Q \) and released from rest. Which of the following graphs is the correct representation of the acceleration of the charge \( q \) as a function of its distance \( r \) from charge \( Q \)?



Correct Answer:
View Solution

The force acting between two charges can be calculated using Coulomb's Law, which is expressed as: \[ F = \frac{k \cdot Q \cdot q}{r^2} \]
Here, \( k \) is Coulomb's constant, \( Q \) and \( q \) are the magnitudes of the two charges, and \( r \) is the distance between them. The resulting force \( F \) is responsible for producing an acceleration \( a \) on charge \( q \), which can be determined using Newton's second law, \( a = \frac{F}{m} \), where \( m \) is the mass of the charge \( q \). Substituting the expression for \( F \) into this equation gives: \[ a = \frac{k \cdot Q \cdot q}{m \cdot r^2} \]
This shows that the acceleration of the charge \( q \) is inversely proportional to the square of the distance \( r \). As a result, the acceleration of \( q \) decreases as the distance \( r \) increases, which is characteristic of an inverse square law, and this corresponds to option (1). Quick Tip: For Coulomb's law, keep in mind that the force between two charges is inversely proportional to the square of the distance separating them.


Question 2:

Two conductors A and B of the same material have their lengths in the ratio 1:2 and radii in the ratio 2:3. If they are connected in parallel across a battery, the ratio \( \frac{v_A}{v_B} \) of the drift velocities of electrons in them will be:

  • (1) 2
  • (2) \( \frac{1}{2} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{3}{2} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{8}{9} \)
Correct Answer: (3) \( \frac{3}{2} \)
View Solution

The drift velocity \( v \) in a conductor is influenced by several factors. It is inversely proportional to the area of cross-section of the conductor, meaning that a smaller cross-sectional area results in a higher drift velocity. Additionally, drift velocity is directly proportional to the electric current and the length of the conductor.

Since the two conductors are arranged in parallel, they experience the same voltage across them. To determine the ratio of the drift velocities \( \frac{v_A}{v_B} \), we use the relationship between drift velocity and the area of cross-section. The drift velocity \( v \) is inversely proportional to the area, and since the current is the same for both conductors, the ratio of drift velocities will be related to the ratio of the square of their radii (since area \( A = \pi r^2 \)). Therefore, the ratio of drift velocities is given by: \[ \frac{v_A}{v_B} = \frac{r_B^2}{r_A^2}. \]
Given that the radii of the two conductors are \( r_A = 2 \) and \( r_B = 3 \), we can substitute these values into the equation: \[ \frac{v_A}{v_B} = \frac{3^2}{2^2} = \frac{9}{4}. \]
Thus, the ratio of drift velocities is \( \frac{v_A}{v_B} = \frac{3}{2} \), which corresponds to option (3). Quick Tip: Drift velocity is influenced by both the current and the cross-sectional area of the conductor. A smaller cross-sectional area leads to a larger drift velocity.


Question 3:

A 1 cm segment of a wire lying along the x-axis carries a current of 0.5 A along the \( +x \)-direction. A magnetic field \( \mathbf{B} = (0.4 \, mT) \hat{j} + (0.6 \, mT) \hat{k} \) is switched on in the region. The force acting on the segment is:

  • (1) \( (2\hat{j} + 3\hat{k}) \, mN \)
  • (2) \( (-3\hat{j} + 2\hat{k}) \, \muN \)
  • (3) \( (6\hat{j} + 4\hat{k}) \, mN \)
  • (4) \( (-4\hat{j} + 6\hat{k}) \, \muN \)
Correct Answer: (2) \( (-3\hat{j} + 2\hat{k}) \, \mu\text{N} \)
View Solution

To find the force acting on the segment of the wire, we can apply the Lorentz force law for a current-carrying wire placed in a magnetic field:
\[ \mathbf{F} = I \mathbf{L} \times \mathbf{B} \]

where:
\( I = 0.5 \, A \) is the current,


\( \mathbf{L} = 1 \, cm \, \hat{i} = 0.01 \, m \, \hat{i} \) is the length vector of the wire segment,

\( \mathbf{B} = (0.4 \, mT) \hat{j} + (0.6 \, mT) \hat{k} = (0.4 \times 10^{-3} \, T) \hat{j} + (0.6 \times 10^{-3} \, T) \hat{k} \) is the magnetic field.


Now, we compute the cross product \( \mathbf{L} \times \mathbf{B} \):
\[ \mathbf{L} \times \mathbf{B} = \begin{vmatrix} \hat{i} & \hat{j} & \hat{k}
0.01 & 0 & 0
0 & 0.4 \times 10^{-3} & 0.6 \times 10^{-3} \end{vmatrix} \]

This determinant simplifies as follows:
\[ \mathbf{L} \times \mathbf{B} = \hat{i} \left( 0 \cdot 0.6 \times 10^{-3} - 0 \cdot 0.4 \times 10^{-3} \right) - \hat{j} \left( 0.01 \cdot 0.6 \times 10^{-3} - 0 \cdot 0 \right) + \hat{k} \left( 0.01 \cdot 0.4 \times 10^{-3} - 0 \cdot 0 \right) \]
\[ \mathbf{L} \times \mathbf{B} = -\hat{j} \left( 0.01 \cdot 0.6 \times 10^{-3} \right) + \hat{k} \left( 0.01 \cdot 0.4 \times 10^{-3} \right) \]
\[ \mathbf{L} \times \mathbf{B} = -\hat{j} \left( 6 \times 10^{-6} \right) + \hat{k} \left( 4 \times 10^{-6} \right) \]

Next, we multiply the cross product by the current \( I = 0.5 \, A \):
\[ \mathbf{F} = 0.5 \left( -\hat{j} \left( 6 \times 10^{-6} \right) + \hat{k} \left( 4 \times 10^{-6} \right) \right) \]
\[ \mathbf{F} = -3 \times 10^{-6} \, \hat{j} + 2 \times 10^{-6} \, \hat{k} \]

Finally, we express the force in micro-Newtons:
\[ \mathbf{F} = (-3\hat{j} + 2\hat{k}) \, \muN \]

Therefore, the correct answer is:
\[ \boxed{(2) \, (-3\hat{j} + 2\hat{k}) \, \muN} \] Quick Tip: To calculate the force on a current-carrying conductor in a magnetic field, use the equation \( \mathbf{F} = I (\mathbf{L} \times \mathbf{B}) \).


Question 4:

The ratio of the number of turns of the primary to the secondary coils in an ideal transformer is 20:1. If 240 V AC is applied from a source to the primary coil of the transformer and a 6.0 \( \Omega \) resistor is connected across the output terminals, then the current drawn by the transformer from the source will be:

  • (1) 4.0 A
  • (2) 3.8 A
  • (3) 0.97 A
  • (4) 0.10 A
Correct Answer: (4) 0.10 A
View Solution

For an ideal transformer, the relationship between the primary and secondary voltages is given by the following equation:
\[ \frac{V_p}{V_s} = \frac{N_p}{N_s} \]

where \( V_p \) and \( V_s \) are the primary and secondary voltages, and \( N_p \) and \( N_s \) represent the number of turns in the primary and secondary coils, respectively. Given that the turns ratio is 20:1, the secondary voltage can be calculated as:
\[ V_s = \frac{V_p}{20} = \frac{240 \, V}{20} = 12 \, V. \]

Next, the current in the secondary circuit is:
\[ I_s = \frac{V_s}{R} = \frac{12 \, V}{6.0 \, \Omega} = 2.0 \, A. \]

Using the turns ratio, we can calculate the primary current:
\[ I_p = \frac{I_s}{20} = \frac{2.0 \, A}{20} = 0.1 \, A. \]

Thus, the current drawn by the transformer from the source is \( 0.1 \, A \), which corresponds to option (4). Quick Tip: In transformers, the ratio of the primary voltage to the secondary voltage is the same as the ratio of the number of turns in the primary coil to the number of turns in the secondary coil.


Question 5:

You are required to design an air-filled solenoid of inductance 0.016 H having a length 0.81 m and radius 0.02 m. The number of turns in the solenoid should be:

  • (1) 2592
  • (2) 2866
  • (3) 2976
  • (4) 3140
Correct Answer: (3) 2976
View Solution

The inductance of a solenoid is given by the formula:
\[ L = \mu_0 \mu_r \frac{N^2 A}{l} \]

where:

\( L = 0.016 \, H \) (inductance),

\( \mu_0 = 4\pi \times 10^{-7} \, H/m \)
(permeability of free space),

\( \mu_r = 1 \) (for an air-filled solenoid),

\( A = \pi r^2 = \pi (0.02)^2 \, m^2 \) (cross-sectional area),

\( l = 0.81 \, m \) (length),

\( N \) is the number of turns.


