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Content Curator | Updated On - Jul 3, 2026

NTA conducted the RE-NEET 2026 Code 50 Exam on June 21 in a single shift from 2:00 PM to 5:15 PM in PBT Mode.

The RE-NEET 2026 Code 50 Exam Question Paper consisted of 3 sections: Physics, Chemistry, and Biology (Botany & Zoology)  with 180 Questions carrying a total of 720 Marks, as per the NEET Marking Scheme, +4 Marks for every correct answer, and -1 mark will be deducted for every wrong answer.

RE-NEET 2026 Code 50 Question Paper with Solution PDF is available here for download.

RE-NEET 2026 Code 50 Question Paper with Solution PDF

RE-NEET 2026 Code 50 Question Paper Download PDF Check Solutions

Question 1:

A particle of mass \( M \) moves along the horizontal x-axis from \( x = 0 \) to \( x = L \). The coefficient of kinetic friction varies as \[ \mu_k(x) = \frac{\mu_0}{L} x \] where \( \mu_0 \) and \( L \) are constants. If the total work done by friction during the motion is \[ -\frac{\mu_0 M g L}{n} \] where \( g \) is the acceleration due to gravity, find \( n \).

  • (A) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
  • (B) \(3\)
  • (C) \(1\)
  • (D) \(\frac{1}{3}\)

Question 2:

The mean free path of molecules in an ideal gas A is half that of another ideal gas B. The diameter of the spherical molecules of gas A is twice the diameter of the molecules of gas B. If number densities of the gases A and B are \( n_A \) and \( n_B \), respectively, then the correct option is:

  • (A) \( n_A = \frac{1}{2} n_B \)
  • (B) \( n_A = n_B \)
  • (C) \( n_A = 2 n_B \)
  • (D) \( n_A = \frac{1}{4} n_B \)

Question 3:

Two identical inductors are connected in two different configurations P and Q, where a time varying current \( I(t) \) is flowing, as shown in the figure. If the induced emf between points a and b for configuration P is \( E_P \) and that for configuration Q is \( E_Q \), then the ratio \( \frac{E_P}{E_Q} \) is:

  • (A) \(1\)
  • (B) \(\frac{1}{4}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
  • (D) \(4\)

Question 4:

For sound waves, if the number of nodes for the 5th harmonic of an open-ended pipe is \( n \) and that for the 9th harmonic of the same pipe with one of its ends closed is \( m \), the ratio \( \frac{n}{m} \) is:

  • (A) \(\frac{3}{5}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{9}{5}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{5}{9}\)
  • (D) \(1\)

Question 5:

Consider a long solenoid of length \( l \) and radius \( r \). If \( n \) is the number of turns per unit length and \( \mu_0 \) is the permeability of free space, the inductance of the solenoid is:

  • (A) \(2\mu_0\pi n^2 r^2 l\)
  • (B) \(\mu_0\pi n^2 r^2 l\)
  • (C) \(\mu_0 n^2 r^2 l\)
  • (D) \(\left(\frac{\mu_0}{2\pi}\right) n^2 r^2 l\)

Question 6:

Consider a particle moving along a straight line, whose position as a function of time is given by \[ s(t) = \alpha t^2 - \beta t + \gamma \] where \( \alpha = 1 m s^{-2} \), \( \beta = 6 m s^{-1} \) and \( \gamma = 5 m \). The average speed of the particle, in \( m s^{-1} \), from \( t = 0 \) to \( t = 6 s \) is:

  • (A) \(0\)
  • (B) \(12\)
  • (C) \(6\)
  • (D) \(3\)

Question 7:

Consider the following nuclear reaction : \[ ^{238}_{92}U \rightarrow ^{234}_{90}Th + ^{4}_{2}He \] Take masses of \( ^{238}U \), \( ^{234}Th \) and \( ^{4}He \) as \( 238.050 u \), \( 234.043 u \) and \( 4.003 u \), respectively. The Q-value for the reaction, in \( keV \), is : (Given : \( 1 u = 931.5 MeV/c^2 \))

  • (A) \(3726\)
  • (B) \(3730\)
  • (C) \(3736\)
  • (D) \(3740\)

Question 8:

A beam of light falls on a metal surface such that photo-electrons are generated. If the power of the light source starts to decrease linearly with time, then the variation of the photocurrent \( I \) and magnitude of the stopping potential \( |V| \) with time is best represented by :

  • (A) \( I = constant \), \( |V| = constant \)
  • (B) \( I \) decreases linearly with time, \( |V| \) remains constant
  • (C) \( I \) decreases linearly with time, \( |V| \) also decreases linearly with time
  • (D) \( I = constant \), \( |V| \) decreases linearly with time

Question 9:

Three identical capacitors P, Q and S, each of capacitance C, are connected to a battery of voltage V, as shown in the figure. If the potential energy stored in the capacitor P and total energy stored in the system are \( U_P \) and \( U_T \), respectively, then the ratio \( \frac{U_P}{U_T} \) is:

  • (A) \(\frac{1}{6}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{2}{3}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{1}{3}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{1}{2}\)

Question 10:

Water flows in a streamline motion through a horizontal pipe of circular cross-section as shown in the figure. The pressure difference of water between P and Q is \( 15 N m^{-2} \). The area of cross-section at P and Q are \( 40 cm^2 \) and \( 20 cm^2 \), respectively. The rate of flow of water through the pipe, in \( cm^3 s^{-1} \), is:

  • (A) \(400\)
  • (B) \(100\)
  • (C) \(200\)
  • (D) \(300\)

Question 11:

A current \( I_0 \) flows through a metallic circular loop of radius \( r \) as shown. The resistance of arc ABC is half that of arc ADC. Find the magnetic field at the centre O.

  • (A) \(\frac{\mu_0 I_0}{6r}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{\mu_0 I_0}{2r}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{\mu_0 I_0}{12r}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{\mu_0 I_0}{4r}\)

Question 12:

In the measurement of viscosity of liquids using terminal velocity experiment, spherical balls of same radius but having different densities are used. The variation of the terminal velocity \( v \) with the ratio of density of spherical ball \( (\sigma) \) to density of the liquid \( (\rho) \), is best represented by:

  • (A) Graph passing through the origin
  • (B) Straight line having positive slope and non-zero intercept
  • (C) Parabolic curve
  • (D) Hyperbolic curve

Question 13:

Two planets \( P_1 \) and \( P_2 \) with equal mass have radii \( R_1 \) and \( R_2 \), respectively, where \[ R_2 = \frac{R_1}{2} \] The escape speeds of \( P_1 \) and \( P_2 \) are \( v_1 \) and \( v_2 \), respectively. Then the value of \( \frac{v_2}{v_1} \) is:

  • (A) \(2\)
  • (B) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\)
  • (C) \(1\)
  • (D) \(\sqrt{2}\)

Question 14:

In a solar system, the time period of revolution of a planet tracing a circular orbit of radius \( R \) is proportional to:

  • (A) \(R^3\)
  • (B) \(R^{1/2}\)
  • (C) \(R^{3/2}\)
  • (D) \(R^2\)

Question 15:

Two infinitely long parallel conducting wires A and B carry currents \( I \) and \( 2I \), respectively, in the same direction. Wire A lies on an insulated floor while wire B is fixed at a height \( h \) above the floor. The minimum value of \( h \) so that wire A does not rise from the floor is: (where \( \lambda \) is the mass per unit length of wire A)

  • (A) \(\frac{4\mu_0 I^2}{\pi \lambda g}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{\mu_0 I^2}{2\pi \lambda g}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{\mu_0 I^2}{\pi \lambda g}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{2\mu_0 I^2}{\pi \lambda g}\)

Question 16:

An ideal Zener diode with breakdown voltage of \( 3 V \) is reverse biased with a negative input voltage \( V_1 = -5 V \). The magnitude of voltage difference between points B and A is:

  • (A) \(0 V\)
  • (B) \(3 V\)
  • (C) \(2 V\)
  • (D) \(1 V\)

Question 17:

In an adiabatic expansion, the temperature of one mole of an ideal monoatomic gas \( \left(\gamma = \frac{5}{3}\right) \) decreases from \( 60 K \) to \( 50 K \). The work done by the gas in the process is: (Take the universal gas constant as \( R = 8.3 J mol^{-1}K^{-1} \))

  • (A) \(166 J\)
  • (B) \(41.5 J\)
  • (C) \(83 J\)
  • (D) \(124.5 J\)

Question 18:

A ray of light with wavelength \( \lambda \) is incident on three different photoelectric cells. The threshold wavelengths are \( \lambda_1 \), \( \lambda_2 \), and \( \lambda_3 \), and the magnitudes of stopping potentials are \( V_1 \), \( V_2 \), and \( V_3 \), respectively. If \[ \lambda_1 \le \lambda, \quad \lambda_2 > \lambda, \quad \lambda_3 \gg \lambda \] the correct option is:

  • (A) \( V_1 < V_2 \), \( V_3 = 0 \)
  • (B) \( V_1 = 0 \), \( V_2 < V_3 \)
  • (C) \( V_1 > 0 \), \( V_2 = 0 \), \( V_3 = 0 \)
  • (D) \( V_1 > V_2 \), \( V_3 = 0 \)

Question 19:

A photon and an electron, each of 20 eV energy, move in free space. The ratio of linear momentum of electron \( p_e \) to that of photon \( p_{ph} \), \( \frac{p_e}{p_{ph}} \), is : (Take \( c = 3 \times 10^8 ms^{-1} \), \( e = 1.6 \times 10^{-19} C \), \( m_e = 9 \times 10^{-31} kg \))

  • (A) \(711\)
  • (B) \(355\)
  • (C) \(1422\)
  • (D) \(1067\)

Question 20:

Which of the following measurements require index correction?

