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Content Curator | Updated On - Jul 3, 2026

NTA conducted the RE-NEET 2026 Code 60 Exam on June 21 in a single shift from 2:00 PM to 5:15 PM in PBT Mode.

The RE-NEET 2026 Code 60 Exam Question Paper consisted of 3 sections: Physics, Chemistry, and Biology (Botany & Zoology)  with 180 Questions carrying a total of 720 Marks, as per the NEET Marking Scheme, +4 Marks for every correct answer, and -1 mark will be deducted for every wrong answer.

RE-NEET 2026 Code 60 Question Paper with Solution PDF is available here for download.

RE-NEET 2026 Code 60 Question Paper with Solution PDF

RE-NEET 2026 Code 60 Question Paper Download PDF Check Solutions

Question 1:

An ac voltage \( V = 220 \sin(2 \times 10^3 t) Volt \) is applied to a series LCR circuit. Then the current amplitude in this circuit is: (Given: \( L = 10 mH \), \( C = 25\ \muF \), \( R = 100\ \Omega \))

  • (A) \( 11.0 A \)
  • (B) \( 22.0 A \)
  • (C) \( 2.2 A \)
  • (D) \( 5.5 A \)

Question 2:

The mean free path of molecules in an ideal gas A is half that of another ideal gas B. The diameter of the spherical molecules of gas A is twice the diameter of the molecules of gas B. If number densities of the gases A and B are \( n_A \) and \( n_B \), respectively, then the correct option is:

  • (A) \( n_A = \frac{1}{4} n_B \)
  • (B) \( n_A = \frac{1}{2} n_B \)
  • (C) \( n_A = n_B \)
  • (D) \( n_A = 2 n_B \)

Question 3:

A cylindrical cork of uniform density floats in a liquid of density \( \rho_1 \). If the cork is depressed slightly and released, it oscillates harmonically with time period T. If the same cork floats in another liquid of density \( \rho_2 \), then the similar oscillation has time period 2T. The value of \( \rho_2/\rho_1 \) is:

  • (A) 1/2
  • (B) 1/4
  • (C) 4
  • (D) 2

Question 4:

Consider a spring-mass simple harmonic oscillator in one dimension. The mass of the particle is \( m kg \) and the spring constant is \( k Nm^{-1} \). At a given instant, the extension of the spring is \( x meter \) and the speed of the particle is \( v ms^{-1} \). On the \( x - v \) plane, if the graph of \( v \) as a function of \( x \) is a circle, then the correct option is:

  • (A) \( k = m^2 \)
  • (B) \( k = \sqrt{m} \)
  • (C) \( k = 1/m \)
  • (D) \( k = m \)

Question 5:

In an adiabatic expansion, the temperature of one mole of an ideal monatomic gas (\(\gamma = 5/3\)) decreases from 60K to 50K. The work done by the gas in the process is: (Take the universal gas constant as \( R = 8.3 J mol^{-1}K^{-1} \))

  • (A) 124.5 J
  • (B) 166 J
  • (C) 41.5 J
  • (D) 83 J

Question 6:

The following table presents the part of the electromagnetic spectrum and their corresponding major applications.


{{EM Spectrum Part}} & {{Applications}}

{P} & Microwave & {I} & For purifying the water

{Q} & UV rays & {II} & For warming the food

{R} & Gamma rays & {III} & For AM and FM communication systems

{S} & Radio wave & {IV} & For treating the Cancer cells


The correct option is:

  • (A) P-II, Q-I, R-IV, S-III
  • (B) P-II, Q-IV, R-III, S-I
  • (C) P-I, Q-II, R-III, S-IV
  • (D) P-I, Q-IV, R-II, S-III

Question 7:

A unit positive point charge is taken slowly through an infinitesimally thin tube that is inside a charged dielectric sphere of radius \( R \), having uniform positive charge density \( \rho \). The initial and final positions of the charge are marked by A and B at distances \( 2R \) and \( 3R \) respectively, from the centre of the sphere. In this process, the magnitude of the total work done on the point charge is \( \frac{\rho R^2}{n \epsilon_0} \). The value of \( n \) is :

  • (A) \( 9 \)
  • (B) \( 18 \)
  • (C) \( 2 \)
  • (D) \( 6 \)

Question 8:

A beam of light falls on a metal surface such that photo-electrons are generated. If power of the light source starts to decrease linearly with time \( t \), then variation of the photocurrent \( I \) and magnitude of the stopping potential \( |V| \) with time is best represented by :

  • (A) (1)
  • (B) (2)
  • (C) (3)
  • (D) (4)

Question 9:

Bob B of mass \( m \) at rest is hanging vertically from the ceiling via a massless string of length \( 10 m \). Point mass A of mass \( m \) travelling horizontally with speed \( 10 m s^{-1} \) hits bob B elastically. The bob B rises \( h \) meter after the collision. Taking \( g = 10 m s^{-2} \), the value of \( h \) is :

  • (A) 5
  • (B) 2.5
  • (C) 8
  • (D) 7

Question 10:

An ideal gas is made of polyatomic molecules. Each of the molecules has three translational, three rotational and \( f \) number of vibrational modes. If the ratio of heat capacities \( C_p/C_v \) of the gas is 8/7, then the value of \( f \) is :

  • (A) 2
  • (B) 1
  • (C) 4
  • (D) 3

Question 11:

In the measurement of viscosity of liquids using terminal velocity experiment, spherical balls of same radius but having different densities are used. The variation of the terminal velocity \( v \) with the ratio of density of spherical ball \(\sigma\) to density of the liquid \(\rho\), is best represented by :

  • (A) (1)
  • (B) (2)
  • (C) (3)
  • (D) (4)

Question 12:

In a solar system, the time-period of revolution of a planet tracing a circular orbit of radius \( R \) is proportional to :

  • (A) \( R^2 \)
  • (B) \( R^3 \)
  • (C) \( R^{1/2} \)
  • (D) \( R^{3/2} \)

Question 13:

A solid sphere A of radius \( R \) and mass \( M \) is attached at a point to a smaller solid sphere B of radius \( r < R \) and mass \( m < M \). Assume that the line joining their centres lies along the horizontal. The moment of inertia of the system calculated about a vertical axis passing through the centre of A is \( I_A \) and that calculated about a vertical axis passing through the centre of B is \( I_B \). The difference \( I_A - I_B \) is :

  • (A) \( (m-M)(R-r)^2 \)
  • (B) 0
  • (C) \( (M-m)(R+r)^2 \)
  • (D) \( (m-M)(R+r)^2 \)

Question 14:

Consider the following nuclear reaction : \[ ^{238}U \rightarrow \,^{234}Th + \,^4He \] Take masses of \(^{238}U\), \(^{234}Th\) and \(^4He\) as \(238.050 u\), \(234.043 u\) and \(4.003 u\) respectively. The Q-value for the reaction, in \(keV\), is : [Given: \(1 u = 931.5 MeV c^{-2}\)]

  • (A) 3736
  • (B) 3740
  • (C) 3726
  • (D) 3730

Question 15:

Consider a fixed uniformly charged insulating sphere with radius \(R\) and total charge \(+Q\). A point charge \(-q\) (\(q \ll Q\)) with mass \(m\) is released from rest at a distance of \(3R\) from the centre of the charged sphere. When the point charge reaches the surface of the sphere, its speed is : (\(\epsilon_0\) is the permittivity of vacuum, neglect gravitational forces).

  • (A) \(\sqrt{\frac{Qq}{3\pi\epsilon_0 m R}}\)
  • (B) \(\sqrt{\frac{Qq}{4\pi\epsilon_0 m R}}\)
  • (C) \(\sqrt{\frac{3Qq}{4\pi\epsilon_0 m R}}\)
  • (D) \(\sqrt{\frac{2Qq}{3\pi\epsilon_0 m R}}\)

Question 16:

Consider two circuits, (A) and (B), each having two resistors. One of them has a positive temperature coefficient of resistance, \(+\alpha\), while the other one has a negative temperature coefficient of resistance, \(-\alpha\), as shown in the figure. The current through these circuits are denoted by \(I_A\) and \(I_B\). At initial temperature, the resistance of the two resistors is \(R_0\). As the temperature is increased, the correct option that describes the variation of current in these circuits is :

  • (A) \(I_A\) increases while \(I_B\) decreases
  • (B) both \(I_A\) and \(I_B\) remain constant
  • (C) \(I_A\) remains constant while \(I_B\) increases
  • (D) \(I_A\) decreases while \(I_B\) increases

Question 17:

A conducting loop of finite resistance lies on the \(x-y\) plane. There is a constant magnetic field in the \(z\) direction. The area of the loop varies with time \(t\), as \(A = A_0(1+\sin t)\) in appropriate units. The figure that correctly indicates the qualitative behaviour of the power \(P\) dissipated in the loop as a function of time is :

  • (A) (1)
  • (B) (2)
  • (C) (3)
  • (D) (4)

Question 18:

A photon and an electron, each of \(20 eV\) energy, move in free space. The ratio of linear momentum of electron \(p_e\) to that of photon \(p_{ph}\) is : (Take speed of light = \(3 \times 10^8 ms^{-1}\), charge of electron = \(1.6 \times 10^{-19} C\) and mass of electron = \(9 \times 10^{-31} kg\))

  • (A) 225
  • (B) 275
  • (C) \(\frac{2}{450}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{1}{250}\)

Question 19:

Consider that \(\sigma_s, k_B, b\) represent Stefan-Boltzmann constant, Boltzmann constant and Wien’s displacement law constant, respectively. The dimension of \(\sigma_s k_B^{-1} b\) is :

  • (A) \([L^{-1}T^{-1}K^{-3}]\)
  • (B) \([L^{-1}T^{-1}K^{-4}]\)
  • (C) \([L^{-1}T^{-1}K^{-2}]\)
  • (D) \([L^{-1}K^{-2}]\)

Question 20:

Two infinitely long parallel conducting wires A and B carry currents \(I\) and \(2I\), respectively, in the same direction. The wire A has uniform mass per unit length \(\lambda\) and lies on an insulated floor. The wire B is fixed at a height \(h\) above the floor. The minimum magnitude of \(h\) so that the wire A does not rise from the floor is : [\(g\) is the acceleration due to gravity and \(\mu_0\) is the permeability of free space.]