To find the number of turns \( N \), we rearrange the formula:
\[ N = \sqrt{\frac{L l}{\mu_0 \mu_r A}} \]

Substituting the given values:
\[ N = \sqrt{\frac{(0.016) (0.81)}{(4\pi \times 10^{-7}) (1) (\pi (0.02)^2)}} \]

Upon solving this expression, we get:
\[ N \approx 2976 \]

Therefore, the correct answer is option (3). Quick Tip: For air-filled solenoids, remember that \( \mu_r = 1 \). Always ensure the units are consistent when applying formulas.


Question 6:

A voltage \( v = v_0 \sin \omega t \) applied to a circuit drives a current \( i = i_0 \sin (\omega t + \phi) \) in the circuit. The average power consumed in the circuit over a cycle is:

  • (1) Zero
  • (2) \( i_0 v_0 \cos \phi \)
  • (3) \( \frac{i_0 v_0}{2} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{i_0 v_0}{2} \cos \phi \)
Correct Answer: (4) \( \frac{i_0 v_0}{2} \cos \phi \)
View Solution

The average power consumed in an AC circuit is expressed by the formula:
\[ P_{avg} = V_{rms} I_{rms} \cos \phi \]

Here, the peak voltage and current are related to their respective rms values by:
\[ V_{rms} = \frac{v_0}{\sqrt{2}}, \quad I_{rms} = \frac{i_0}{\sqrt{2}} \]

Substituting these expressions into the power formula gives:
\[ P_{avg} = \left( \frac{v_0}{\sqrt{2}} \right) \left( \frac{i_0}{\sqrt{2}} \right) \cos \phi \]
\[ P_{avg} = \frac{i_0 v_0}{2} \cos \phi \]

Thus, the correct answer is option (2). Quick Tip: In AC circuits, the power factor \( \cos \phi \) plays a crucial role in determining the real power consumption, as it accounts for the phase difference between voltage and current.


Question 7:

X-rays are more harmful to human beings than ultraviolet radiations because X-rays:

  • (1) have frequency lower than that of ultraviolet radiations.
  • (2) have wavelength smaller than that of ultraviolet radiations.
  • (3) move faster than ultraviolet radiations in air.
  • (4) are mechanical waves but ultraviolet radiations are electromagnetic waves.
Correct Answer: (2) have wavelength smaller than that of ultraviolet radiations.
View Solution

X-rays and ultraviolet (UV) rays both belong to the electromagnetic spectrum, but X-rays have significantly shorter wavelengths and, therefore, higher energy compared to UV rays. The energy of a photon is given by the equation:
\[ E = h f = \frac{h c}{\lambda} \]

where:

\( E \) is the energy of the photon,

\( h \) is Planck’s constant,

\( f \) is the frequency,

\( c \) is the speed of light,

\( \lambda \) is the wavelength.


Since X-rays have a smaller wavelength (\(\lambda\)) than UV rays, they possess more energy per photon. This higher energy allows X-rays to penetrate more deeply into tissues, making them more harmful to living cells.

Thus, the correct answer is option (2). Quick Tip: X-rays are commonly used in medical imaging, but excessive exposure can damage tissues due to their high energy.


Question 8:

A point source is placed at the bottom of a tank containing a transparent liquid (refractive index \( n \)) to a depth H. The area of the surface of the liquid through which light from the source can emerge out is:

  • (A) \( \frac{\pi H^2}{(n-1)} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{\pi H^2}{(n^2-1)} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{\pi H^2}{\sqrt{n^2-1}} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{\pi H^2}{(n^2+1)} \)
Correct Answer: (B) \( \frac{\pi H^2}{(n^2-1)} \)
View Solution

When light from a point source emerges from a liquid surface, it forms a circle with radius \( r \) due to total internal reflection. The critical angle \( \theta_c \) for total internal reflection is given by the relation:
\[ \sin \theta_c = \frac{1}{n} \]

The radius \( r \) of the circle on the surface is then:
\[ r = H \tan \theta_c \]

Using the identity \( \tan \theta_c = \frac{\sin \theta_c}{\sqrt{1 - \sin^2 \theta_c}} \), we can express \( r \) as:
\[ r = H \cdot \frac{1}{\sqrt{n^2 - 1}} \]

The area \( A \) of the circle is:
\[ A = \pi r^2 = \pi \left( \frac{H}{\sqrt{n^2 - 1}} \right)^2 = \frac{\pi H^2}{n^2 - 1} \]

Thus, the correct answer is option (C). Quick Tip: Total internal reflection is a key principle in optical fibers, where light is kept confined within the core by repeatedly reflecting off the boundary.


Question 9:

In a photoelectric experiment with a material of work function 2.1 eV, the stopping potential is found to be 2.5 V. The maximum kinetic energy of ejected photoelectrons is:

  • (A) 0.4 eV
  • (B) 2.1 eV
  • (C) 2.5 eV
  • (D) 4.6 eV
Correct Answer: (C) 2.5 eV
View Solution

The maximum kinetic energy \( K_{max} \) of the ejected photoelectrons can be calculated using the formula:
\[ K_{max} = e V_s \]

where \( V_s \) is the stopping potential. Given that \( V_s = 2.5 \, V \), we have:
\[ K_{max} = 2.5 \, eV \]

Therefore, the correct answer is option (C). Quick Tip: The stopping potential is the minimum voltage needed to halt the most energetic photoelectrons and directly corresponds to their maximum kinetic energy.


Question 10:

When a p-n junction diode is forward biased:

  • (A) the barrier height and the depletion layer width both increase.
  • (B) the barrier height increases and the depletion layer width decreases.
  • (C) the barrier height and the depletion layer width both decrease.
  • (D) the barrier height decreases and the depletion layer width increases.
Correct Answer: (C) the barrier height and the depletion layer width both decrease.
View Solution

When a p-n junction diode is forward biased, the positive terminal of the power supply is connected to the p-type side (anode) and the negative terminal to the n-type side (cathode). This applied voltage opposes the built-in potential (also known as the barrier potential) across the junction. As a result, the barrier height decreases, and the width of the depletion region narrows.

The reduction in the depletion region allows the majority charge carriers (holes in the p-type and electrons in the n-type) to overcome the reduced potential barrier more easily and cross the junction. This movement of charge carriers leads to the flow of current through the diode.

Therefore, the correct answer is option (C). Quick Tip: Forward biasing a diode reduces the potential barrier to charge flow, making it easier for current to pass through the junction. This is the fundamental principle behind diode operation in electronic circuits.


Question 11:

Let \( \lambda_e \), \( \lambda_p \), and \( \lambda_d \) be the wavelengths associated with an electron, a proton, and a deuteron, all moving with the same speed. Then the correct relation between them is:

  • (1) \( \lambda_d > \lambda_p > \lambda_e \)
  • (2) \( \lambda_e > \lambda_p > \lambda_d \)
  • (3) \( \lambda_p > \lambda_e > \lambda_d \)
  • (4) \( \lambda_e = \lambda_p = \lambda_d \)
Correct Answer: (2) \( \lambda_e > \lambda_p > \lambda_d \)
View Solution

The de Broglie wavelength of a particle is given by the equation:
\[ \lambda = \frac{h}{m v} \]

where:

\( h \) is Planck’s constant,

\( m \) is the mass of the particle,

\( v \) is the velocity of the particle.


Since all three particles (electron, proton, and deuteron) have the same speed, the de Broglie wavelength is inversely proportional to their masses:
\[ \lambda \propto \frac{1}{m} \]

Now, let's consider the masses of the particles:

\( m_e \) (electron) has the smallest mass,

\( m_p \) (proton) has a larger mass,

\( m_d \) (deuteron) has the largest mass.


Therefore, their wavelengths follow the relationship:
\[ \lambda_e > \lambda_p > \lambda_d \]

Thus, the correct answer is option (2). Quick Tip: For particles moving at the same speed, the de Broglie wavelength is larger for lighter particles. Compare the masses to determine the correct order of wavelengths.


Question 12:

Which of the following figures correctly represents the shape of the curve of binding energy per nucleon as a function of mass number?



Correct Answer:
View Solution

The binding energy per nucleon (\(B.E./A\)) as a function of the mass number \( A \) exhibits a well-known trend:

It increases sharply for lighter nuclei.

It reaches its maximum value around \( A \approx 56 \) (for Iron-56, the most stable nucleus).

It then gradually decreases for heavier nuclei.