  • (A) Measurement of resistance of a wire using meter bridge
  • (B) Measurement of gravitational acceleration using simple pendulum
  • (C) Measurement of focal length of lenses using optical bench
  • (D) Measurement of speed of sound using resonance tube

Question 21:

A unit positive point charge is taken slowly through an infinitesimally thin tube that is inside a charged dielectric sphere of radius \( R \), having uniform positive charge density \( \rho \), as shown in the figure. The initial and final positions of the charge are marked by A and B, at distances \( 2R \) and \( 3R \) respectively, from the centre O of the sphere. In this process, the magnitude of the total work done on the point charge is \[ \frac{\rho R^2}{n \epsilon_0} \] The value of \( n \) is :

  • (A) \( 2 \)
  • (B) \( 6 \)
  • (C) \( 9 \)
  • (D) \( 18 \)

Question 22:

Consider three media P, Q and R with refractive indices \( 1 \), \( 1.25 \) and \( 1.5 \), respectively. The medium Q, having a thickness of \( 5 cm \), is placed between extended media P and R as shown in the figure. An object O is placed at the centre of medium Q. If viewed from medium P near the normal direction, the apparent depth is \( h_1 \). For similar observation from medium R, the apparent depth is \( h_2 \). The value of \( |h_1 - h_2| \) in cm is :

  • (A) \( 0 \)
  • (B) \( 1 \)
  • (C) \( 2 \)
  • (D) \( 3 \)

Question 23:

A frictionless circular wire of unit radius is fixed on the horizontal plane. Two point particles of unit mass start moving simultaneously from point A \( \left(\theta = \frac{\pi}{2}\right) \) with identical uniform angular speeds in opposite directions, and meet again at point B \( \left(\theta = -\frac{\pi}{2}\right) \). During this time, which of the following figures schematically represents the magnitude of the total linear momentum \( P \) of the system, as a function of \( \theta \)?

  • (A) Graph (1)
  • (B) Graph (2)
  • (C) Graph (3)
  • (D) Graph (4)

Question 24:

The temperature of a metallic sphere of radius \( R \) is increased by a small thermal expansion \( \Delta T \). If the linear coefficient of thermal expansion of the metal is \( \alpha \), the approximate increase in the volume of the sphere is :

  • (A) \( 2\pi R^3 \alpha \Delta T \)
  • (B) \( 3\pi R^3 \alpha \Delta T \)
  • (C) \( 4\pi R^3 \alpha \Delta T \)
  • (D) \( 6\pi R^3 \alpha \Delta T \)

Question 25:

A cylindrical cork of uniform density floats in a liquid of density \( \rho_1 \). If the cork is depressed slightly and released, it oscillates harmonically with time period \( T \). If the same cork floats in another liquid of density \( \rho_2 \), then the similar oscillation has time period \( 2T \). The value of \( \frac{\rho_2}{\rho_1} \) is :

  • (A) \(4\)
  • (B) \(2\)
  • (C) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{1}{4}\)

Question 26:

One main scale division of a Vernier calliper is equal to \( 1 mm \) and the number of divisions on the Vernier scale is \( 10 \). When both the jaws touch each other, the Vernier scale shifts to the left of zero of the main scale in such a way that \( 4^{th} \) Vernier division coincides with a division of the main scale. If this Vernier calliper measures the length of a wire to be \( 1 cm \), the actual length of the wire is:

  • (A) \(0.60 cm\)
  • (B) \(0.96 cm\)
  • (C) \(1.00 cm\)
  • (D) \(1.04 cm\)

Question 27:

A solid sphere A of radius \( R \) and mass \( M \) is attached to a smaller solid sphere B of radius \( r < R \) and mass \( m < M \). The line joining their centres lies along the horizontal. The moment of inertia of the system calculated about a vertical axis passing through the centre of A is \( I_A \) and that calculated about a vertical axis passing through the centre of B is \( I_B \). The difference \( I_A - I_B \) is :

  • (A) \( (M-m)(R+r)^2 \)
  • (B) \( (m-M)(R+r)^2 \)
  • (C) \( (m-M)(R-r)^2 \)
  • (D) \( 0 \)

Question 28:

A spring-mass simple harmonic oscillator has mass \( m \) and spring constant \( k \). If the v–x graph is a circle, then:

  • (A) \( k = 1/m \)
  • (B) \( k = m \)
  • (C) \( k = m^2 \)
  • (D) \( k = \sqrt{m} \)

Question 29:

A lens combination consists of \( L_1 \) (f = +10 cm) and \( L_2 \) (f = -10 cm) separated by 3 cm. An object is placed 30 cm from \( L_1 \). Find the final image position.

  • (A) 20 cm left of concave
  • (B) 60 cm left of concave
  • (C) 30 cm right of concave
  • (D) 60 cm right of concave

Question 30:

An AC voltage \( V = 220 \sin(2 \times 10^3 t) \) is applied to an LCR circuit (L = 10 mH, C = 25 \(\mu\)F, R = 100 \(\Omega\)). Find current amplitude.

  • (A) 2.2 A
  • (B) 5.5 A
  • (C) 11.0 A
  • (D) 22.0 A

Question 31:

A disc rotates about a fixed axis O. Angular momenta \( L_A \) and \( L_B \) are measured at points A and B where \( OB = 2OA \). Find \( L_A/L_B \).

  • (A) 1/4
  • (B) 1/2
  • (C) 1
  • (D) 2

Question 32:

A loop has area \( A = A_0(1 + \sin t) \). The dissipated power behaves as:

  • (A) Two positive humps
  • (B) One downward curve
  • (C) Linear slope
  • (D) Upward curve

Question 33:

A point charge Q is placed inside a cavity within a solid isolated conducting sphere. Consider points A, B, and C as shown in the figure, where the magnitudes of the electric fields are \( E_A \), \( E_B \), and \( E_C \), respectively. The points B and C are at the same distance from the center of the solid sphere. The correct option is:

  • (A) \( E_A = 0, E_B = E_C \)
  • (B) \( E_A \neq 0, E_B = E_C \)
  • (C) \( E_A = 0, E_B > E_C \)
  • (D) \( E_A \neq 0, E_B < E_C \)

Question 34:

A fixed uniformly charged insulating sphere has radius \( R \) and charge \( +Q \). A point charge \( -q \) (\( q \ll Q \)) with mass \( m \) is released from \( 3R \). When the point charge reaches the surface, its speed is:

  • (A) \(\sqrt{\frac{3Qq}{4\pi\epsilon_0 m R}}\)
  • (B) \(\sqrt{\frac{2Qq}{3\pi\epsilon_0 m R}}\)
  • (C) \(\sqrt{\frac{Qq}{3\pi\epsilon_0 m R}}\)
  • (D) \(\sqrt{\frac{Qq}{4\pi\epsilon_0 m R}}\)

Question 35:

In the Geiger-Marsden experiment, the number of scattered \(\alpha\)-particles \( N(\theta) \) is plotted against scattering angle \(\theta\). Which plot represents the correct data?

  • (A) Linear graph
  • (B) Exponential decay
  • (C) Inverse fourth power decay
  • (D) Bell curve

Question 36:

Consider two circuits, (A) and (B), each having two resistors. One of them has a positive temperature coefficient of resistance, \( + \alpha \), while the other one has a negative temperature coefficient of resistance, \( - \alpha \). As the temperature is increased, the correct option that describes the variation of current in these circuits is :

  • (A) \( I_A \) remains constant while \( I_B \) increases
  • (B) \( I_A \) decreases while \( I_B \) increases
  • (C) \( I_A \) increases while \( I_B \) decreases
  • (D) both \( I_A \) and \( I_B \) remain constant

Question 37:

Consider that \(\sigma_s\), \(k_B\), \(b\) represent Stefan-Boltzmann constant, Boltzmann constant and Wien's displacement constant respectively. The dimension of \(\sigma_s k_B^{-1} b\) is :

  • (A) \( [L^{-1}T^{-1}K^{-2}] \)
  • (B) \( [L^{-1}K^{-2}] \)
  • (C) \( [L^{-1}T^{-1}K^{-3}] \)
  • (D) \( [L^{-1}T^{-1}K^{-4}] \)

Question 38:

An electromagnetic wave travelling in a lossless dielectric medium having dielectric constant \( \epsilon_r = 9 \), has electric field \( E_x = E_0 \sin(kz - 2\pi \times 10^6 t) V m^{-1} \). The incorrect statement is:

  • (A) The speed of wave is \( 10^8 ms^{-1} \)
  • (B) Wavelength is \( 300 m \)
  • (C) Magnetic field is \( B_y = \frac{E_0}{v} \sin(kz - \omega t) \)
  • (D) Direction of propagation is along \(+z\)

Question 39:

One mole of an ideal monatomic gas undergoes a cyclic process. The total heat supplied to the gas is:

  • (A) \( 400 J \)
  • (B) \( 500 J \)
  • (C) \( 600 J \)
  • (D) \( 800 J \)

Question 40:

An electron is revolving in an excited state of Hydrogen with velocity \( \sqrt{25.6} \times 10^5 m/s \). The radius is \( x \times 10^{-9} m \). Find \( x \).