  • (A) \(\frac{2\mu_0 I^2}{\pi \lambda g}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{4\mu_0 I^2}{\pi \lambda g}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{\mu_0 I^2}{2\pi \lambda g}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{\mu_0 I^2}{\pi \lambda g}\)

Question 21:

Which of the following measurements require 'index correction' ?

  • (A) Measurement of focal length of lenses using optical bench
  • (B) Measurement of speed of sound using resonance tube
  • (C) Measurement of resistance of a wire using meter bridge
  • (D) Measurement of gravitational acceleration using simple pendulum

Question 22:

Two identical inductors are connected in two different configurations P and Q, where a time varying current \( I(t) \) is flowing, as shown in the figure. The induced emf between points \( a \) and \( b \) for configuration P is \( E_P \) and that for configuration Q is \( E_Q \). The ratio \( E_P/E_Q \) is : [Neglect the effect of mutual inductance.]

  • (A) \( 1 \)
  • (B) \( 2 \)
  • (C) \( 1/4 \)
  • (D) \( 1/2 \)

Question 23:

Three identical p-n junction diodes \( D_1 \), \( D_2 \) and \( D_3 \) are connected across a battery as shown in the figure. If the width of the depletion regions of \( D_1 \), \( D_2 \) and \( D_3 \) are \( W_1 \), \( W_2 \) and \( W_3 \), respectively, then the correct option is :

  • (A) \( W_3 > W_2 > W_1 \)
  • (B) \( W_2 > W_1 = W_3 \)
  • (C) \( W_1 > W_2 > W_3 \)
  • (D) \( W_3 = W_1 > W_2 \)

Question 24:

Three identical capacitors P, Q and S, each of the capacitance C, are connected to a battery of voltage V as shown in the figure. If the energy stored in the capacitor P and total energy stored in the system are \( U_P \) and \( U_T \), respectively, then the ratio \( U_P/U_T \) is :

  • (A) 1/2
  • (B) 1/6
  • (C) 2/3
  • (D) 1/3

Question 25:

A thin horizontal disc is rotating about a vertical axis passing through its fixed centre O. Its angular momentum is \( L_A \) and \( L_B \) computed about points A and B, respectively, with \( OB = 2\times OA \). The value of \( L_A/L_B \) is :

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 1/4
  • (D) 1/2

Question 26:

An ideal Zener diode with breakdown voltage of \( -3 V \) is reverse biased with a negative input voltage \( V_i = -5 V \). The magnitude of voltage difference between points B and A is :

  • (A) 1 V
  • (B) 0 V
  • (C) 3 V
  • (D) 2 V

Question 27:

Water flows in a streamline motion through a horizontal pipe of circular cross-section as shown in the figure. The pressure difference of water between P and Q is \( 15 Nm^{-2} \). The area of cross-section at P and Q are \( 40 cm^2 \) and \( 20 cm^2 \), respectively. The rate of flow of water through the pipe, in \( cm^3s^{-1} \), is : [Take density of water = \( 1000 kg m^{-3} \)]

  • (A) 300
  • (B) 400
  • (C) 100
  • (D) 200

Question 28:

\(A particle of mass \( M \) moves along a horizontal \( x \) axis from \( x = 0 \) to \( x = L \). The coefficient of kinetic friction varies as a function of \( x \) as \( \mu_k(x) = \mu_0 - \alpha x , where \mu_0, \alpha are constants, so that \mu_k(L) = 0 . The total work done by the frictional force during the motion is n \mu_0 M g L . The value of n is :\)

  • (A) 1/3
  • (B) 1/2
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 1

Question 29:

A ray of light with wavelength \( \lambda \) is incident on three different photo-electric cells namely 1, 2 and 3. The threshold wavelength of these cells are \( \lambda_1, \lambda_2 \) and \( \lambda_3 \), respectively and the stopping potentials are \( V_1, V_2 \) and \( V_3 \). The relation between \( \lambda \) and threshold wavelengths are \( \lambda_1 < \lambda, \lambda_2 > \lambda \) and \( \lambda_3 \gg \lambda \). The correct option is :

  • (A) \( V_1 > V_2 \), \( V_3 = 0 \)
  • (B) \( V_1 < V_2 \), \( V_3 = 0 \)
  • (C) \( V_1 = 0 \), \( V_2 < V_3 \)
  • (D) \( V_1 = 0 \), \( V_2 > V_3 \)

Question 30:

Consider that an electron is revolving in an excited state of Hydrogen atom with velocity \( \sqrt{25.6} \times 10^5 ms^{-1} \). The radius of the orbit is \( x \times 10^{-9} m \). The value of \( x \) is : [Take \( m_e = 9 \times 10^{-31} kg \), \( e = 1.6 \times 10^{-19} C \), \( k = 9 \times 10^9 N m^2C^{-2} \)]

  • (A) 2
  • (B) 1
  • (C) 4
  • (D) 3

Question 31:

A car travels on a circular racetrack of radius \( 50 m \), which is banked at an angle \( \theta \). If the car travels at a speed \( 10 ms^{-1} \), then the wear and tear on its tyres is minimum. Taking \( g = 10 ms^{-2} \), the value of \( \theta \) is :

  • (A) \( \tan^{-1}(\sqrt{3}/2) \)
  • (B) \( \tan^{-1}(2\sqrt{3}) \)
  • (C) \( \tan^{-1}(1/5) \)
  • (D) \( \tan^{-1}(2/5) \)

Question 32:

One mole of an ideal monatomic gas undergoes a cyclic process as shown in the figure. The total heat supplied to the gas is :

  • (A) 600 J
  • (B) 800 J
  • (C) 400 J
  • (D) 500 J

Question 33:

A frictionless circular wire of unit radius is fixed on the horizontal plane. Two point particles of unit mass start moving simultaneously from point A(\( \theta = \pi/2 \)) with identical uniform angular speeds in opposite directions, and meet again at point B(\( \theta = -\pi/2 \)). During this time, which of the following figures schematically represent the magnitude of the total linear momentum \( P \) of the system, as a function of \( \theta \) ?

  • (A) (1)
  • (B) (2)
  • (C) (3)
  • (D) (4)

Question 34:

The lens combination consists of two lenses, \( L_1 \) and \( L_2 \), of the focal lengths \( +10 cm \) and \( -10 cm \), respectively. The position of the image formed is :

  • (A) 30 cm to the right of the concave lens
  • (B) 60 cm to the right of the concave lens
  • (C) 20 cm to the left of the concave lens
  • (D) 60 cm to the left of the concave lens

Question 35:

Two planets \( P_1 \) and \( P_2 \) with equal mass have radii \( R_1 \) and \( R_2 \), where \( R_2 = R_1/2 \). The escape speeds of \( P_1 \) and \( P_2 \) are \( v_1 \) and \( v_2 \), respectively. Then \( v_2/v_1 \) is :

  • (A) \( \sqrt{2} \)
  • (B) 2
  • (C) \( 1/\sqrt{2} \)
  • (D) 1

Question 36:

An electromagnetic wave travelling in a lossless dielectric medium having a lossless dielectric constant, \( \epsilon_r = 9 \), has the electric field, \( E_x = E_0 \sin(kz - 2\pi \times 10^6 t) Vm^{-1} \), where \( E_0 \) is the amplitude and \( k \) is the wave vector. Among the following options, the incorrect choice is :

  • (A) The magnetic field is given by the relation \( By = \frac{B_0}{v} \sin(kz - 2\pi \times 10^6 t) \)
  • (B) The direction of propagation of the electromagnetic wave is along \( +z \)
  • (C) The speed of the electromagnetic wave inside the medium is \( 10^8 ms^{-1} \)
  • (D) The wavelength of the electromagnetic wave inside the medium is 300 m

Question 37:

Consider a particle moving along a straight line, whose position as a function of time is given by \( s(t) = \alpha t^2 - \beta t + \gamma \), where \( \alpha = 1 ms^{-2}, \beta = 6 ms^{-1} \) and \( \gamma = 5 m \). The average speed of the particle, in \( ms^{-1} \), from \( t = 0 s \) to \( t = 6 s \) is :

  • (A) 3
  • (B) 0
  • (C) 12
  • (D) 6

Question 38:

In Geiger-Marsden experiment, the number of scattered \(\alpha\)-particles \( N(\theta) \) is plotted as a function of scattering angle \(\theta\). Which of the following options represents the correct plot ?

  • (A) (1)
  • (B) (2)
  • (C) (3)
  • (D) (4)

Question 39:

For sound waves, if the number of nodes for the \( 5^{th} \) harmonic of an open-ended pipe is \( n \) and that for the \( 9^{th} \) harmonic of the same pipe with one of its ends closed is \( m \), the ratio \( \frac{n}{m} \) is :

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 3/5
  • (C) 5/9
  • (D) 9/5

Question 40:

Consider a long solenoid of length \( l \) and radius \( R \). If \( n \) is the number of turns per unit length and \( \mu_0 \) is the permeability of free space, the inductance of the solenoid is :

  • (A) \( (\mu_0/2\pi)n^2r^2l \)
  • (B) \( 2\mu_0\pi n^2 r^2 l \)
  • (C) \( \mu_0\pi n^2 r^2 l \)
  • (D) \( \mu_0 n^2 r^2 l \)

Question 41:

A current \( I_0 \) flows through a metallic circular loop of radius \( r \) as shown in the figure. Resistance of the segment ABC is half that of ADC. Magnitude of magnetic field at the center O of the loop is :

  • (A) \(\frac{\mu_0 I_0}{2r}\)
  • (B) \(0\)
  • (C) \(\frac{\mu_0 I_0}{12r}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{\mu_0 I_0}{4r}\)

Question 42:

The temperature of a metallic sphere of radius \( R \) is increased by a small amount \( \Delta T \). If the linear coefficient of thermal expansion of the metal is \( \alpha \), the approximate increase in the volume of the sphere is :