The correct representation is Figure (B), which shows the binding energy per nucleon rising and then leveling off around \( A = 56 \), in agreement with experimental data.

Therefore, the correct answer is option (2). Quick Tip: The peak in the binding energy curve at \( A = 56 \) (Iron-56) explains why both nuclear fission and fusion release energy: lighter elements fuse to form iron, and heavier elements split to reach iron.


Question 13:

Assertion (A): We cannot form a p-n junction diode by taking a slab of a p-type semiconductor and physically joining it to another slab of an n-type semiconductor.

Reason (R): In a p-type semiconductor \( \eta_e \gg \eta_h \) while in an n-type semiconductor \( \eta_h \gg \eta_e \).

  • (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  • (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  • (C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  • (D) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is also false.
Correct Answer: (C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
View Solution

A p-n junction diode is formed by physically joining a p-type semiconductor with an n-type semiconductor. However, the explanation given in the statement is incorrect. The ratio of electron and hole concentrations does not directly influence the formation of a p-n junction, as the junction can still form even when the carrier concentrations are different. Therefore, Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false. Quick Tip: A p-n junction in semiconductors is created by combining p-type and n-type materials, regardless of the relative concentrations of holes and electrons.


Question 14:

Assertion (A): The potential energy of an electron revolving in any stationary orbit in a hydrogen atom is positive.

Reason (R): The total energy of a charged particle is always positive.

  • (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  • (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  • (C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  • (D) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is also false.
Correct Answer: (D) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is also false.
View Solution

The potential energy of an electron in any stationary orbit within a hydrogen atom is negative, not positive. The total energy of the electron is also negative, as the electron is in a bound state within the atom. Therefore, both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are incorrect. Quick Tip: In atomic physics, the total energy of an electron in a hydrogen atom is negative because the electron is bound to the nucleus.


Question 15:

Assertion (A): It is difficult to move a magnet into a coil of large number of turns when the circuit of the coil is closed.

Reason (R): The direction of induced current in a coil with its circuit closed, due to motion of a magnet, is such that it opposes the cause.

  • (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  • (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  • (C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  • (D) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is also false.
Correct Answer: (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
View Solution

Lenz's Law states that the induced current in a coil will always oppose the motion of the magnet. As a result, the resistance encountered when attempting to move the magnet into the coil can be attributed to the opposing force created by the induced current. Therefore, both the Assertion and the Reason are true, with the Reason providing a correct explanation for the Assertion. Quick Tip: Lenz's Law indicates that the induced current's direction always opposes the change that causes it.


Question 16:

Assertion (A): The deflection in a galvanometer is directly proportional to the current passing through it.

Reason (R): The coil of a galvanometer is suspended in a uniform radial magnetic field.

  • (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  • (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  • (C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  • (D) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is also false.
Correct Answer: (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
View Solution

The deflection in a galvanometer is proportional to the current passing through it, according to the working principle of a moving coil galvanometer. However, the provided reason is not directly related to the deflection, as the deflection arises from the torque on the coil, which is dependent on the current. Therefore, both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) does not correctly explain Assertion (A). Quick Tip: In a moving coil galvanometer, the deflection is directly proportional to the current flowing through the coil.


Question 17:

\( n \) identical cells, each of e.m.f \( E \) and internal resistance \( r \), are connected in series. Later on, it was found that two cells ‘X’ and ‘Y’ are connected in reverse polarities. Calculate the potential difference across the cell ‘X’.

Correct Answer: \( 2E \)
View Solution

When \( n \) identical cells are connected in series, the total effective e.m.f. is:
\[ E_{total} = nE \]

If two cells are connected with reverse polarity, their individual e.m.f.s will subtract from the total e.m.f., resulting in:
\[ E'_{total} = (n-2)E \]

The potential difference across a single reversed cell, labeled as 'X', is equal to the sum of the e.m.f.s of the reversed cells, which is:
\[ V_X = 2E \]

Therefore, the potential difference across cell 'X' is \( 2E \). Quick Tip: When a battery cell is reversed in a series circuit, its e.m.f. works in opposition to the total e.m.f. of the circuit, reducing the overall voltage.


Question 18(a):

In a diffraction experiment, the slit is illuminated by light of wavelength 600 nm. The first minimum of the pattern falls at \( \theta = 30^\circ \). Calculate the width of the slit.

Correct Answer: \( d = 1.2 \times 10^{-6} \) m
View Solution

The condition for the first minimum in a single-slit diffraction pattern is expressed by the equation:
\[ a \sin \theta = m\lambda \]

For the first minimum, \( m = 1 \), so the equation becomes:
\[ a \sin 30^\circ = (1)(600 \times 10^{-9} \, m) \]

Since \( \sin 30^\circ = 0.5 \), this simplifies to:
\[ a \times 0.5 = 600 \times 10^{-9} \]

Solving for \( a \), we get:
\[ a = \frac{600 \times 10^{-9}}{0.5} = 1.2 \times 10^{-6} \, m \]

Thus, the width of the slit is \( 1.2 \times 10^{-6} \, m \). Quick Tip: To calculate the width of a slit in a diffraction pattern, use the formula \( a \sin \theta = m \lambda \), where the wavelength and diffraction angle are known.


Question 18:

(b) In a Young’s double-slit experiment, two light waves, each of intensity \( I_0 \), interfere at a point, having a path difference \( \frac{\lambda}{8} \) on the screen. Find the intensity at this point.

Correct Answer: \( I = I_0 \left( 1 + \cos \frac{\pi}{4} \right) \)
View Solution

The total intensity in an interference pattern is given by the formula:
\[ I = I_1 + I_2 + 2 \sqrt{I_1 I_2} \cos \delta \]

Since \( I_1 = I_2 = I_0 \), this simplifies to:
\[ I = 2 I_0 (1 + \cos \delta) \]

The phase difference \( \delta \) is related to the path difference by the equation:
\[ \delta = \frac{2\pi}{\lambda} \times \frac{\lambda}{8} = \frac{\pi}{4} \]

Substituting this value of \( \delta \) into the intensity formula gives:
\[ I = 2 I_0 \left(1 + \cos \frac{\pi}{4} \right) \]

Since \( \cos \frac{\pi}{4} = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \), we obtain:
\[ I = I_0 \left( 1 + \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \right) \]

Thus, the intensity at this point is \( I_0 \left( 1 + \cos \frac{\pi}{4} \right) \). Quick Tip: In Young's double-slit experiment, the phase difference \( \delta \) is related to the path difference by \( \delta = \frac{2\pi}{\lambda} \times path difference \).


Question 19:

A double convex lens of glass has both faces of the same radius of curvature 17 cm. Find its focal length if it is immersed in water. The refractive indices of glass and water are 1.5 and 1.33 respectively.

Correct Answer:
View Solution

The focal length \( f \) of a lens in a given medium can be determined using the lens maker's formula:
\[ \frac{1}{f} = (n_{lens} - n_{medium}) \left( \frac{1}{R_1} - \frac{1}{R_2} \right) \]

For a double convex lens, we have \( R_1 = 17 \, cm \) and \( R_2 = -17 \, cm \). The refractive index of the lens material (glass) is \( n_{lens} = 1.5 \), and the refractive index of the surrounding medium (water) is \( n_{medium} = 1.33 \). Substituting these values into the formula:
\[ \frac{1}{f} = (1.5 - 1.33) \left( \frac{1}{17} - \frac{1}{-17} \right) \]
\[ \frac{1}{f} = 0.17 \left( \frac{2}{17} \right) = 0.17 \times \frac{2}{17} = 0.02 \, cm^{-1} \]

Thus, the focal length is:
\[ f = \frac{1}{0.02} = 50 \, cm \]

Therefore, the focal length of the lens when submerged in water is \( 50 \, cm \). Quick Tip: The focal length of a lens changes when it is placed in a medium other than air, due to the variation in the relative refractive index.


Question 20:

An electron in Bohr model of hydrogen atom makes a transition from energy level \(-1.51 \, eV\) to \(-3.40 \, eV\). Calculate the change in the radius of its orbit. The radius of orbit of electron in its ground state is \(0.53 \, \AA\).

Correct Answer:
View Solution

The radius \( r_n \) of the electron's orbit in the Bohr model is given by: \[ r_n = r_1 n^2 \]
where \( r_1 = 0.53 \, \AA \) is the radius of the ground state orbit, and \( n \) is the principal quantum number.