  • (A) \( 4 \)
  • (B) \( 3 \)
  • (C) \( 2 \)
  • (D) \( 1 \)

Question 41:

A car travels on a circular racetrack of radius \( 50 m \), which is banked at an angle \( \theta \). If the car travels at a speed \( 10 m s^{-1} \), then the wear and tear on its tyres is minimum. Taking the acceleration due to gravity to be \( 10 m s^{-2} \), the value of \( \theta \) is:

  • (A) \( \tan^{-1}(1/5) \)
  • (B) \( \tan^{-1}(2/5) \)
  • (C) \( \tan^{-1}(\sqrt{3}/2) \)
  • (D) \( \tan^{-1}(2\sqrt{3}) \)

Question 42:

Three identical p-n junction diodes \( D_1, D_2, D_3 \) are connected across a battery as shown in the figure. If the width of the depletion regions of \( D_1 \), \( D_2 \), and \( D_3 \) are \( W_1 \), \( W_2 \), and \( W_3 \), respectively, then the correct option is:

  • (A) \( W_1 > W_2 > W_3 \)
  • (B) \( W_3 = W_1 > W_2 \)
  • (C) \( W_3 > W_2 > W_1 \)
  • (D) \( W_2 > W_1 = W_3 \)

Question 43:

The following table presents parts of the electromagnetic spectrum and their corresponding applications. The correct option is:

  • (A) P-I, Q-II, R-III, S-IV
  • (B) P-I, Q-IV, R-II, S-III
  • (C) P-II, Q-I, R-IV, S-III
  • (D) P-II, Q-IV, R-III, S-I

Question 44:

Bob B of mass \( m \) at rest is hanging vertically from the ceiling via a massless string of length \( 10 m \). A point mass A of mass \( m \) travelling horizontally with speed \( 10 m s^{-1} \) hits bob B elastically. The bob B rises by height \( h \) after collision. The value of \( h \) is:

  • (A) \( 8 m \)
  • (B) \( 7 m \)
  • (C) \( 5 m \)
  • (D) \( 2.5 m \)

Question 45:

An ideal gas is made of polyatomic molecules. Each of the molecules has three translational, three rotational and \( f \) number of vibrational modes. If the ratio of heat capacities \( C_p/C_v \) of the gas is \( 8/7 \), then the value of \( f \) is :

  • (A) \( 4 \)
  • (B) \( 3 \)
  • (C) \( 2 \)
  • (D) \( 1 \)

Question 46:

For the following reaction sequence, choose the correct option:

  • (A) If P is the sodium salt of a carboxylic acid, Q is a primary alcohol.
  • (B) P and Q are aromatic compounds.
  • (C) If P gives a carboxylic acid on acidification, Q gives a poisonous gas on exposure to air and light.
  • (D) Both P and Q are carbonyl compounds.

Question 47:

Given below are two statements:

Statement-I : \( [Fe(ox)_3]^{3-} \) is chiral.

Statement-II : \( trans-[Cr(H_2O)_2(ox)_2]^- \) is chiral.

(Given : \( oxH_2 = HOOC - COOH \))

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.
  • (B) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.
  • (C) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
  • (D) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.

Question 48:

The following carbocation is stabilized by the interaction of the empty \( p \) orbital with:

  • (A) filled \( \sigma \) and filled \( \pi \) orbitals
  • (B) empty \( \sigma \) and empty \( \pi^ \) orbitals
  • (C) empty \( \sigma^ \) and filled \( \pi \) orbitals
  • (D) empty \( \sigma^ \) and empty \( \pi^ \) orbitals

Question 49:

In potash alum, the ratio of \( K^+ \) and \( SO_4^{2-} \) ions is:

  • (A) \( 1:2 \)
  • (B) \( 2:1 \)
  • (C) \( 2:3 \)
  • (D) \( 3:2 \)

Question 50:

The correct statement about peptides and proteins is:

  • (A) Tertiary structure of proteins has two or more polypeptide subunits.
  • (B) Only the proteins having a quaternary structure are biologically active.
  • (C) In \( \beta \)-pleated sheet structures, peptide chains are held together by intermolecular hydrogen bonds.
  • (D) In \( \alpha \)-helices, the polypeptide chain is twisted into a left-handed screw (helix) through intramolecular hydrogen bonds.

Question 51:

The numbers \(17.0145\) and \(21.0235\) were rounded to three figures after the decimal point. The resulting numbers, respectively, are:

  • (A) \(17.014\) and \(21.023\)
  • (B) \(17.015\) and \(21.023\)
  • (C) \(17.014\) and \(21.024\)
  • (D) \(17.015\) and \(21.024\)

Question 52:

The correct order of solubility of the given salts in water at \( 298 K \) is: (with \( K_{sp} \) values given: \( AgBr = 5.0 \times 10^{-13} \), \( Zn(OH)_2 = 1.0 \times 10^{-15} \), \( Hg_2Cl_2 = 1.3 \times 10^{-18} \))

  • (A) \( Hg_2Cl_2 > Zn(OH)_2 > AgBr \)
  • (B) \( AgBr > Zn(OH)_2 > Hg_2Cl_2 \)
  • (C) \( Hg_2Cl_2 > AgBr > Zn(OH)_2 \)
  • (D) \( Zn(OH)_2 > AgBr > Hg_2Cl_2 \)

Question 53:

Among the following options, the correct trend in the electron gain enthalpy is:

  • (A) \( F > Cl > Br > I \)
  • (B) \( Br > Cl > F > I \)
  • (C) \( Cl > F > Br > I \)
  • (D) \( I > Br > Cl > F \)

Question 54:

Assertion A: For an ideal solution formed by mixing liquids P and Q, \(\Delta_{mix}H = 0\) and \(\Delta_{mix}V = 0\).

Reason R: No interactions occur between P and Q.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
  • (B) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
  • (C) A is correct but R is not correct
  • (D) A is not correct but R is correct

Question 55:

The amino acid that gives a red-blood colour on treating its sodium fusion extract with sodium nitroprusside is:

  • (A) leucine
  • (B) threonine
  • (C) methionine
  • (D) serine

Question 56:

The standard electrode potential (\(E^\circ\)) for the half-cell reaction \(Fe^{3+} + e^- \rightarrow Fe^{2+}\) at \(298 K\) is: (Given: \(E^\circ(Fe^{3+}/Fe) = -0.04 V\) and \(E^\circ(Fe^{2+}/Fe) = -0.44 V\))

  • (A) \(+0.40 V\)
  • (B) \(+0.76 V\)
  • (C) \(-0.48 V\)
  • (D) \(+0.92 V\)

Question 57:

In an acidic medium, \(10 mL\) of \(0.25 M\) oxalic acid is titrated with \(KMnO_4\) solution. If the volume of \(KMnO_4\) solution required to reach end point is \(10 mL\), the strength of the \(KMnO_4\) solution is:

  • (A) \(0.10 M\)
  • (B) \(0.20 M\)
  • (C) \(0.25 M\)
  • (D) \(0.15 M\)

Question 58:

According to crystal field theory, the correct order of ligands with respect to their decreasing order of field strength is:

  • (A) \( CO > NH_3 > H_2O > Cl^- \)
  • (B) \( CO > H_2O > NH_3 > Cl^- \)
  • (C) \( Cl^- > H_2O > NH_3 > CO \)
  • (D) \( Cl^- > NH_3 > H_2O > CO \)

Question 59:

Two moles of an ideal gas undergo free expansion from \(10 L\) to \(100 L\) at \(300 K\). The values of \(\Delta S_{system}\) and \(\Delta S_{surroundings}\) are:

  • (A) \(\Delta S_{system} = 0\); \(\Delta S_{surroundings} = 0\)
  • (B) \(\Delta S_{system} = -4.606 R\); \(\Delta S_{surroundings} = -4.606 R\)
  • (C) \(\Delta S_{system} = 0\); \(\Delta S_{surroundings} = 4.606 R\)
  • (D) \(\Delta S_{system} = 4.606 R\); \(\Delta S_{surroundings} = 0\)

Question 60:

\(2A \xrightarrow{k} B\) is a zero-order reaction, where \(k = 1.0 mol L^{-1} min^{-1}\). If the initial concentration of A is \(2 M\), then the time taken to complete \(75%\) of the reaction will be:

  • (A) \(1.5 min\)
  • (B) \(0.75 min\)
  • (C) \(1.0 min\)
  • (D) \(2.0 min\)

Question 61:

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Generally, \( 3d \) transition metals have high melting points.