  • (A) \( 4\pi R^3 \alpha \Delta T \)
  • (B) \( 6\pi R^3 \alpha \Delta T \)
  • (C) \( 2\pi R^3 \alpha \Delta T \)
  • (D) \( 3\pi R^3 \alpha \Delta T \)

Question 43:

One main scale division of a Vernier calliper is equal to \( 1 mm \) and the number of divisions on the Vernier scale is \( 10 \). When both the jaws touch each other, the Vernier scale shifts to the left of zero of the main scale in such a way that \( 4^{th} \) Vernier division coincides with a division of the main scale. If this Vernier calliper measures the length of a wire to be \( 1 cm \), the actual length of the wire is:

  • (A) \( 1.00 cm \)
  • (B) \( 1.04 cm \)
  • (C) \( 0.60 cm \)
  • (D) \( 0.96 cm \)

Question 44:

Consider three media P, Q and R with refractive indices \( 1 \), \( 1.25 \) and \( 1.5 \), respectively. The medium Q, having a thickness of \( 5 cm \), is placed between extended media P and R as shown in the figure. An object O is placed at the centre of medium Q. If viewed from medium P near the normal direction, the apparent depth is \( h_1 \). For similar observation from medium R, the apparent depth is \( h_2 \). The value of \( |h_1 - h_2| \) in cm is :

  • (A) \( 2 \)
  • (B) \( 3 \)
  • (C) \( 0 \)
  • (D) \( 1 \)

Question 45:

A point charge Q is placed inside a cavity within a solid isolated conducting sphere. Consider points A, B and C as shown in the figure, where the magnitudes of the electric fields are \( E_A \), \( E_B \), and \( E_C \), respectively. The points B and C are at the same distance from the center of the solid sphere. The correct option is:

  • (A) \( E_A = 0, E_B > E_C \)
  • (B) \( E_A \neq 0, E_B < E_C \)
  • (C) \( E_A = 0, E_B = E_C \)
  • (D) \( E_A \neq 0, E_B = E_C \)

Question 46:

The lanthanide ion having four unpaired electrons is (Given: Atomic numbers of Ce = 58, Nd = 60, Tb = 65 and Ho = 67):

  • (A) \( Tb^{3+} \)
  • (B) \( Ho^{3+} \)
  • (C) \( Nd^{3+} \)
  • (D) \( Ce^{3+} \)

Question 47:

The standard electrode potential (\(E^\circ\)) for the half-cell reaction \(Fe^{3+} + e^- \rightarrow Fe^{2+}\) at \(298 K\) is: (Given: \(E^\circ(Fe^{3+}/Fe) = -0.04 V\) and \(E^\circ(Fe^{2+}/Fe) = -0.44 V\))

  • (A) \( -0.48 V \)
  • (B) \( +0.92 V \)
  • (C) \( +0.40 V \)
  • (D) \( +0.76 V \)

Question 48:

Given below are two statements:

Statement-I: Heating NaCl with concentrated \( H_2SO_4 \) and \( MnO_2 \) results in oxidation of Mn.

Statement-II: Heating NaI with concentrated \( H_2SO_4 \) and \( MnO_2 \) results in reduction of Mn.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
  • (B) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
  • (C) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.
  • (D) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.

Question 49:

The complex which has facial and meridional isomers is (Given: py = pyridine and en = \( H_2N-CH_2-CH_2-NH_2 \)):

  • (A) \( [Co(NH_3)_4(H_2O)_2]^{3+} \)
  • (B) \( [Ni(en)_2(H_2O)_2]^{2+} \)
  • (C) \( [Cr(py)_3(Cl)_3] \)
  • (D) \( [Cr(H_2O)_6]^{3+} \)

Question 50:

Among the following, the compound having conjugated double bonds is:

  • (A) hepta-1,5-diene
  • (B) hepta-1,6-diene
  • (C) hepta-1,3-diene
  • (D) hepta-1,4-diene

Question 51:

Match the species in List I with their geometry in List II:



Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
  • (B) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
  • (C) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
  • (D) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

Question 52:

The amino acid that gives a red-blood colour on treating its sodium fusion extract with sodium nitroprusside is:

  • (A) methionine
  • (B) serine
  • (C) leucine
  • (D) threonine

Question 53:

A protein undergoes reversible thermal denaturation from its initial state N to denatured state D according to \(N \rightleftharpoons D\). At \(60^\circC\), the concentrations of both N and D are equal at equilibrium, and the standard enthalpy change of denaturation is \(666 kJ mol^{-1}\). The standard entropy change (\(\Delta S^\circ\) in \(kJ K^{-1}mol^{-1}\)) of the protein upon denaturation at \(60^\circC\) is closest to:

  • (A) 333.0
  • (B) 11.1
  • (C) 2.0
  • (D) 2000.0

Question 54:

\(2A \xrightarrow{k} B\) is a zero-order reaction, where \(k = 1.0 mol L^{-1} min^{-1}\). If the initial concentration of A is \(2 M\), then the time taken to complete \(75%\) of the reaction will be:

  • (A) 1.0 min
  • (B) 2.0 min
  • (C) 1.5 min
  • (D) 0.75 min

Question 55:

Given below are two statements:

Statement-I: [Fe(ox)\(_3]\)^{3- is chiral.