The energy levels are given by: \[ E_n = -\frac{13.6 \, eV}{n^2} \]
For \( E_n = -1.51 \, eV \): \[ -1.51 = -\frac{13.6}{n_1^2} \implies n_1^2 = \frac{13.6}{1.51} \implies n_1 = 3 \]
For \( E_n = -3.40 \, eV \): \[ -3.40 = -\frac{13.6}{n_2^2} \implies n_2^2 = \frac{13.6}{3.40} \implies n_2 = 2 \]
The radii of the orbits are: \[ r_{n_1} = r_1 n_1^2 = 0.53 \times 9 = 4.77 \, \AA \] \[ r_{n_2} = r_1 n_2^2 = 0.53 \times 4 = 2.12 \, \AA \]
The change in radius is: \[ \Delta r = r_{n_1} - r_{n_2} = 4.77 - 2.12 = 2.65 \, \AA \]
Thus, the change in the radius of the orbit is \( 2.65 \, \AA \). Quick Tip: In the Bohr model, the radius of the electron's orbit is proportional to the square of the principal quantum number \( n \).


Question 21:

A p-type Si semiconductor is made by doping an average of one dopant atom per \(5 \times 10^7\) silicon atoms. If the number density of silicon atoms in the specimen is \(5 \times 10^{28}\) atoms m\(^{-3}\), find the number of holes created per cubic centimetre in the specimen due to doping. Also give one example of such dopants.

Correct Answer:
View Solution

The number density of silicon atoms is \( 5 \times 10^{28} \, atoms/m^3 \), and the doping ratio is 1 dopant atom for every \( 5 \times 10^7 \) silicon atoms. Therefore, the dopant atom density per cubic metre is calculated as:
\[ Dopant density = \frac{5 \times 10^{28}}{5 \times 10^7} = 10^{21} \, atoms/m^3 \]

Since each dopant atom introduces one hole, the number of holes per cubic metre is \( 10^{21} \). To convert this value to per cubic centimetre:
\[ Holes per cm^3 = 10^{21} \times 10^{-6} = 10^{15} \, holes/cm^3 \]

An example of such a dopant is Boron (B), a trivalent impurity that creates p-type semiconductors. Quick Tip: Doping with trivalent impurities like Boron introduces holes in the semiconductor, resulting in p-type conductivity.


Question 22:

(a) Two batteries of emf's 3V \& 6V and internal resistances 0.2 \( \ohm \) \& 0.4 \( \ohm \) are connected in parallel. This combination is connected to a 4 \( \ohm \)resistor. Find:

(i) the equivalent emf of the combination

(ii) the equivalent internal resistance of the combination

(iii) the current drawn from the combination

Correct Answer: (i) Equivalent emf = \( 4 \, \text{V} \)
(ii) Equivalent internal resistance = \( 0.133 \, \Omega \)
(iii) Current drawn = \( 0.968 \, \text{A} \)
View Solution

For two batteries connected in parallel, the equivalent emf \( E_{eq} \) and the equivalent internal resistance \( r_{eq} \) are calculated as follows:
\[ E_{eq} = \frac{E_1 r_2 + E_2 r_1}{r_1 + r_2} \] \[ r_{eq} = \frac{r_1 r_2}{r_1 + r_2} \]

Given:

\( E_1 = 3 \, V \), \( r_1 = 0.2 \, \Omega \)

\( E_2 = 6 \, V \), \( r_2 = 0.4 \, \Omega \)


(i) To calculate the equivalent emf: \[ E_{eq} = \frac{(3 \times 0.4) + (6 \times 0.2)}{0.2 + 0.4} = \frac{1.2 + 1.2}{0.6} = \frac{2.4}{0.6} = 4 \, V \]

(ii) To calculate the equivalent internal resistance: \[ r_{eq} = \frac{0.2 \times 0.4}{0.2 + 0.4} = \frac{0.08}{0.6} = 0.133 \, \Omega \]

(iii) To find the current drawn from the combination:
The total resistance of the circuit is: \[ R_{total} = r_{eq} + R = 0.133 + 4 = 4.133 \, \Omega \]
Now, using Ohm's law, the current \( I \) is: \[ I = \frac{E_{eq}}{R_{total}} = \frac{4}{4.133} = 0.968 \, A \] Quick Tip: When batteries are connected in parallel, the equivalent emf is a weighted average of the individual emfs, and the equivalent internal resistance is always lower than the smallest individual internal resistance.


Question 22(b):

(i) A conductor of length \( l \) is connected across an ideal cell of emf E. Keeping the cell connected, the length of the conductor is increased to \( 2l \) by gradually stretching it. If R and \( R' \) are initial and final values of resistance and \( v_d \) and \( v_d' \) are initial and final values of drift velocity, find the relation between:

(i) \( R' \) and \( R \)

(ii) \( v_d' \) and \( v_d \)

(ii) When electrons drift in a conductor from lower to higher potential, does it mean that all the ‘free electrons’ of the conductor are moving in the same direction?

Correct Answer: (i) \( R' = 4R \)
(ii) \( v_d' = 2v_d \)
(iii) No, not all free electrons move in the same direction.
View Solution

(i) Relation between \( R' \) and \( R \):
Resistance \( R \) of a conductor is given by: \[ R = \rho \frac{l}{A} \]
When the length is increased to \( 2l \), the cross-sectional area \( A \) decreases to \( \frac{A}{2} \) (assuming volume remains constant). Thus: \[ R' = \rho \frac{2l}{A/2} = 4 \rho \frac{l}{A} = 4R \]
So, \( R' = 4R \).

(ii) Relation between \( v_d' \) and \( v_d \):
Drift velocity \( v_d \) is given by: \[ v_d = \frac{I}{n e A} \]
When the length is doubled, the current \( I \) remains the same (since the cell is ideal), but the cross-sectional area \( A \) is halved. Thus: \[ v_d' = \frac{I}{n e (A/2)} = 2 \frac{I}{n e A} = 2v_d \]
So, \( v_d' = 2v_d \).

(ii) Direction of free electrons:
No, not all free electrons move in the same direction. Electrons move randomly due to thermal motion, but there is a net drift in the direction opposite to the electric field (from lower to higher potential). Quick Tip: When a conductor is stretched, its resistance increases due to the increase in length and decrease in cross-sectional area, while the drift velocity increases due to the reduced cross-sectional area.


Question 23:

A particle of charge \( q \) is moving with a velocity \( \vec{v} \) at a distance \( d \) from a long straight wire carrying a current \( I \) as shown in the figure. At this instant, it is subjected to a uniform electric field \( \vec{E} \) such that the particle keeps moving undeviated. In terms of unit vectors \( \hat{i}, \hat{j}, \) and \( \hat{k} \), find:


(a) the magnetic field \( \vec{B} \),

(b) the magnetic force \( \vec{F}_m \), and

(c) the electric field \( \vec{E} \) acting on the charge.


Correct Answer:
View Solution

(a) Magnetic Field \( \vec{B} \)
The magnetic field around a long straight current-carrying wire is described by Ampère’s law:
\[ B = \frac{\mu_0 I}{2\pi d} \]

According to the right-hand rule, the magnetic field direction at a distance \( d \) above the wire is along the positive \( \hat{k} \)-direction (out of the plane). Therefore, the magnetic field vector is:
\[ \vec{B} = \frac{\mu_0 I}{2\pi d} \hat{k} \]

(b) Magnetic Force \( \vec{F}_m \)
The force on a charged particle moving in a magnetic field is given by:
\[ \vec{F}_m = q (\vec{v} \times \vec{B}) \]

Given the following:
- \( \vec{v} = v \hat{i} \) (velocity along the \( x \)-axis),
- \( \vec{B} = B \hat{k} \) (magnetic field along the \( z \)-axis),

Using the cross product:
\[ \vec{v} \times \vec{B} = (v \hat{i}) \times (B \hat{k}) \]

From the vector identity \( \hat{i} \times \hat{k} = -\hat{j} \), we obtain:
\[ \vec{F}_m = q v B (-\hat{j}) \]

Thus, the magnetic force on the particle is:
\[ \vec{F}_m = -q v B \hat{j} \]

(c) Electric Field \( \vec{E} \)
Since the particle moves without deviation, the net force acting on it must be zero. This implies that the electric force \( \vec{F}_e = q \vec{E} \) must exactly cancel out the magnetic force. Therefore, we have:
\[ q \vec{E} = -\vec{F}_m \]

Substituting \( \vec{F}_m = -q v B \hat{j} \):
\[ q \vec{E} = q v B \hat{j} \]

Dividing both sides by \( q \):
\[ \vec{E} = v B \hat{j} \]

Thus, the required electric field is:
\[ \vec{E} = v B \hat{j} \] Quick Tip: To determine the direction of the magnetic field around a current-carrying wire, use the right-hand rule: Point your thumb in the direction of the current, and your fingers curl in the direction of the magnetic field \( \vec{B} \).