Reason R: Involvement of \( 3d \)-electrons in addition to \( 4s \)-electrons in the interatomic metallic bonding.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
  • (B) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
  • (C) A is correct but R is not correct
  • (D) A is not correct but R is correct

Question 62:

For a salt XY, which is a strong electrolyte, the plot of \( \Lambda_m \) versus \( \sqrt{c} \) has a slope of \( -90.0 S cm^2 mol^{-3/2} L^{1/2} \) at \( 298 K \). At \( 0.01 M \) concentration of XY, the value of \( \Lambda_m \) is \( 145.0 S cm^2 mol^{-1} \). The limiting molar conductivity of \( Y^- \) ion (\( \lambda_{Y^-}^\circ \), in \( S cm^2 mol^{-1} \)) at \( 298 K \) will be (Given: \( \lambda_{X^+}^\circ = 74.0 S cm^2 mol^{-1} \)):

  • (A) \( 80.0 \)
  • (B) \( 100.0 \)
  • (C) \( 90.0 \)
  • (D) \( 76.0 \)

Question 63:

The amount of carbon dioxide evolved upon complete combustion of \( 116 g \) of n-butane is (Given: atomic mass in amu H = 1, C = 12 and O = 16):

  • (A) \( 352 g \)
  • (B) \( 322 g \)
  • (C) \( 176 g \)
  • (D) \( 362 g \)

Question 64:

For an elementary chemical reaction, the Arrhenius plot is given below. If the energy of activation is \( 6.64 kJ mol^{-1} \) and \( R = 8.3 J K^{-1} mol^{-1} \), the temperature at which the rate constant becomes \( e^2 min^{-1} \), is:

  • (A) \( 125 K \)
  • (B) \( 150 K \)
  • (C) \( 200 K \)
  • (D) \( 250 K \)

Question 65:

Given below are two statements:

Statement-I : Heating NaCl with concentrated \( H_2SO_4 \) and \( MnO_2 \) results in oxidation of Mn.

Statement-II : Heating NaI with concentrated \( H_2SO_4 \) and \( MnO_2 \) results in reduction of Mn.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
  • (B) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
  • (C) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
  • (D) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Question 66:

Among the species given below, the spin-only magnetic moment is highest for (Given: Atomic number of Ti = 22, Mn = 25, Fe = 26 and Co = 27):

  • (A) \( [Mn(CN)_6]^{3-} \)
  • (B) \( [Fe(CN)_6]^{3-} \)
  • (C) \( [Co(NH_3)_6]^{3+} \)
  • (D) \( [Ti(H_2O)_6]^{3+} \)

Question 67:

The lanthanide ion having four unpaired electrons is (Given: Atomic numbers of Ce = 58, Nd = 60, Tb = 65 and Ho = 67):

  • (A) \( Nd^{3+} \)
  • (B) \( Ce^{3+} \)
  • (C) \( Tb^{3+} \)
  • (D) \( Ho^{3+} \)

Question 68:

The formula of tetraammineaquachloridocobalt(III) chloride is:

  • (A) \( [Co(NH_3)_4Cl_2] \cdot H_2O \)
  • (B) \( [Co(NH_3)_4]Cl_3 \cdot H_2O \)
  • (C) \( [Co(NH_3)_4(H_2O)Cl]Cl \)
  • (D) \( [Co(NH_3)_4(H_2O)Cl]Cl_2 \)

Question 69:

Consider the reversible processes for \(1.0 mol\) of an ideal gas as shown in the figure. Processes 2 and 4 are adiabatic. \(w_1\), \(w_2\), \(w_3\) and \(w_4\) represent work done (in calories) in the processes 1, 2, 3 and 4, respectively; \(\Delta U_2\) and \(\Delta U_4\) are changes in the internal energy for the processes 2 and 4, respectively. [use \(R = 2 cal K^{-1} mol^{-1}\)]. The correct option is:

  • (A) \( w_1 + w_3 = -2T_1 \ln \frac{V_2}{V_1} - 2T_2 \ln \frac{V_4}{V_3} \)
  • (B) \( w_2 + w_4 = \Delta U_2 - \Delta U_4 \)
  • (C) \( w_1 + w_2 = 2T_1 \ln \frac{V_2}{V_1} \)
  • (D) \( w_1 + w_2 + w_3 + w_4 = 0 \)

Question 70:

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: The first ionization enthalpy of O is lower than that of N and F.

Reason R: The loss of an electron from O leads to a stable half-filled \( p \) orbital.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
  • (B) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
  • (C) A is correct but R is not correct
  • (D) A is not correct but R is correct

Question 71:

Consider the following statements about the solutions formed by mixing two liquids:

A. An ideal solution thus formed obeys Raoult’s law throughout the composition range.

B. Mixture of chloroform and acetone shows negative deviation from Raoult’s law.

C. Mixture of aniline and phenol shows positive deviation from Raoult’s law.

The correct option is:

  • (A) A and B only
  • (B) B and C only
  • (C) A only
  • (D) A and C only

Question 72:

One of the products formed in the following reaction of cyclohexylmagnesium bromide with cyclohexanamine is:









  • (A) secondary amine
  • (B) substituted amine
  • (C) bicyclohexyl
  • (D) cyclohexane
Correct Answer: (D) cyclohexane
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Grignard reagents (\( RMgX \)) are highly reactive organometallic compounds. The carbon atom bonded to magnesium carries a substantial partial negative charge, behaving as a very strong base and a powerful nucleophile.

When mixed with any species containing an active, acidic hydrogen (like \( -OH, -NH_2, -SH, -COOH \)), a rapid acid-base neutralization reaction occurs preferentially over any nucleophilic addition.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. Identify the reactants:

- Cyclohexylmagnesium bromide: A Grignard reagent containing a highly basic cyclohexyl carbanion:
\[ C_6H_{11}^- Mg^{2+} Br^- \]

- Cyclohexanamine: A primary amine (\( R-NH_2 \)). The hydrogen atoms directly attached to the nitrogen are weakly acidic and easily abstracted by extremely strong bases.

2. Reaction pathway:

When these two compounds are mixed, the basic cyclohexyl carbanion abstracts an acidic proton from the amino group of cyclohexanamine:
\[ C_6H_{11}-MgBr + C_6H_{11}-NH_2 \rightarrow C_6H_{12} + C_6H_{11}-NH-MgBr \]

The carbanion captures the proton to form cyclohexane:
\[ C_6H_{11}^- + H^+ \rightarrow C_6H_{12} (Cyclohexane) \]


Step 4: Final Answer:

The primary organic product formed is cyclohexane, which corresponds to Option (D).
Quick Tip: Grignard reagents are extremely sensitive to any active hydrogen source.
Whenever a Grignard reagent (\( RMgX \)) reacts with water, alcohols, carboxylic acids, or primary/secondary amines, the major product is always simply the alkane (\( R-H \)) corresponding to the Grignard alkyl group.


Question 73:

The correct statement is:

  • (A) Boron has a maximum covalency of four.
  • (B) Beryllium has three valence orbitals.
  • (C) Magnesium has a maximum covalency of four.
  • (D) Aluminium has five valence orbitals.

Question 74:

A protein undergoes reversible thermal denaturation from its initial state N to denatured state D according to \(N \rightleftharpoons D\). At \(60^\circC\), the concentrations of both N and D are equal at equilibrium, and the standard enthalpy change of denaturation is \(666 kJ mol^{-1}\). The standard entropy change (\(\Delta S^\circ\) in \(kJ K^{-1}mol^{-1}\)) of the protein upon denaturation at \(60^\circC\) is closest to:

  • (A) 2.0
  • (B) 2000.0
  • (C) 333.0
  • (D) 11.1

Question 75:

Match the species in List I with their geometry in List II:



Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
  • (B) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • (C) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
  • (D) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

Question 76:

Given below are two statements :

Statement I : trans-But-2-ene upon treatment with \( Br_2 \) in \( CCl_4 \) gives the following product: (meso-2,3-dibromobutane).

Statement II : cis-But-2-ene upon treatment with alkaline \( KMnO_4 \) gives the following product: (meso-butane-2,3-diol).

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:



  • (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  • (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  • (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  • (D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Question 77:

Consider the following reaction sequences and choose the correct option:

  • (A) K and L are geometrical isomers
  • (B) K and L are enantiomers
  • (C) M and N are geometrical isomers
  • (D) M and N are stereoisomers

Question 78:

The complex which has facial and meridional isomers is:

  • (A) \( [Cr(py)_3Cl_3] \)
  • (B) \( [Cr(H_2O)_6]^{3+} \)
  • (C) \( [Co(NH_3)_4(H_2O)_2]^{3+} \)
  • (D) \( [Ni(en)_2(H_2O)_2]^{2+} \)

Question 79:

Identify the reactions which give aniline as the major product:

A. Reduction of benzonitrile with \(LiAlH_4\)

B. Hoffmann bromamide degradation of benzamide

C. Reduction of nitrobenzene with \(NaBH_4\)

D. Hydrolysis of acetanilide

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:







  • (A) A and B only
  • (B) B and D only
  • (C) A and C only
  • (D) C and D only
Correct Answer: (B) B and D only
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Aniline is a primary aromatic amine (\( C_6H_5NH_2 \)).