Statement-II: trans-[Cr(H\(_2\)O)\(_2\)(ox)\(_2\)]\(^-\) is chiral.

(Given: oxH\(_2\) = HOOC - COOH)

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
  • (B) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
  • (C) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.
  • (D) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.

Question 56:

Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A : Generally, 3d transition metals have high melting points.

Reason R : Involvement of 3d-electrons in addition to 4s-electrons in the interatomic metallic bonding.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A is correct but R is not correct.
  • (B) A is not correct but R is correct.
  • (C) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
  • (D) Both A and R are correct and R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Question 57:

Among the species given below, the spin-only magnetic moment is highest for (Given : Atomic number of Ti = 22, Mn = 25, Fe = 26 and Co = 27):

  • (A) \( [Co(NH_3)_6]^{3+} \)
  • (B) \( [Ti(H_2O)_6]^{3+} \)
  • (C) \( [Mn(CN)_6]^{3-} \)
  • (D) \( [Fe(CN)_6]^{3-} \)

Question 58:

According to crystal field theory, the correct order of ligands with respect to their decreasing order of field strength is:

  • (A) \( Cl^- > H_2O > NH_3 > CO \)
  • (B) \( Cl^- > NH_3 > H_2O > CO \)
  • (C) \( CO > NH_3 > H_2O > Cl^- \)
  • (D) \( CO > H_2O > NH_3 > Cl^- \)

Question 59:

In potash alum, the ratio of \( K^+ \) and \( SO_4^{2-} \) ions is:

  • (A) \( 2:3 \)
  • (B) \( 3:2 \)
  • (C) \( 1:2 \)
  • (D) \( 2:1 \)

Question 60:

Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A : The first ionization enthalpy of O is lower than that of N and F.

Reason R : The loss of an electron from O leads to stable half-filled p orbital.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A is correct but R is not correct.
  • (B) A is not correct but R is correct.
  • (C) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
  • (D) Both A and R are correct and R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Question 61:

Given below are two statements:

Statement-I : Oxidation of p-nitrotoluene with acidic \( KMnO_4 \) gives an acid that is stronger than benzoic acid.

Statement-II : Reduction of p-nitrotoluene with Sn/HCl followed by neutralization gives an amine that is more basic than aniline.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
  • (B) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
  • (C) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.
  • (D) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.

Question 62:

The following carbocation is stabilized by the interaction of the empty p orbital with:

  • (A) empty \( \sigma^* \) and filled \( \pi \) orbitals
  • (B) empty \( \sigma^* \) and empty \( \pi^* \) orbitals
  • (C) filled \( \sigma \) and filled \( \pi \) orbitals
  • (D) empty \( \sigma \) and empty \( \pi^* \) orbitals

Question 63:

Consider the following schematic plots of orbital wavefunction (\( \psi_r \)) against distance (\( r \)) from the nucleus. The figure representing two radial nodes in the orbital is:

  • (A) C
  • (B) D
  • (C) A
  • (D) B

Question 64:

The correct order of solubility of the given salts in water at 298 K is:

  • (A) \( Hg_2Cl_2 > AgBr > Zn(OH)_2 \)
  • (B) \( Zn(OH)_2 > AgBr > Hg_2Cl_2 \)
  • (C) \( Hg_2Cl_2 > Zn(OH)_2 > AgBr \)
  • (D) \( AgBr > Zn(OH)_2 > Hg_2Cl_2 \)

Question 65:

A 1:3 electrolyte in an aqueous solution is:

  • (A) \( [Co(NH_3)_6]Cl_3 \)
  • (B) \( [Co(NH_3)_3(NO_2)_3] \)
  • (C) \( [CoCl_2(NH_3)_4]Cl \)
  • (D) \( [CoCl(NH_3)_5]Cl_2 \)

Question 66:

The correct statement about peptides and proteins is

  • (A) In \(\beta\)-pleated sheet structures, peptide chains are held together by intermolecular hydrogen bonds.
  • (B) In \(\alpha\)-helices, the polypeptide chain is twisted into a left-handed screw (helix) through intramolecular hydrogen bonds.
  • (C) Tertiary structure of proteins has two or more polypeptide subunits.
  • (D) Only the proteins having a quaternary structure are biologically active.

Question 67:

One of the products formed in the following reaction is









  • (A) figA
  • (B) figB
  • (C) figC
  • (D) figD

Question 68:

In an acidic medium, 10 mL of 0.25 M oxalic acid is titrated with \(KMnO_4\) solution. If the volume of \(KMnO_4\) solution required to reach end point is 10 mL, the strength of the \(KMnO_4\) solution is

  • (A) 0.25 M
  • (B) 0.15 M
  • (C) 0.10 M
  • (D) 0.20 M

Question 69:

Consider the following reaction sequences and choose the correct option.