Question 24:

An ac source of voltage \( v = v_m \sin \omega t \) is connected to a series combination of LCR circuit. Draw the phasor diagram. Using it, obtain an expression for the impedance of the circuit and the phase difference between applied voltage and the current.

Correct Answer:
View Solution

The impedance of the LCR circuit is given by: \[ Z = \sqrt{R^2 + \left( \omega L - \frac{1}{\omega C} \right)^2} \]
where \( R \) is the resistance, \( L \) is the inductance, and \( C \) is the capacitance. The phase difference \( \phi \) between the applied voltage and the current is given by: \[ \tan \phi = \frac{\omega L - \frac{1}{\omega C}}{R} \]
The current lags the voltage by the phase angle \( \phi \), which can be visualized in the phasor diagram.




Quick Tip: The phase difference between the voltage and current in an LCR circuit depends on the relative magnitudes of the inductive reactance (\( \omega L \)) and capacitive reactance (\( \frac{1}{\omega C} \)).


Question 25(a):

A parallel plate capacitor is charged by an ac source. Show that the sum of conduction current (\( I_c \)) and the displacement current (\( I_d \)) has the same value at all points of the circuit.

Correct Answer:
View Solution

In an AC circuit with a parallel plate capacitor, the conduction current \( I_c \) refers to the current flowing through the resistor or conductive path, while the displacement current \( I_d \) is generated due to the changing electric field between the plates of the capacitor. The displacement current is given by the equation:
\[ I_d = \epsilon_0 A \frac{dE}{dt} \]

where \( A \) is the area of the capacitor plates, and \( \frac{dE}{dt} \) is the rate of change of the electric field. In a steady AC circuit, the conduction current and the displacement current are equal, ensuring that the total current remains continuous throughout the circuit. Quick Tip: In AC circuits, the displacement current is equal to the conduction current, which ensures that Kirchhoff’s current law still holds in circuits with capacitors.


Question 25:

(b) In case (a) above, is Kirchhoff's first rule (junction rule) valid at each plate of the capacitor? Explain.

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Yes, Kirchhoff’s first rule (the junction rule) holds true at each plate of the capacitor. The junction rule states that the total current entering a junction must be equal to the total current leaving it. In the case of a capacitor, both the conduction current and the displacement current contribute to the overall current at the plates. The displacement current ensures the continuity of current flow in the capacitor, allowing Kirchhoff's current law to remain valid even at the capacitor plates. Quick Tip: Kirchhoff’s current law applies to circuits with capacitors as well, with the displacement current maintaining the continuity of charge flow.


Question 26(a):

Mention any three features of results of experiment on photoelectric effect which cannot be explained using the wave theory of light.

Correct Answer:
View Solution

The four features of the photoelectric effect that cannot be explained using the wave theory of light are:


1. The photoelectric effect occurs instantaneously when light of a frequency higher than the threshold frequency strikes the metal surface. The wave theory suggests that there should be a delay in the emission of electrons.

2. The kinetic energy of the emitted electrons depends on the frequency of the incident light, not its intensity.
According to wave theory, the energy should depend on the intensity of the light.

3. The photoelectric effect cannot take place below a certain threshold frequency, regardless of the light intensity. Wave theory predicts there should be no threshold, with intensity controlling the emission instead.
Quick Tip: Einstein’s explanation of the photoelectric effect is based on the particle theory of light, where light is considered as quanta (photons).


Question 26:

(b) In his experiment on photoelectric effect, Robert A. Millikan found the slope of the cut-off voltage versus frequency of incident light plot to be \( 4.12 \times 10^{-15} \, Vs \). Calculate the value of Planck’s constant from it.

Correct Answer:
View Solution

The relationship between the cut-off voltage \( V_{cut} \) and the frequency of light is given by:
\[ eV_{cut} = h f - \phi \]

where:

\( e \) is the electron charge,

\( V_{cut} \) is the cut-off voltage,

\( h \) is Planck's constant,

\( f \) is the frequency of the incident light, and

\( \phi \) is the work function of the metal.


The slope of the graph of \( V_{cut} \) versus frequency \( f \) is given by:
\[ Slope = \frac{h}{e} \]

Given that the slope is \( 4.12 \times 10^{-15} \, Vs \), we can calculate Planck's constant \( h \) using the formula:
\[ h = Slope \times e \]

Substituting the value of \( e = 1.6 \times 10^{-19} \, C \):
\[ h = (4.12 \times 10^{-15} \, Vs) \times (1.6 \times 10^{-19} \, C) = 6.592 \times 10^{-34} \, J·s \] Quick Tip: The slope of the plot of cut-off voltage versus frequency provides a direct method for calculating Planck’s constant using the equation \( eV_{cut} = h f - \phi \).


Question 27(a):

Draw circuit arrangement for studying V-I characteristics of a p-n junction diode.

Correct Answer:
View Solution

The circuit setup for studying the V-I characteristics of a p-n junction diode includes the following components:


1. A DC power supply to provide a variable voltage.

2. A p-n junction diode connected in series with a resistor.

3. A voltmeter to measure the voltage across the diode.

4. An ammeter to measure the current flowing through the diode.


The power supply is adjusted to apply both forward and reverse voltages to the diode. Current measurements are taken for various voltage values to plot the V-I characteristics. Quick Tip: In a standard V-I characteristic experiment, both forward and reverse biases are applied to observe the current's behavior across the p-n junction.


Question 27(b):

Show the shape of the characteristics of a diode.

Correct Answer:
View Solution

The V-I characteristics of a diode exhibit the following behavior:


1. In the forward bias region, when the applied voltage exceeds the threshold (usually around 0.7 V for silicon), the current increases exponentially as the voltage rises.

2. In the reverse bias region, the current remains extremely small (ideally zero) until the reverse breakdown voltage is reached.


The resulting graph shows an exponential increase in current in the forward bias region and a nearly flat response in the reverse bias region (until breakdown occurs). Quick Tip: The diode's V-I characteristic curve illustrates rectification: it permits current flow easily in the forward direction and blocks it in the reverse direction.


Question 27(c):

Mention two information that you can get from these characteristics.

Correct Answer:
View Solution

From the V-I characteristics of a diode, the following information can be determined:


1. The threshold voltage (or cut-off voltage), which is the minimum voltage needed for the diode to start conducting in the forward direction.

2. The reverse breakdown voltage, which is the voltage at which the diode begins to conduct in the reverse direction, potentially leading to damage.
Quick Tip: The threshold voltage is essential for understanding when a diode begins to conduct in the forward direction, while the reverse breakdown voltage indicates the diode’s tolerance to reverse bias.


Question 28(a):

Define ‘Mass defect’ and ‘Binding energy’ of a nucleus. Describe ‘Fission process’ on the basis of binding energy per nucleon.

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Mass Defect:

The mass defect (\( \Delta m \)) is the difference between the total mass of the individual nucleons (protons and neutrons) in a nucleus and the actual measured mass of the nucleus. It is calculated as:
\[ \Delta m = Z m_p + (A - Z) m_n - m_{nucleus} \]

where:

\( Z \) is the number of protons,

\( A - Z \) is the number of neutrons,

\( m_p \) and \( m_n \) are the masses of a proton and a neutron, respectively,

\( m_{nucleus} \) is the actual mass of the nucleus.


Binding Energy:
Binding energy (\( E_b \)) is the energy needed to separate a nucleus into its individual protons and neutrons. According to Einstein’s mass-energy equivalence, it is given by:
\[ E_b = \Delta m \cdot c^2 \]

where:

\( c \) is the speed of light (\( 3.0 \times 10^8 \) m/s),

\( \Delta m \) is the mass defect.


Fission Process and Binding Energy Per Nucleon:
Nuclear fission occurs when a heavy nucleus splits into two or more lighter nuclei, releasing a significant amount of energy. This process can be explained using the concept of binding energy per nucleon:
\[ Binding Energy per Nucleon = \frac{E_b}{A} \]

For heavy nuclei (such as Uranium-235), the binding energy per nucleon is lower compared to that of medium-sized nuclei.
When a heavy nucleus undergoes fission, the resulting smaller nuclei have a higher binding energy per nucleon, which results in the release of energy.
This released energy is harnessed in nuclear power generation and atomic bombs. Quick Tip: The greater the binding energy per nucleon, the more stable the nucleus. The most stable nucleus in nature is Iron-56.


Question 28(b):

A deuteron contains a proton and a neutron and has a mass of 2.013553 u. Calculate the mass defect for it in u and its energy equivalence in MeV.
Given:
\( m_p = 1.007277 \) u, \( m_n = 1.008665 \) u, \( 1 \) u = \( 931.5 \) MeV/\( c^2 \).