To determine which reactions produce aniline as the major product, we must analyze the mechanisms and products of each reaction.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

Let us analyze each reaction in detail:

- Reaction A: Reduction of benzonitrile:

Benzonitrile (\( C_6H_5C\equiv N \)) is treated with the powerful reducing agent \( LiAlH_4 \). This reduces the nitrile group completely to a primary amine without breaking any carbon-carbon bonds:
\[ C_6H_5C\equiv N \xrightarrow{LiAlH_4} C_6H_5CH_2NH_2 (Benzylamine) \]

The product is benzylamine, not aniline. Thus, Reaction A is incorrect.

- Reaction B: Hoffmann bromamide degradation of benzamide:

Benzamide (\( C_6H_5CONH_2 \)) is treated with bromine in an aqueous or ethanolic solution of alkali (\( KOH \)):
\[ C_6H_5CONH_2 + Br_2 + 4KOH \rightarrow C_6H_5NH_2 (Aniline) + K_2CO_3 + 2KBr + 2H_2O \]

This reaction degrades the amide by removing the carbonyl carbon, directly producing aniline. Thus, Reaction B is correct.

- Reaction C: Reduction of nitrobenzene with \( NaBH_4 \):

Sodium borohydride (\( NaBH_4 \)) is a mild, highly selective reducing agent. It is not strong enough to reduce aromatic nitro groups (\( -NO_2 \)) to amines. Nitrobenzene remains unreacted under these conditions. Thus, Reaction C is incorrect.

- Reaction D: Hydrolysis of acetanilide:

Acetanilide (\( C_6H_5NHCOCH_3 \)) is a secondary amide. Heating it in the presence of an aqueous acid (\( HCl/H_2O \)) induces nucleophilic acyl substitution, leading to acidic hydrolysis:
\[ C_6H_5NHCOCH_3 + H_2O \xrightarrow[\Delta]{HCl} C_6H_5NH_3^+Cl^- + CH_3COOH \]

Upon standard alkaline workup, the anilinium chloride salt yields free aniline (\( C_6H_5NH_2 \)). Thus, Reaction D is correct.

Combining the correct reactions gives:
\[ B and D only \]


Step 4: Final Answer:

Reactions B and D produce aniline, which corresponds to Option (B).
Quick Tip: Remember:
- \( NaBH_4 \) is highly chemoselective and cannot reduce nitro groups, esters, or nitriles.
- Hoffmann degradation is a reliable method for converting primary amides to primary amines with one less carbon atom.


Question 80:

Match the vitamins in List I with their sources in List II:



Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
  • (B) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
  • (C) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
  • (D) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

Question 81:

The correct decreasing order of oxidation state of the underlined atom in each molecule is:

(with N in \( N_2O_5 \), Al in \( Al_2O_3 \), and S in \( H_2S \) underlined)

  • (A) \( P_4O_{10} > SO_3 > H_2O \)
  • (B) \( N_2O_5 > Al_2O_3 > H_2S \)
  • (C) \( PbO_2 > N_2O_3 > SO_3 \)
  • (D) \( P_4O_6 > Cl_2O_7 > AlH_3 \)

Question 82:

The compound that CANNOT be obtained from the aldol condensation reaction shown below, is:

(where 3,3-dimethylcyclopentan-1-one is reacted with benzaldehyde in the presence of NaOH)









  • (A) figA
  • (B) figB
  • (C) figC
  • (D) figD

Question 83:

Among the following, the compound having conjugated double bonds is:

  • (A) hepta-1,3-diene
  • (B) hepta-1,4-diene
  • (C) hepta-1,5-diene
  • (D) hepta-1,6-diene

Question 84:

Given below are two statements:

Statement-I: Oxidation of p-nitrotoluene with acidic \( KMnO_4 \) gives an acid that is stronger than benzoic acid.

Statement-II: Reduction of p-nitrotoluene with Sn/HCl followed by neutralization gives an amine that is more basic than aniline.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
  • (B) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
  • (C) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
  • (D) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Question 85:

The green paramagnetic species formed by heating \( KMnO_4 \) at \( 513 K \) is:

  • (A) \( K_2MnO_4 \)
  • (B) \( Mn_3O_4 \)
  • (C) \( MnO \)
  • (D) \( KO_2 \)

Question 86:

Consider the following reaction, and choose the correct option.

(where toluene is reacted with chromyl chloride in the presence of \( CS_2 \), followed by acidic hydrolysis to yield compound P)

  • (A) On treating compound P with saturated \( NaHCO_3 \) solution, brisk effervescence is observed.
  • (B) Compound P can be prepared by treating benzene with anhydrous \( AlCl_3 \) and \( CH_3COCl \).
  • (C) On treatment with bromine water, compound P gives a white precipitate.
  • (D) Compound P is obtained by the hydrogenation of benzoyl chloride with Pd on \( BaSO_4 \).
Correct Answer: (D) Compound P is obtained by the hydrogenation of benzoyl chloride with Pd on \( \text{BaSO}_4 \).
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The oxidation of toluene using chromyl chloride (\( CrO_2Cl_2 \)) in a non-polar solvent like \( CS_2 \), followed by hydrolysis, is a named reaction called the Etard Reaction.

This reaction selectively oxidizes the benzylic methyl group to an aldehyde, stopping at the benzaldehyde stage.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

- Step 1: Identify compound P:

The Etard reaction sequence is:
\[ C_6H_5CH_3 + 2CrO_2Cl_2 \xrightarrow{CS_2} C_6H_5CH[OCrCl_2OH]_2 \xrightarrow{H_3O^+} C_6H_5CHO (Benzaldehyde) \]

Thus, compound P is benzaldehyde (\( C_6H_5CHO \)).

- Step 2: Evaluate the options:

- Option (A): Saturated \( NaHCO_3 \) reacts with carboxylic acids to release \( CO_2 \) (brisk effervescence). Benzaldehyde is an aldehyde and does not react with sodium bicarbonate. Thus, (A) is incorrect.

- Option (B): Reacting benzene with acetyl chloride (\( CH_3COCl \)) in the presence of anhydrous \( AlCl_3 \) is a Friedel-Crafts acylation that yields acetophenone, not benzaldehyde. Thus, (B) is incorrect.

- Option (C): Phenols and anilines react with bromine water to form white precipitates due to rapid poly-bromination. Benzaldehyde is a deactivated aromatic system and does not form a white precipitate. Thus, (C) is incorrect.

- Option (D): Hydrogenation of benzoyl chloride (\( C_6H_5COCl \)) over \( Pd/BaSO_4 \) is known as the Rosenmund Reduction. This selective reduction converts the acid chloride group directly into an aldehyde, yielding benzaldehyde:
\[ C_6H_5COCl + H_2 \xrightarrow{Pd/BaSO_4} C_6H_5CHO + HCl \]

This statement is completely correct.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The correct option is (D).
Quick Tip: Connecting named reactions is highly common in entrance exams. Remember that both the Etard Reaction (oxidation of toluene) and the Rosenmund Reduction (reduction of benzoyl chloride) are primary synthetic routes to prepare benzaldehyde.


Question 87:

A 1:3 electrolyte in an aqueous solution is:

  • (A) \( [CoCl_2(NH_3)_4]Cl \)
  • (B) \( [CoCl(NH_3)_5]Cl_2 \)
  • (C) \( [Co(NH_3)_6]Cl_3 \)
  • (D) \( [Co(NH_3)_3(NO_2)_3] \)

Question 88:

Consider the following schematic plots of orbital wavefunction (\( \psi_r \)) against distance (\( r \)) from the nucleus.

The figure representing two radial nodes in the orbital is:

  • (A) A
  • (B) B
  • (C) C
  • (D) D

Question 89:

Arrange the following compounds in the increasing order of polarity:

A. \( CH_3CH_2OCH_2CH_3 \) (Ether)

B. \( CH_3CH_2OH \) (Alcohol)

C. \( CH_3COCH_3 \) (Ketone)

D. \( CH_3COOH \) (Carboxylic acid)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A < B < C < D
  • (B) C < A < D < B
  • (C) C < A < B < D
  • (D) A < C < B < D

Question 90:

The highest occupied molecular orbital for \( Ne_2 \) is:

  • (A) \( \pi_{2p} \)
  • (B) \( \sigma_{2p} \)
  • (C) \( \pi^_{2p} \)
  • (D) \( \sigma^_{2p} \)

Question 91:

The number of vertebrae in an adult human is _________.

  • (A) \( 7 \)
  • (B) \( 12 \)
  • (C) \( 26 \)
  • (D) \( 206 \)

Question 92:

Symbiotic association between fungi and algae are called _________.

  • (A) lichens
  • (B) sponges
  • (C) mycorrhiza
  • (D) chrysophytes

Question 93:

Cell theory was formulated by _________.

  • (A) Schleiden and Schwann
  • (B) Robert Brown
  • (C) Singer and Nicolson
  • (D) Antonie Von Leeuwenhoek

Question 94:

Which of the following are characteristics of prokaryotic cells?