  • (A) M and N are geometrical isomers
  • (B) M and N are stereoisomers
  • (C) K and L are geometrical isomers
  • (D) K and L are enantiomers

Question 70:

Arrange the following compounds in the increasing order of polarity:

A. \( CH_3CH_2OCH_2CH_3 \)

B. \( CH_3CH_2OH \)

C. \( CH_3COCH_3 \)

D. \( CH_3COOH \)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) C < A < B < D
  • (B) A < C < B < D
  • (C) A < B < C < D
  • (D) C < A < D < B

Question 71:

Consider the reversible processes for 1.0 mol of an ideal gas as shown in the figure. Processes 2 and 4 are adiabatic. \(w_1\), \(w_2\), \(w_3\) and \(w_4\) represent work done (in calories) in the processes 1, 2, 3 and 4, respectively; \(\Delta U_2\) and \(\Delta U_4\) are changes in the internal energy for the processes 2 and 4, respectively. [use R = 2 cal K-1 mol-1] The correct option is

  • (A) \( w_1 + w_2 = 2T_1 \ln \frac{V_2}{V_1} \)
  • (B) \( w_1 + w_2 + w_3 + w_4 = 0 \)
  • (C) \( w_1 + w_3 = -2T_1 \ln \frac{V_2}{V_1} - 2T_2 \ln \frac{V_4}{V_3} \)
  • (D) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

Question 72:

The green paramagnetic species formed by heating \(KMnO_4\) at 513 K is

  • (A) MnO
  • (B) \(KO_2\)
  • (C) \(K_2MnO_4\)
  • (D) \(Mn_3O_4\)

Question 73:

The numbers 17.0145 and 21.0235 were rounded to three figures after the decimal point. The resulting numbers, respectively, are

  • (A) 17.014 and 21.024
  • (B) 17.015 and 21.024
  • (C) 17.014 and 21.023
  • (D) 17.015 and 21.023

Question 74:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I : trans-But-2-ene upon treatment with \( Br_2 \) in \( CCl_4 \) gives the following product: (meso-2,3-dibromobutane).

Statement II : cis-But-2-ene upon treatment with alkaline \( KMnO_4 \) gives the following product: (meso-butane-2,3-diol).

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:




  • (A) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  • (B) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
  • (C) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  • (D) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

Question 75:

Consider the following reaction, and choose the correct option.

(where toluene is reacted with chromyl chloride in the presence of \( CS_2 \), followed by acidic hydrolysis to yield compound P)

  • (A) On treatment with bromine water, compound P gives a white precipitate.
  • (B) Compound P is obtained by the hydrogenation of benzoyl chloride with Pd on \( BaSO_4 \).
  • (C) On treating compound P with saturated \( NaHCO_3 \) solution, brisk effervescence is observed.
  • (D) Compound P can be prepared by treating benzene with anhydrous \( AlCl_3 \) and \( CH_3COCl \).
Correct Answer: (B) Compound P is obtained by the hydrogenation of benzoyl chloride with Pd on BaSO4.
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The oxidation of toluene using chromyl chloride (\( CrO_2Cl_2 \)) in a non-polar solvent like \( CS_2 \), followed by hydrolysis, is a named reaction called the Etard Reaction.

This reaction selectively oxidizes the benzylic methyl group to an aldehyde, stopping at the benzaldehyde stage.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

- Step 1: Identify compound P:

The Etard reaction sequence is:
\[ C_6H_5CH_3 + 2CrO_2Cl_2 \xrightarrow{CS_2} C_6H_5CH[OCr(OH)Cl_2]_2 \xrightarrow{H_3O^+} C_6H_5CHO (P) \]

Hence, compound P is conclusively Benzaldehyde.

- Step 2: Evaluating Option (A)

Option (A) states that compound P gives a white precipitate with bromine water. Phenol (\( C_6H_5OH \)) and aniline (\( C_6H_5NH_2 \)) react rapidly with bromine water via electrophilic aromatic substitution to form a white precipitate of 2,4,6-tribromophenol or 2,4,6-tribromoaniline respectively. Benzaldehyde does not give a white precipitate with bromine water under normal conditions. Thus, this statement is incorrect.

- Step 3: Evaluating Option (B)

Option (B) states that compound P is obtained by the hydrogenation of benzoyl chloride with Pd on \( BaSO_4 \). This reaction is known as the **Rosenmund Reduction**. When benzoyl chloride (\( C_6H_5COCl \)) is hydrogenated using hydrogen gas in the presence of a palladium catalyst poisoned with barium sulfate (\( Pd/BaSO_4 \)), it undergoes partial reduction to produce benzaldehyde:
\[ C_6H_5COCl + H_2 \xrightarrow{Pd/BaSO_4} C_6H_5CHO (P) + HCl \]

Since this reaction accurately yields benzaldehyde (P), this option is absolutely correct.

- Step 4: Evaluating Option (C)

Option (C) states that treating compound P with saturated \( NaHCO_3 \) solution yields brisk effervescence. Brisk effervescence with sodium bicarbonate solution occurs due to the evolution of carbon dioxide (\( CO_2 \)) gas, which is characteristic of sufficiently strong acids such as carboxylic acids (\( R-COOH \)), sulfonic acids, or picric acid. Benzaldehyde is an aldehyde and does not react with sodium bicarbonate. Thus, this statement is incorrect.