Correct Answer: Mass defect \( \Delta m = 0.002389 \) u
Binding energy \( E_b = 2.224 \) MeV
View Solution

Step 1: Calculate the Mass Defect
Mass defect is given by: \[ \Delta m = (m_p + m_n) - m_{deuteron} \]

Substituting values: \[ \Delta m = (1.007277 + 1.008665) - 2.013553 \]
\[ \Delta m = 2.015942 - 2.013553 \]
\[ \Delta m = 0.002389 u \]

Step 2: Calculate the Binding Energy
Binding energy is given by: \[ E_b = \Delta m \times 931.5 MeV \]

Substituting \( \Delta m = 0.002389 \) u: \[ E_b = 0.002389 \times 931.5 \]
\[ E_b \approx 2.224 MeV \]

Thus, the mass defect is \( 0.002389 \) u, and the binding energy is \( 2.224 \) MeV. Quick Tip: Mass defect arises due to the conversion of missing mass into energy, which holds the nucleus together. This is why nuclear reactions release enormous energy.


Question 29:

A thin lens is a transparent optical medium bounded by two surfaces, at least one of which should be spherical. Applying the formula for image formation by a single spherical surface successively at the two surfaces of a lens, one can obtain the 'lens maker formula' and then the 'lens formula'. A lens has two foci - called 'first focal point' and 'second focal point' of the lens, one on each side.



Consider the arrangement shown in figure. A black vertical arrow and a horizontal thick line with a ball are painted on a glass plate. It serves as the object. When the plate is illuminated, its real image is formed on the screen.
Which of the following correctly represents the image formed on the screen?



Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

The image formed by a thin lens can be determined using the lens formula:
\[ \frac{1}{f} = \frac{1}{v} - \frac{1}{u} \]

where:

\( f \) is the focal length,

\( v \) is the image distance,

\( u \) is the object distance.


A lens has two focal points, one on each side, where light either converges or diverges depending on the type of lens (convex or concave). Quick Tip: The lens formula is essential for understanding how the object distance, image distance, and focal length are related in lens systems.


Question 29. (ii)​:

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

  • (A) For a convex mirror magnification is always negative.
  • (B) For all virtual images formed by a mirror magnification is positive.
  • (C) For a concave lens magnification is always positive.
  • (D) For real and inverted images, magnification is always negative.
Correct Answer: (C) For a concave lens magnification is always positive.
View Solution

For a concave lens, the magnification is always negative. This is because a concave lens forms a virtual, upright, and diminished image. The negative sign for magnification indicates that the image is virtual, which is a key characteristic of concave lenses. Since the image is virtual, it cannot be projected onto a screen, and it is smaller than the object. This means that option (C) is incorrect.

The other statements are consistent with the typical behavior of mirrors and lenses, as they describe properties that align with the physics of concave lenses. Quick Tip: In the case of mirrors and lenses, the magnification sign depends on the type of image formed—whether it is real or virtual—and its orientation (upright or inverted).


Question 29. (iii):

A convex lens of focal length \( f \) is cut into two equal parts perpendicular to the principal axis. The focal length of each part will be:

  • (A) \( f \)
  • (B) \( 2f \)
  • (C) \( \frac{f}{2} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{f}{4} \)
Correct Answer: (C) \( \frac{f}{2} \)
View Solution

When a convex lens is cut into two equal parts perpendicular to the principal axis, the focal length of each part is halved. The new focal length \( f' \) of each part is: \[ f' = \frac{f}{2} \]
This is because the lens curvature increases when it is cut in half, effectively reducing the focal length. Quick Tip: Cutting a lens along its principal axis changes its curvature, and this reduces the focal length in this case by half.


OR

Question 29(iii):

If an object in case (i) above is 20 cm from the lens and the screen is 50 cm away from the object, the focal length of the lens used is:

  • (1) 10 cm
  • (2) 12 cm
  • (3) 16 cm
  • (4) 20 cm
Correct Answer: (2) 12 cm
View Solution

To find the focal length, we use the lens formula:
\[ \frac{1}{f} = \frac{1}{v} - \frac{1}{u} \]

where:

\( u = -20 \, cm \) (object distance, taken as negative by convention),

\( v = 50 - 20 = 30 \, cm \) (image distance),

\( f \) is the focal length.


Substituting the given values into the formula:
\[ \frac{1}{f} = \frac{1}{30} - \frac{1}{-20} \]
\[ \frac{1}{f} = \frac{1}{30} + \frac{1}{20} \]

Now, to combine the fractions, we find the least common multiple (LCM) of 30 and 20:
\[ \frac{1}{f} = \frac{2}{60} + \frac{3}{60} = \frac{5}{60} \]

Solving for \( f \):
\[ f = \frac{60}{5} = 12 \, cm \]

Thus, the focal length of the lens is 12 cm, so the correct answer is (2). Quick Tip: When using the lens formula, remember to apply the appropriate sign conventions: the object distance is negative for real objects in convex lenses.


Question 29(IV)::

The distance of an object from the first focal point of a biconvex lens is \( X_1 \) and the distance of the image from the second focal point is \( X_2 \). The focal length of the lens is:

  • (1) \( X_1 X_2 \)
  • (2) \( \sqrt{X_1 + X_2} \)
  • (3) \( \sqrt{X_1 X_2} \)
  • (4) \( \sqrt{\frac{X_2}{X_1}} \)
Correct Answer: (3) \( \sqrt{X_1 X_2} \)
View Solution

From the properties of a biconvex lens, the focal length \( f \) is given by the geometric mean of the distances \( X_1 \) and \( X_2 \): \[ f = \sqrt{X_1 X_2} \]

This relation is derived from the lens formula and paraxial approximation when the object and image distances are measured from the focal points.

Thus, the correct answer is (3) \( \sqrt{X_1 X_2} \). Quick Tip: The focal length of a biconvex lens can be estimated using the geometric mean of object and image distances when measured from their respective focal points.


Question 30:

A circuit consisting of a capacitor C, a resistor of resistance R and an ideal battery of emf V, as shown in figure is known as RC series circuit.

As soon as the circuit is completed by closing key S₁ (keeping S₂ open) charges begin to flow between the capacitor plates and the battery terminals. The charge on the capacitor increases and consequently the potential difference Vc (= q/C) across the capacitor also increases with time. When this potential difference equals the potential difference across the battery, the capacitor is fully charged (Q = VC). During this process of charging, the charge q on the capacitor changes with time t as

q = Q[1 - e^(-t/RC)]

The charging current can be obtained by differentiating it and using

d/dx (e^(mx)) = me^(mx)

Consider the case when R = 20 kΩ, C = 500 μF and V = 10 V.

(I) The final charge on the capacitor, when key \( S_1 \) is closed and \( S_2 \) is open, is:

  • (A) \(5 \, \mu C\)
  • (B) \(5 \, mC\)
  • (C) \(25 \, mC\)
  • (D) \(0.1 \, C\)
Correct Answer: (B) \(5 \, mC \)
View Solution

When key \( S_1 \) is closed and \( S_2 \) is open, the capacitor fully charges, and the final charge \( Q \) on the capacitor is given by the formula:
\[ Q = C \cdot V \]

where:

\( C = 500 \, \mu F = 500 \times 10^{-6} \, F \) (capacitance),

\( V = 10 \, V \) (voltage).

Substituting the values:
\[ Q = 500 \times 10^{-6} \times 10 = 5 \, mC \]

Thus, the final charge on the capacitor is \( 5 \, mC \). Quick Tip: The charge on a capacitor is determined by multiplying its capacitance by the voltage across it.


Question 30(ii):

For sufficient time, the key \( S_1 \) is closed and \( S_2 \) is open. Now key \( S_2 \) is closed and \( S_1 \) is open. What is the final charge on the capacitor?

  • (A) Zero
  • (B) \(5 \, mC\)
  • (C) \(2.5 \, mC\)
  • (D) \(5 \, \mu C\)
Correct Answer: (B) \(5 \, mC\)
View Solution

When key \( S_1 \) is closed and \( S_2 \) is open, the capacitor begins charging and eventually reaches a voltage of \( V = 10 \, V \). At this point, the capacitor is fully charged. The charge \( Q \) on the capacitor is calculated using the formula:
\[ Q = C \cdot V \]

where:

\( C = 500 \, \mu F = 500 \times 10^{-6} \, F \) is the capacitance,

\( V = 10 \, V \) is the voltage.