(a) Ribosomes are made of 50S and 30S subunits

(b) They can have plasmids

(c) They contain mesosome

(d) They have peroxisomes

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (b) and (c) only
  • (B) (a) and (c) only
  • (C) (a), (c) and (d) only
  • (D) (a), (b) and (c) only

Question 95:

Which of the following is not a part of human central neural system?

  • (A) Arachnoid
  • (B) Dura mater
  • (C) Pia mater
  • (D) Pericardium

Question 96:

Mitochondrial inner membrane encloses_________.

  • (A) matrix
  • (B) cytosol
  • (C) mucus
  • (D) aqueous humor

Question 97:

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I: A. Cristae, B. Cisternae, C. Thylakoids, D. Phospholipid

List-II: I. Flat membrane sacs in stroma of chloroplast, II. Infoldings in mitochondria, III. Cell membrane, IV. Disc-shaped sacs in Golgi apparatus

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • (B) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
  • (C) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
  • (D) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
Correct Answer: (B) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Eukaryotic cell organelles and biological membranes contain distinct morphological structures that are specialized for their metabolic functions.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

Let us match the structural components with their descriptions:

1. Cristae (A): These are infoldings of the inner mitochondrial membrane that project into the matrix to increase surface area for the electron transport chain.
\[ Cristae (A) \rightarrow Infoldings in mitochondria (II) \]

2. Cisternae (B): These are flattened, disc-shaped membrane sacs stacked parallel to each other that make up the Golgi apparatus.
\[ Cisternae (B) \rightarrow Disc-shaped sacs in Golgi apparatus (IV) \]

3. Thylakoids (C): These are flattened membranous sacs arranged in grana within the stroma of chloroplasts that contain photosynthetic pigments.
\[ Thylakoids (C) \rightarrow Flat membrane sacs in stroma of chloroplast (I) \]

4. Phospholipid (D): Phospholipids are amphipathic lipid molecules that form the foundational bilayer of the cell plasma membrane.
\[ Phospholipid (D) \rightarrow Cell membrane (III) \]

Combining all the matches:
\[ A \rightarrow II, \quad B \rightarrow IV, \quad C \rightarrow I, \quad D \rightarrow III \]


Step 4: Final Answer:

The matching sequence corresponds to Option (B).
Quick Tip: To avoid confusion:
- {Cristae} are {Critical} for respiration (Mitochondria).
- {Cisternae} are {Cists} (sacs) for packaging (Golgi apparatus).


Question 98:

The plastid that stores xanthophyll is known as _________.

  • (A) chloroplast
  • (B) chromoplast
  • (C) aleuroplast
  • (D) amyloplast

Question 99:

Which of the following statements related to pituitary gland are correct?

(a) It is divided anatomically into adenohypophysis and neurohypophysis

(b) It secretes follicle stimulating hormone

(c) It secretes melanocyte stimulating hormone

(d) It does not secrete prolactin

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (a) and (b) only
  • (B) (a), (b) and (c) only
  • (C) (c) and (d) only
  • (D) (b) and (c) only

Question 100:

Photorespiration reaction catalyzed by RuBPCo is shown below:

RuBP + O\(_2 \rightarrow\) 3-Phosphoglycerate + X

Identify "X" from the given options:

  • (A) Phosphoenolpyruvate
  • (B) 2-Phosphoglycolate
  • (C) Oxaloacetate
  • (D) Malate

Question 101:

Mad cow disease is caused by __________.

  • (A) prions
  • (B) viroids
  • (C) Aspergillus sp.
  • (D) Mycoplasma sp.

Question 102:

Which pigment has absorption peak at 700 nm in the photosynthetic reaction centre PS I (P700)?

  • (A) Chlorophyll b
  • (B) Chlorophyll a
  • (C) Xanthophylls
  • (D) Carotenoids

Question 103:

In water, frogs respire using __________.

  • (A) skin
  • (B) buccal cavity
  • (C) lungs
  • (D) trachea

Question 104:

Which of the following represents the correct sequence of arrangement of bones in the lower limb of humans?

  • (A) Femur-tibia-patella-tarsal
  • (B) Patella-femur-tibia-tarsal
  • (C) Femur-patella-tibia-tarsal
  • (D) Femur-tarsal-patella-tibia

Question 105:

Phyllotaxy is the pattern of arrangement of __________

  • (A) leaves
  • (B) flowers
  • (C) fruits
  • (D) sepals

Question 106:

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I: A. Starch, B. Antibody, C. Concanavalin A, D. Glut-4

List-II: I. Fights infection, II. Energy storage, III. Glucose transport, IV. Lectin

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
  • (B) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
  • (C) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
  • (D) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

Question 107:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: When any plane passing through the central axis of the body divides the organism into two identical halves, it is called radial symmetry.

Statement II: In phylum Echinodermata, both adults and larvae are radially symmetrical.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  • (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  • (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  • (D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Question 108:

Endomembrane system includes __________

  • (A) endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi complex, lysosomes and vacuole
  • (B) endoplasmic reticulum, chloroplast, peroxisomes and vacuole
  • (C) mitochondria, chloroplast, peroxisomes and vacuole
  • (D) Golgi complex, chloroplast, peroxisomes and vacuole

Question 109:

How many molecules of pyruvic acid are produced at the end of glycolysis from 206 molecules of glucose?

  • (A) \( 206 \)
  • (B) \( 309 \)
  • (C) \( 103 \)
  • (D) \( 412 \)

Question 110:

Which of the following plant growth regulators is used as herbicide?

  • (A) 2,4-D
  • (B) Kinetin
  • (C) Abscisic acid
  • (D) Gibberellin

Question 111:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: In gymnosperms, the male and female gametophytes remain within the sporangia.

Statement II: In gymnosperms, seeds are not covered.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  • (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  • (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  • (D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Question 112:

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I: A. Spherical, B. Rod, C. Comma, D. Spiral

List-II: I. Vibrio, II. Cocci, III. Spirilla, IV. Bacilli

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
  • (B) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
  • (C) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
  • (D) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

Question 113:

Which of the following are characteristic features of Solanaceae family?

(a) Flowers are bisexual and actinomorphic

(b) Calyx have five sepals and are united

(c) Androecium have five stamens and are epipetalous

(d) Ovary is inferior

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (a), (b) and (c) only
  • (B) (d) only
  • (C) (a) and (b) only
  • (D) (b), (c) and (d) only

Question 114:

Select the correct sequence of experiments that led to a gradual understanding of photosynthesis in green plants.

  • (A) Absorption spectra of chlorophyll a and b \(\rightarrow\) production of glucose \(\rightarrow\) release of oxygen \(\rightarrow\) role of air
  • (B) Role of air \(\rightarrow\) release of oxygen \(\rightarrow\) production of glucose \(\rightarrow\) absorption spectra of chlorophyll a and b
  • (C) Release of oxygen \(\dots\) production of glucose \(\rightarrow\) absorption spectra of chlorophyll a and b \(\rightarrow\) role of air
  • (D) Production of glucose \(\rightarrow\) role of air \(\rightarrow\) release of oxygen \(\rightarrow\) absorption spectra of chlorophyll a and b

Question 115:

The number of action potentials generated by sino-atrial node (SAN) in a healthy human is __________ per minute.

  • (A) 28 - 30
  • (B) 70 - 75
  • (C) 100 - 110
  • (D) 120 - 140

Question 116:

How many turns of Calvin cycle are required for the formation of three molecules of glucose?

  • (A) 6
  • (B) 3
  • (C) 1
  • (D) 18

Question 117:

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

  • (A) Blood coagulates in response to an injury
  • (B) Blood clot consists of fibrins
  • (C) Fibrin is produced from fibrinogen
  • (D) Fibrinogen is produced from fibrin

Question 118:

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I: A. Family, B. Genus, C. Class, D. Phylum, E. Order

List-II: I. Sapindales, II. Dicotyledonae, III. Anacardiaceae, IV. Angiospermae, V. Mangifera

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A-I, B-V, C-II, D-IV, E-III
  • (B) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV, E-V
  • (C) A-II, B-III, C-V, D-I, E-IV
  • (D) A-III, B-V, C-II, D-IV, E-I

Question 119:

Arrange the following taxonomic categories in ascending order.

(a) Genus (b) Class (c) Order (d) Phylum (e) Family (f) Kingdom (g) Species

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (g), (a), (e), (c), (b), (d), (f)
  • (B) (a), (c), (d), (g), (f), (b), (e)
  • (C) (g), (c), (d), (b), (e), (a), (f)
  • (D) (f), (c), (b), (g), (d), (e), (a)

Question 120:

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I: A. Marginal placentation, B. Axile placentation, C. Parietal placentation, D. Free central placentation

List-II: I. Argemone, II. Tomato, III. Primrose, IV. Pea

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
  • (B) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
  • (C) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  • (D) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
Correct Answer: (D) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Placentation refers to the mode of arrangement of ovules within the ovary of a flower. It serves as an important taxonomic feature to distinguish between different plant families.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

Let us match the placentation types with their representative examples:

1. Marginal Placentation (A): The placenta forms a ridge along the ventral suture of the ovary, and ovules are borne on this ridge in two rows. Typical of Fabaceae. Example: Pea.
\[ Marginal (A) \rightarrow Pea (IV) \]

2. Axile Placentation (B): The placenta is axial, and the ovules are attached to it in a multilocular ovary. Typical of Solanaceae and Liliaceae. Example: Tomato.
\[ Axile (B) \rightarrow Tomato (II) \]

3. Parietal Placentation (C): The ovules develop on the inner wall of the ovary or on peripheral parts. Example: Argemone and Mustard.
\[ Parietal (C) \rightarrow Argemone (I) \]

4. Free Central Placentation (D): The ovules are borne on a central axis, and septa are absent. Example: Dianthus and Primrose.
\[ Free Central (D) \rightarrow Primrose (III) \]

Combining all the matches:
\[ A \rightarrow IV, \quad B \rightarrow II, \quad C \rightarrow I, \quad D \rightarrow III \]


Step 4: Final Answer:

The correct matching sequence corresponds to Option (D).
Quick Tip: A useful tip:
- In parietal placentation, a false septum called a replum can sometimes form (seen in Mustard).
- Basal placentation (ovule at the base of a unilocular ovary) is seen in Sunflower and Marigold.


Question 121:

Sphenopsida class belongs to __________

  • (A) bryophytes
  • (B) angiosperms
  • (C) gymnosperms
  • (D) pteridophytes

Question 122:

Which of the following statements regarding photorespiration are correct?

(a) Do not occur in \( C_3 \) plants

(b) \( CO_2 \) is consumed and \( O_2 \) is generated

(c) Phosphoglycolate is formed

(d) No synthesis of ATP and NADPH

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (a) and (d) only
  • (B) (c) and (d) only
  • (C) (b) and (d) only
  • (D) (a) and (b) only

Question 123:

Smooth endoplasmic reticulum __________

  • (A) has ribosomes attached to its surface
  • (B) is the major site for the synthesis of lipids
  • (C) is actively involved in protein synthesis
  • (D) is a site for the synthesis of carbohydrates

Question 124:

Which one of the following statements is incorrect?

  • (A) \(\alpha\)-cells of pancreas secrete glucagon
  • (B) \(\alpha\)-cells of pancreas secrete insulin
  • (C) Glucagon stimulates glycogenolysis
  • (D) \(\beta\)-cells of pancreas secrete insulin

Question 125:

Genus represents __________

  • (A) an individual plant or animal
  • (B) a population of plants and animals
  • (C) a group of closely related species
  • (D) a group of closely related families

Question 126:

Which of the following is not a prokaryote?

  • (A) Bacteria
  • (B) Blue green algae
  • (C) Mycoplasma
  • (D) Fungi

Question 127:

Which of the following plant growth regulators promotes internode elongation prior to flowering in cabbage?

  • (A) Abscisic acid
  • (B) Gibberellin
  • (C) Indole butyric acid
  • (D) Ethephon

Question 128:

The correct sequence of adult cell cycle phases is __________

  • (A) G1-G2-S-M
  • (B) G1-M-G2-S
  • (C) G1-S-G2-M
  • (D) S-M-G2-G1

Question 129:

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I: A. Fusion of protoplasms between gametes, B. Fusion of two nuclei, C. Generation of haploid spores

List-II: I. Meiosis, II. Plasmogamy, III. Karyogamy

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A-II, B-III, C-I
  • (B) A-II, B-I, C-III
  • (C) A-III, B-II, C-I
  • (D) A-I, B-III, C-II
Correct Answer: (A) A-II, B-III, C-I
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Sexual reproduction in fungi and other simple organisms involves a specific, highly regulated sequence of cellular and nuclear fusion events followed by a reduction division.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

Let us match the reproductive events with their correct terms:

1. Fusion of protoplasms between gametes (A): The physical joining of the cytoplasm of two motile or non-motile gametes without the immediate fusion of their nuclei is called plasmogamy.
\[ A \rightarrow Plasmogamy (II) \]

2. Fusion of two nuclei (B): The subsequent fusion of the two haploid nuclei to form a single diploid zygotic nucleus is called karyogamy.
\[ B \rightarrow Karyogamy (III) \]

3. Generation of haploid spores (C): The diploid zygote undergoes a reduction division (meiosis) to produce haploid sexual spores.
\[ C \rightarrow Meiosis (I) \]

Combining all the matches:
\[ A \rightarrow II, \quad B \rightarrow III, \quad C \rightarrow I \]


Step 4: Final Answer:

The matching sequence corresponds to Option (A).
Quick Tip: In some fungi (like Ascomycetes and Basidiomycetes), plasmogamy is not immediately followed by karyogamy. This leads to a long-lasting, unique phase containing two nuclei per cell, known as the dikaryotic phase (\( n + n \)).


Question 130:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The class name Reptilia refers to creeping or crawling mode of locomotion.

Statement II: All organisms belonging to Reptilia have three chambered heart.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  • (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  • (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  • (D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Question 131:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Chromosomes are fully condensed at the end of prophase I.

Statement II: Meiosis II resembles mitosis.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (C) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is false
  • (D) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is true

Question 132:

Which of the following is not a characteristic of chordates?

  • (A) Presence of notochord
  • (B) Central nervous system is dorsal
  • (C) Absence of gills
  • (D) Presence of post anal tail (tail)

Question 133:

Length of the stem at time 0 is 20 cm. The arithmetic growth rate is 30 cm per day. What is the length of the stem at the end of the 7th day?

  • (A) 50 cm
  • (B) 170 cm
  • (C) 230 cm
  • (D) 460 cm

Question 134:

Arrange the following elements in descending order of their contribution to percentage weight of the human body.

(a) Oxygen (b) Carbon (c) Hydrogen (d) Nitrogen

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (a), (b), (c), (d)
  • (B) (c), (a), (b), (d)
  • (C) (b), (c), (d), (a)
  • (D) (b), (a), (c), (d)
Correct Answer: (A) (a), (b), (c), (d)
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

All living organisms are composed of various organic and inorganic elements.

The relative abundance of these major elements in the human body can be quantified as a percentage of total body weight.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

According to standard physiological data, the approximate elemental composition by mass in the human body is:

- Oxygen (O): \( \approx 65.0% \)

- Carbon (C): \( \approx 18.5% \)

- Hydrogen (H): \( \approx 10.5% \)

- Nitrogen (N): \( \approx 3.3% \)

Sorting these values from largest to smallest (descending order):
\[ 65.0% (Oxygen) > 18.5% (Carbon) > 10.5% (Hydrogen) > 3.3% (Nitrogen) \]

This gives the sequence:
\[ Oxygen (a) \rightarrow Carbon (b) \rightarrow Hydrogen (c) \rightarrow Nitrogen (d) \]


Step 4: Final Answer:

The descending order sequence is (a), (b), (c), (d), which corresponds to Option (A).
Quick Tip: Oxygen is the most abundant element by weight in both the human body and the Earth's crust. Carbon is the second most abundant in the body, reflecting the organic, carbon-based nature of life.


Question 135:

In frogs, the number of pairs of cranial nerves arising from the brain are __________

  • (A) 6
  • (B) 9
  • (C) 10
  • (D) 12

Question 136:

Which of the following is used as a clot buster?

  • (A) Streptokinase
  • (B) Penicillin
  • (C) Cyclosporin A
  • (D) Statins

Question 137:

The inactive form of Bt toxin is converted to the active form in the insect gut __________

  • (A) due to alkaline pH
  • (B) due to acidic pH
  • (C) by proteases
  • (D) by nucleases

Question 138:

Given below are two statements :

Statement I : Down’s syndrome is caused by the absence of one of the X-chromosomes.

Statement II : Turner’s syndrome is caused by the presence of an additional copy of the chromosomes.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

  • (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  • (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  • (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  • (D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Question 139:

Which of the following disease is not sexually transmitted?

  • (A) Syphilis
  • (B) Tuberculosis
  • (C) Gonorrhoea
  • (D) Genital warts

Question 140:

Sperm motility is due to __________

  • (A) flagellar movement
  • (B) ciliary movement
  • (C) amoeboid movement
  • (D) muscular movement

Question 141:

Natural selection can lead to

(a) stabilisation

(b) genetic drift

(c) directional change

(d) disruption

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (a) only
  • (B) (a), (c) and (d) only
  • (C) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
  • (D) (a) and (c) only

Question 142:

The method of directly injecting a sperm into ovum in assisted reproductive technology is called :

  • (A) Gamete intra fallopian transfer (GIFT)
  • (B) Zygote intra fallopian transfer (ZIFT)
  • (C) Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI)
  • (D) Embryo transfer (ET)

Question 143:

Which of the following structure is not a part of the male reproductive system?

  • (A) Rete testis
  • (B) Epididymis
  • (C) Vasa efferentia
  • (D) Infundibulum

Question 144:

Arrange the following in descending order of number of species in the Amazonian rain forest.

(a) Plants (b) Birds (c) Fishes (d) Invertebrates (e) Mammals

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (A) (c) > (b) > (d) > (e) > (a)
  • (B) (d) > (a) > (c) > (b) > (e)
  • (C) (e) > (b) > (a) > (c) > (d)
  • (D) (b) > (a) > (d) > (c) > (e)

Question 145:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Ovulation is caused by LH surge leading to rupture of Graafian follicles.