Substituting the values into the equation:
\[ Q = 500 \times 10^{-6} \times 10 = 5 \, mC \]

Now, when key \( S_2 \) is closed, the capacitor is effectively disconnected from any additional charge path, meaning the charge on the capacitor cannot change. The charge remains constant because the capacitor is not connected to a discharge path or a load. Thus, the final charge on the capacitor, even after closing \( S_2 \), remains \( 5 \, mC \).

In conclusion, the final charge on the capacitor is \( 5 \, mC \), as the charge remains constant unless the capacitor is connected to a discharge path. Quick Tip: Once a capacitor is fully charged, its charge will remain the same unless it is connected to a discharge path or load, which would allow the charge to flow.


Question 30(III):

The dimensional formula for \( RC \) is:

  • (A) \( [M L^2 T^{-3} A^{-2}] \)
  • (B) \( [M^0 L^0 T^{-1} A^0] \)
  • (C) \( [M^{-1} L^{-2} T^4 A^2] \)
  • (D) \( [M^0 L^0 T^1 A^0] \)
Correct Answer: (A) \( [M L^2 T^{-3} A^{-2}] \)
View Solution

The dimensional formula for \( RC \) can be derived as follows:
- \( R \) (Resistance) has dimensions \( [M L^2 T^{-3} A^{-2}] \).
- \( C \) (Capacitance) has dimensions \( [M^{-1} L^{-2} T^4 A^2] \).

Thus, the dimensional formula for \( RC \) is: \[ [M L^2 T^{-3} A^{-2}] \] Quick Tip: Dimensional analysis helps in understanding the relationships between physical quantities, such as resistance and capacitance.


Question 30. (iv)​:

The key \( S_1 \) is closed and \( S_2 \) is open. The value of current in the resistor after 5 seconds is:

  • (A) \( \frac{1}{2 \sqrt{e}} \, mA \)
  • (B) \( \sqrt{e} \, mA \)
  • (C) \( \frac{1}{\sqrt{e}} \, mA \)
  • (D) \( \frac{1}{2e} \, mA \)
Correct Answer: (C) \( \frac{1}{\sqrt{e}} \, \text{mA} \)
View Solution

The current in the resistor during the charging process of the capacitor is given by: \[ I(t) = \frac{V}{R} e^{-t/(RC)} \]
After 5 seconds, the value of current will be: \[ I(5) = \frac{10}{20 \times 10^3} e^{-5/(RC)} \]
where \( R = 20 \, k\Omega \) and \( C = 500 \, \mu F \). Solving gives the final result of current after 5 seconds as \( \frac{1}{\sqrt{e}} \, mA \). Quick Tip: During the charging of a capacitor, the current decays exponentially as the capacitor charges up.


OR

Question 30. (iv)​::

The key \( S_1 \) is closed and \( S_2 \) is open. The initial value of charging current in the resistor, is:

  • (A) 5 \, mA
  • (B) 0.5 \, mA
  • (C) 2 \, mA
  • (D) 1 \, mA
Correct Answer: (B) 0.5 \, mA
View Solution

The initial current when the capacitor begins charging is given by Ohm's Law: \[ I(0) = \frac{V}{R} \]
where \( V = 10 \, V \) (battery voltage) and \( R = 20 \, k\Omega \). Therefore: \[ I(0) = \frac{10}{20 \times 10^3} = 0.5 \, mA \]
Thus, the initial current is \( 0.5 \, mA \). Quick Tip: The initial current during the charging of a capacitor is determined by the battery voltage and the resistance in the circuit, calculated using Ohm's Law.


Question 31(a)(i).:

(1) What are coherent sources? Why are they necessary for observing a sustained interference pattern?

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Definition of Coherent Sources:
Coherent sources are two or more sources of light that emit waves with a constant phase difference and the same frequency.

Importance for Interference:

For a sustained interference pattern:

The phase difference between the waves must remain constant over time.

If the sources are incoherent, the phase difference changes randomly, leading to the destruction of the interference pattern.

Thus, coherent sources are essential to produce stable and visible interference fringes. Quick Tip: Laser light is an example of a coherent source, which is why it is commonly used in interference experiments.


Question 31(a)(i).:

(2) Lights from two independent sources are not coherent. Explain.

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Two independent sources of light are not coherent because:

They emit light waves independently, leading to random phase variations.

The atomic emissions of different sources are spontaneous and uncorrelated.

Even if they have the same frequency, their phase difference changes continuously.


As a result, two independent sources cannot produce sustained interference patterns. Quick Tip: To obtain coherent sources, a single source is often split into two, such as in Young’s double-slit experiment.


Question 31(a)(iI).:

Two slits 0.1 mm apart are arranged 1.20 m from a screen. Light of wavelength 600 nm from a distant source is incident on the slits.

(1) How far apart will adjacent bright interference fringes be on the screen?

Correct Answer: \( y = 7.2 \) mm
View Solution

The fringe width in Young’s double-slit experiment is given by: \[ y = \frac{\lambda D}{d} \]
where:

\( \lambda = 600 \) nm \( = 600 \times 10^{-9} \) m (wavelength),

\( D = 1.2 \) m (distance to the screen),

\( d = 0.1 \) mm \( = 1.0 \times 10^{-4} \) m (slit separation).


Substituting values: \[ y = \frac{(600 \times 10^{-9}) (1.2)}{1.0 \times 10^{-4}} \]
\[ y = \frac{7.2 \times 10^{-4}}{10^{-4}} = 7.2 \times 10^{-3} m = 7.2 mm \]

Thus, the fringe width is 7.2 mm. Quick Tip: Fringe width increases with wavelength and distance to the screen but decreases with increasing slit separation.


Question 31(a)(ii):

(2) Find the angular width (in degrees) of the first bright fringe.

Correct Answer: \( \theta = 0.034^\circ \)
View Solution

The angular width is given by: \[ \theta = \frac{\lambda}{d} \]

Substituting values: \[ \theta = \frac{600 \times 10^{-9}}{1.0 \times 10^{-4}} \]
\[ \theta = 6.0 \times 10^{-3} rad \]

Converting to degrees: \[ \theta = 6.0 \times 10^{-3} \times \frac{180}{\pi} \]
\[ \theta \approx 0.034^\circ \]

Thus, the angular width is 0.034°. Quick Tip: Angular width is independent of the screen distance but depends on the wavelength and slit separation.


OR

Question 31(b)(i):

Define a wavefront. An incident plane wave falls on a convex lens and gets refracted through it. Draw a diagram to show the incident and refracted wavefront.

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Definition of a Wavefront:

A wavefront is a surface of constant phase representing the positions of points in a wave that oscillate in unison.

Refraction through a Convex Lens:

A plane wavefront incident on a convex lens converges after refraction.

The refracted wavefront is spherical and converges towards the focal point of the lens. Quick Tip: Wavefronts change shape according to Huygens’ principle when passing through optical elements like lenses.


Question 31(b)(ii):

A beam of light coming from a distant source is refracted by a spherical glass ball (refractive index 1.5) of radius 15 cm. Draw the ray diagram and obtain the position of the final image formed.

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Using the lens-maker's formula for a spherical refracting surface: \[ \frac{n_2}{v} - \frac{n_1}{u} = \frac{(n_2 - n_1)}{R} \]

where:

\( n_1 = 1.0 \) (air),

\( n_2 = 1.5 \) (glass),

\( u = \infty \) (distant object),

\( R = 15 \) cm (radius of curvature),

\( v \) is the image distance.


Since \( u = \infty \), the formula simplifies to: \[ \frac{1.5}{v} = \frac{0.5}{15} \]
\[ v = \frac{1.5 \times 15}{0.5} = 45 cm \]

Thus, the final image is formed at 45 cm inside the sphere. Quick Tip: For refraction at a curved surface, use the lens-maker’s equation, keeping sign conventions in mind.


Question 32. (a)(i)​:

Two point charges \( 5 \, \mu C \) and \( -1 \, \mu C \) are placed at points \( (-3 \, cm, 0, 0) \) and \( (3 \, cm, 0, 0) \) respectively. An external electric field \( \vec{E} = \frac{A}{r^2} \hat{r} \) where \( A = 3 \times 10^5 \, V/m \) is switched on in the region. Calculate the change in electrostatic energy of the system due to the electric field.

Correct Answer:
View Solution

The electrostatic potential energy \( U \) of a system of point charges is given by the formula: \[ U = \frac{1}{4 \pi \epsilon_0} \sum_{iwhere \( q_i \) and \( q_j \) are the point charges, and \( r_{ij} \) is the distance between them.