Statement II: Graafian follicle remaining after ovulation transform into corpus luteum and secretes large amount of estrogen.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  • (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  • (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  • (D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Question 146:

Which of the following are primary consumers in a food chain?

  • (A) Parasites
  • (B) Predators
  • (C) Herbivores
  • (D) Carnivores

Question 147:

A population of diploid organisms is at Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. If the frequency of allele A is 0.1, the frequency of AA is

  • (A) 0.01
  • (B) 0.02
  • (C) 0.10
  • (D) 0.99

Question 148:

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I: A. Excess growth hormone, B. Luteinizing hormone, C. Vasopressin, D. Oxytocin

List-II: I. Reabsorption of water and electrolytes in kidney, II. Contraction of uterus during child birth, III. Acromegaly, IV. Ovulation

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
  • (B) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • (C) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
  • (D) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

Question 149:

The opening between the right atrium and the right ventricle is guarded by

  • (A) bicuspid valve
  • (B) tricuspid valve
  • (C) semilunar valve
  • (D) sino-atrial node

Question 150:

Sponges exchange O\(_2\) with CO\(_2\) by

  • (A) simple diffusion over their entire body surfaces
  • (B) moist cuticle
  • (C) tracheal tubes
  • (D) gills

Question 151:

How many theca are present in each lobe of a typical bilobed angiosperm anther?

  • (A) 2
  • (B) 6
  • (C) 8
  • (D) 12

Question 152:

Muscle contraction is initiated by a signal sent by the central nervous system by the release of

  • (A) acetyl choline
  • (B) acetyl coenzyme A
  • (C) cyclic guanine monophosphate
  • (D) cyclic adenine monophosphate

Question 153:

Which of the following statements about lac-operon is correct?

  • (A) Gene i is constitutively expressed
  • (B) Lactose activates repressor to bind to the operator
  • (C) Genes i, z, y and a share single common promoter
  • (D) Galactose can act as an inducer of lac operon

Question 154:

Which of the following in female gametophyte of an angiosperm helps in guiding the pollen tube for fertilizing the eggs?

  • (A) Antipodals
  • (B) Synergids
  • (C) Central cells
  • (D) Polar nucleus

Question 155:

Which of the following plant produces non-albuminous seeds?

  • (A) Wheat
  • (B) Maize
  • (C) Barley
  • (D) Pea

Question 156:

If the diploid chromosome number of typical angiosperm is 36, what would be the chromosome number in its endosperm?

  • (A) 18
  • (B) 36
  • (C) 54
  • (D) 72

Question 157:

Which of the following statements about the reabsorption process in Henle’s loop are correct ?

(a) The descending limb of Henle’s loop is permeable to water but almost impermeable to electrolytes.

(b) Urine gets concentrated in Henle’s loop.

(c) Reabsorption of \( Na^+ \) and water takes place in Henle’s loop.

(d) Active or passive transport of electrolytes occurs in the ascending limb of Henle’s loop.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (A) (a) and (b) only
  • (B) (b), (c) and (d) only
  • (C) (a), (b) and (c) only
  • (D) (a), (b) and (d) only

Question 158:

Which of the following is the correct order of arrangement of vertebrate column from the head to toe ?

  • (A) Cervical vertebra, thoracic vertebra, sacrum, lumbar vertebra
  • (B) Sacrum, lumbar vertebra, thoracic vertebra, cervical vertebra
  • (C) Cervical vertebra, lumbar vertebra, thoracic vertebra, sacrum
  • (D) Cervical vertebra, thoracic vertebra, lumbar vertebra, sacrum

Question 159:

Which of the following is not evidence for evolution ?

  • (A) Convergent evolution of traits like wings of birds and butterflies
  • (B) Paleontological evidence from fossil records
  • (C) Embryological support for evolution as proposed by Ernst Haeckel
  • (D) Divergent evolution of anatomical structures such as forelimbs

Question 160:

Given below are two statements :

Statement I : Modern Homo sapiens arose in Africa and moved across continents.

Statement II : Homo sapiens arose around 75000 to 10000 years ago.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

  • (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  • (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  • (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  • (D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Question 161:

Consider a population of 10 million cells. Given the per-capita birth rate of 0.002 (per unit time) and the per-capita death rate of 0.002 (per unit time), the expected number of cells after 10 generations is:

  • (A) 1 million
  • (B) 5 million
  • (C) 10 million
  • (D) 100 million

Question 162:

During PCR, primers bind to the DNA strands in the ______ step.

  • (A) denaturation
  • (B) extension
  • (C) annealing
  • (D) ligation

Question 163:

Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A : The logistic growth model of populations is considered more realistic than the exponential growth model.

Reason R : Resources are finite.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

  • (A) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
  • (B) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
  • (C) A is correct but R is not correct
  • (D) A is not correct but R is correct

Question 164:

Adaptive radiation in placental mammals and Australian Marsupials leading to similarity between distant species is an example of

  • (A) divergent evolution
  • (B) convergent evolution
  • (C) founder effect
  • (D) genetic drift

Question 165:

Which of the following are secondary lymphoid organs?

(a) Bone marrow (b) Tonsils (c) Spleen (d) Thymus

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (A) (a) and (b) only
  • (B) (b) and (c) only
  • (C) (b) and (d) only
  • (D) (a) and (d) only

Question 166:

Which of the following hormone is not secreted by human placenta ?

  • (A) hCG
  • (B) Estrogen
  • (C) Progesterone
  • (D) LH

Question 167:

Which of the following enzymes synthesizes precursor mRNA ?

  • (A) RNA polymerase I
  • (B) RNA polymerase II
  • (C) RNA polymerase III
  • (D) DNA polymerase

Question 168:

Given below are two statements :

Statement I : Plasmids are autonomously replicating DNA.

Statement II : Plasmids are extrachromosomal DNA.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

  • (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  • (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  • (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  • (D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Question 169:

For a person with blood group 'O', which of the following is not a possible combination of parents' blood group genotypes ?

  • (A) Father : \(I^A i\) and Mother : \(I^A i\)
  • (B) Father : \(I^B i\) and Mother : \(I^B i\)
  • (C) Father : \(I^A I^B\) and Mother : \(I^A i\)
  • (D) Father : \(I^A i\) and Mother : \(I^B i\)

Question 170:

Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A : Forelimbs of human and bats are homologous.

Reason R : Forelimbs of humans and bats have similar anatomical structure.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

  • (A) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
  • (B) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
  • (C) A is true but R is false
  • (D) A is false but R is true

Question 171:

Colostrum, secreted by mother during initial days of lactation, is abundant in

  • (A) IgG
  • (B) IgM
  • (C) IgA
  • (D) IgD

Question 172:

Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A : Abingdon tortoise in Galapagos islands became extinct within a decade after goats were introduced.

Reason R : Goats were more efficient at browsing than Abingdon tortoise.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

  • (A) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
  • (B) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
  • (C) A is correct but R is not correct
  • (D) A is not correct but R is correct

Question 173:

The covering of ovum at ovulation is

  • (A) endometrium
  • (B) zona radiata
  • (C) zona pellucida
  • (D) chorion

Question 174:

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I: A. Both species are harmed, B. One species is harmed and the other is benefited, C. Both species are benefited, D. One is benefited while the other has no effect

List-II: I. Predation, II. Mutualism, III. Competition, IV. Commensalism

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (A) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
  • (B) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  • (C) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
  • (D) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

Question 175:

Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A : In an experiment, Mendel observed that the F1 progeny plants are all tall and none are dwarf.

Reason R : Stem height is a contrasting trait, with tall being dominant and dwarf being recessive.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

  • (A) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
  • (B) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
  • (C) A is correct but R is not correct
  • (D) A is not correct but R is correct

Question 176:

Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A : In recombinant DNA technology, lysozyme is used for disrupting bacterial cells while cellulase is used for plant cells.

Reason R : Isolation of genetic material needs disruption of cells.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

  • (A) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
  • (B) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
  • (C) A is correct but R is not correct
  • (D) A is not correct but R is correct

Question 177:

Which of the following is used as an effective sedative and painkiller for treating post-surgery patients ?

  • (A) Interferon
  • (B) Antibiotics
  • (C) Morphine
  • (D) Anti-retroviral drugs

Question 178:

Which of the following statements are correct ?

(a) Energy flow from producers to consumers is unidirectional

(b) Energy pyramid can never be inverted

(c) Transfer of energy follows the 1% law

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (A) (a), (b) and (c)
  • (B) (a) and (b) only
  • (C) (a) and (c) only
  • (D) (b) and (c) only

Question 179:

Which of the following statements is correct about Plasmodium ?

  • (A) Reproduces sexually in liver cells
  • (B) Reproduces sexually in RBCs
  • (C) Gametocytes develop in mosquito gut
  • (D) Fertilization takes place in mosquito gut

Question 180:

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I: A. Transformation, B. Cloning site, C. Selection, D. Ori

List-II: I. Restriction enzyme, II. Transfer DNA to host bacteria, III. Replication, IV. Antibiotic

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (A) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
  • (B) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
  • (C) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
  • (D) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II

RE-NEET 2026 Paper Analysis

*The article might have information for the previous academic years, please refer the official website of the exam.

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