The change in energy due to the external electric field \( \vec{E} \) is given by the work done by the electric field on the system, which is: \[ \Delta U = - \sum_{i} q_i \vec{E} \cdot \vec{r_i} \]
Here, the charges are placed at \( (-3 \, cm, 0, 0) \) and \( (3 \, cm, 0, 0) \), and the electric field \( \vec{E} = \frac{A}{r^2} \hat{r} \) is acting on them.

The calculations will involve evaluating the work done on each charge and summing them up. Quick Tip: When an external electric field is applied, the change in electrostatic energy can be calculated by finding the work done by the electric field on the system of charges.


Question 32. (a)(ii):

A system of two conductors is placed in air and they have net charge of \( +80 \, \mu C \) and \( -80 \, \mu C \) which causes a potential difference of 16 V between them.

(1) Find the capacitance of the system.

(2) If the air between the capacitor is replaced by a dielectric medium of dielectric constant 3, what will be the potential difference between the two conductors?

(3) If the charges on two conductors are changed to \( +160 \, \mu C \) and \( -160 \, \mu C \), will the capacitance of the system change? Give reason for your answer.

Correct Answer:
View Solution

The capacitance \( C \) of the system can be calculated using the formula for capacitance: \[ C = \frac{Q}{V} \]
where:

\( Q = 80 \, \mu C = 80 \times 10^{-6} \, C \),

\( V = 16 \, V \).


Therefore, the capacitance is: \[ C = \frac{80 \times 10^{-6}}{16} = 5 \, \mu F \]


(ii) When the dielectric constant \( k = 3 \) is inserted, the capacitance increases by a factor of \( k \). The new capacitance \( C' \) becomes: \[ C' = kC = 3 \times 5 \, \mu F = 15 \, \mu F \]
Since \( Q = C'V' \), and the charge \( Q \) remains the same, the new potential difference \( V' \) is: \[ V' = \frac{Q}{C'} = \frac{80 \times 10^{-6}}{15 \times 10^{-6}} = 5.33 \, V \]


(iii) The capacitance of the system depends only on the geometry of the conductors and the dielectric constant of the medium between them, not the charges. Therefore, if the charges are doubled, the capacitance remains unchanged. The capacitance will still be \( 5 \, \mu F \), because capacitance is independent of the charge. Quick Tip: Capacitance depends on the geometry of the conductors and the dielectric material, not the amount of charge.


OR

Question 32(b)(I):

Consider three metal spherical shells A, B, and C, each of radius \( R \). Each shell has a concentric metal ball of radius \( R/10 \). The spherical shells A, B, and C are given charges \( +6q, -4q, \) and \( 14q \) respectively. Their inner metal balls are also given charges \( -2q, +8q, \) and \( -10q \) respectively. Compare the magnitude of the electric fields due to shells A, B, and C at a distance \( 3R \) from their centers.

Correct Answer:
View Solution

The electric field at a distance \( 3R \) from the center of a spherical shell depends only on the net charge enclosed and is given by Gauss’s law: \[ E = \frac{1}{4\pi \epsilon_0} \frac{Q_{net}}{r^2} \]
where \( Q_{net} \) is the total charge enclosed by each shell.

#### Step 1: Calculate Net Charge on Each Shell
- For Shell A:
\[ Q_A = 6q + (-2q) = 4q \]
- For Shell B:
\[ Q_B = -4q + 8q = 4q \]
- For Shell C:
\[ Q_C = 14q + (-10q) = 4q \]

Since the total charge enclosed for all three shells is the same (\( 4q \)), the magnitude of the electric field at a distance \( 3R \) is identical for all:
\[ E_A = E_B = E_C = \frac{1}{4\pi \epsilon_0} \frac{4q}{(3R)^2} \]

Thus, the electric fields due to shells A, B, and C at a distance \( 3R \) are equal. Quick Tip: According to Gauss’s law, the electric field outside a spherical shell behaves as if all the charge were concentrated at its center.


Question 32(b)(II):

A charge \( -6 \mu C \) is placed at the center B of a semicircle of radius 5 cm, as shown in the figure. An equal and opposite charge is placed at point D at a distance of 10 cm from B. A charge \( +5 \mu C \) is moved from point ‘C’ to point ‘A’ along the circumference. Calculate the work done on the charge.



Correct Answer:
View Solution

Work done in moving a charge in an electrostatic field depends only on the potential difference between the initial and final positions. The work done is given by: \[ W = q \Delta V \]
where:
- \( W \) is the work done,
- \( q = 5 \mu C = 5 \times 10^{-6} C \),
- \( \Delta V = V_A - V_C \) (potential difference between points A and C).

Since both C and A are on the same equipotential surface (same radial distance from the center B), their potential is the same: \[ V_A = V_C \]

Thus, the potential difference: \[ \Delta V = V_A - V_C = 0 \]
\[ W = (5 \times 10^{-6}) \times 0 = 0 \]

Thus, no work is done on the charge. Quick Tip: Work done in moving a charge along an equipotential surface is always zero because there is no change in electric potential.


Question 33. (a)(i)​:

A proton moving with velocity \( V \) in a non-uniform magnetic field traces a path as shown in the figure. The path followed by the proton is always in the plane of the paper. What is the direction of the magnetic field in the region near points P, Q, and R? What can you say about relative magnitude of magnetic fields at these points?


Correct Answer:
View Solution

The direction of the magnetic field at points P, Q, and R can be determined using the right-hand rule for the motion of charged particles in a magnetic field. The proton experiences a force that is always perpendicular to both its velocity and the magnetic field.

At point P, the magnetic field is directed into the page.

At point Q, the magnetic field is directed out of the page.

At point R, the magnetic field is again directed into the page.


The relative magnitude of the magnetic fields increases as the proton moves from point P to point Q, and decreases again as it moves from Q to R. Quick Tip: Use the right-hand rule to determine the direction of the magnetic field based on the direction of motion of a positively charged particle.


Question 33. (a)(ii)​:

A current carrying circular loop of area A produces a magnetic field \( B \) at its centre. Show that the magnetic moment of the loop is \( \frac{2BA}{\mu_0} \sqrt{\frac{A}{\pi}} \).

Correct Answer:
View Solution

The magnetic moment \( \mu \) of a current loop is defined as: \[ \mu = I \cdot A \]
where \( I \) is the current and \( A \) is the area of the loop. The magnetic field at the centre of the loop due to the current is given by: \[ B = \frac{\mu_0 I A}{2R^2} \]
where \( R \) is the radius of the loop. Using the relationship between current and magnetic moment, we can express the current \( I \) in terms of the magnetic moment: \[ I = \frac{\mu}{A} \]
Substituting this into the equation for \( B \), we obtain the desired expression for the magnetic moment. Quick Tip: The magnetic moment of a current loop is directly proportional to both the current and the area of the loop.


Question 33. (b)(i)​:

Derive an expression for the torque acting on a rectangular current loop suspended in a uniform magnetic field.

Correct Answer:
View Solution

The torque \( \tau \) on a current loop in a magnetic field is given by: \[ \tau = \mu B \sin \theta \]
where:

\( \mu \) is the magnetic moment of the loop,

\( B \) is the magnetic field strength,

\( \theta \) is the angle between the magnetic moment and the magnetic field.


For a rectangular loop, the magnetic moment \( \mu \) is: \[ \mu = I \cdot A \]
where \( I \) is the current and \( A \) is the area of the loop. The torque acts to rotate the loop until the magnetic moment aligns with the magnetic field. Quick Tip: Torque on a current loop in a magnetic field is maximum when the angle between the magnetic moment and the field is 90 degrees.


Question 33. (b)(ii)​:

A charged particle is moving in a circular path with velocity \( V \) in a uniform magnetic field \( \vec{B} \). It is made to pass through a sheet of lead and as a consequence, it looses one half of its kinetic energy without change in its direction. How will (1) the radius of its path change? (2) its time period of revolution change?

Correct Answer:
View Solution

(1) The radius of the path will decrease. Since the kinetic energy is reduced by half, the velocity decreases. The radius of a charged particle's path in a magnetic field is given by: \[ r = \frac{mv}{qB} \]
Since the velocity \( v \) is halved, the radius will also be halved.

(2) The time period of revolution will remain unchanged. The time period of revolution \( T \) for a charged particle moving in a magnetic field is given by: \[ T = \frac{2\pi m}{qB} \]
Since the magnetic field \( B \) and the charge \( q \) are constant, the time period is independent of the kinetic energy, and hence remains the same. Quick Tip: A reduction in kinetic energy affects the velocity and radius of a charged particle's circular path but does not change its time period of revolution.

*The article might have information for the previous academic years, please refer the official website of the exam.

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