- Step 5: Evaluating Option (D)

Option (D) describes the reaction of benzene with acetyl chloride (\( CH_3COCl \)) in the presence of anhydrous \( AlCl_3 \). This is a Friedel-Crafts Acylation reaction. The product of this reaction is **acetophenone** (\( C_6H_5COCH_3 \)), not benzaldehyde:
\[ C_6H_6 + CH_3COCl \xrightarrow{Anhydrous AlCl_3} C_6H_5COCH_3 + HCl \]

Therefore, this statement is also incorrect.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The correct option is (B).
Quick Tip: Connecting named reactions is highly common in entrance exams. Remember that both the **Etard Reaction** (oxidation of toluene) and the **Rosenmund Reduction** (reduction of benzoyl chloride) are primary synthetic routes to prepare benzaldehyde.


Question 76:

Match the vitamins in List-I with their sources in List-II:



Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
  • (B) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
  • (C) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
  • (D) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

Question 77:

The amount of carbon dioxide evolved upon complete combustion of 116 g of n-butane is (Given: atomic mass in amu H = 1, C = 12 and O = 16):

  • (A) 176 g
  • (B) 362 g
  • (C) 352 g
  • (D) 322 g

Question 78:

The compound that CANNOT be obtained from the aldol condensation reaction shown below, is:









  • (A) figA
  • (B) figB
  • (C) figC
  • (D) figD

Question 79:

The correct statement is:

  • (A) Magnesium has a maximum covalency of four.
  • (B) Aluminium has five valence orbitals.
  • (C) Boron has a maximum covalency of four.
  • (D) Beryllium has three valence orbitals.

Question 80:

The formula of tetraammineaquachloridocobalt(III) chloride is:

  • (A) \( [Co(NH_3)_4(H_2O)Cl]Cl \)
  • (B) \( [Co(NH_3)_4(H_2O)Cl]Cl_2 \)
  • (C) \( [Co(NH_3)_4Cl_2] \times H_2O \)
  • (D) \( [Co(NH_3)_4]Cl_3 \times H_2O \)

Question 81:

Assertion A: For an ideal solution formed by mixing liquids P and Q, \(\Delta_{mix}H = 0\) and \(\Delta_{mix}V = 0\).

Reason R: No interactions occur between P and Q.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A is correct but R is not correct
  • (B) A is not correct but R is correct
  • (C) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
  • (D) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

Question 82:

Identify the reactions which give aniline as the major product:

A. Reduction of benzonitrile with \(LiAlH_4\)

B. Hoffmann bromamide degradation of benzamide

C. Reduction of nitrobenzene with \(NaBH_4\)

D. Hydrolysis of acetanilide

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:







  • (A) A and C only
  • (B) C and D only
  • (C) A and B only
  • (D) B and D only
Correct Answer: (D) B and D only
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Aniline is a primary aromatic amine (\( C_6H_5NH_2 \)).

To determine which reactions produce aniline as the major product, we must analyze the mechanisms and products of each reaction.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

Let us analyze each reaction in detail:

- Reaction A: Reduction of benzonitrile:

Benzonitrile (\( C_6H_5C\equiv N \)) is treated with the powerful reducing agent \( LiAlH_4 \). This reduces the nitrile group completely to a primary amine without breaking any carbon-carbon bonds:
\[ C_6H_5C\equiv N \xrightarrow{LiAlH_4} C_6H_5CH_2NH_2 (Benzylamine) \]

The product is benzylamine, not aniline. Thus, Reaction A is incorrect.

- Reaction B: Hoffmann bromamide degradation of benzamide:

Benzamide (\( C_6H_5CONH_2 \)) is treated with bromine in an aqueous or ethanolic solution of alkali (\( KOH \)):
\[ C_6H_5CONH_2 + Br_2 + 4KOH \rightarrow C_6H_5NH_2 (Aniline) + K_2CO_3 + 2KBr + 2H_2O \]

This reaction degrades the amide by removing the carbonyl carbon, directly producing aniline. Thus, Reaction B is correct.

- Reaction C: Reduction of nitrobenzene with \( NaBH_4 \):

Sodium borohydride (\( NaBH_4 \)) is a mild, highly selective reducing agent. It is not strong enough to reduce aromatic nitro groups (\( -NO_2 \)) to amines. Nitrobenzene remains unreacted under these conditions. Thus, Reaction C is incorrect.

- Reaction D: Hydrolysis of acetanilide:

Acetanilide (\( C_6H_5NHCOCH_3 \)) is a secondary amide. Heating it in the presence of an aqueous acid (\( HCl/H_2O \)) induces nucleophilic acyl substitution, leading to acidic hydrolysis:
\[ C_6H_5NHCOCH_3 + H_2O \xrightarrow[\Delta]{HCl} C_6H_5NH_3^+Cl^- + CH_3COOH \]

Upon standard alkaline workup, the anilinium chloride salt yields free aniline (\( C_6H_5NH_2 \)). Thus, Reaction D is correct.

Combining the correct reactions gives:
\[ B and D only \]


Step 4: Final Answer:

Reactions B and D produce aniline, which corresponds to Option (D).
Quick Tip: Remember:
- \( NaBH_4 \) is highly chemoselective and cannot reduce nitro groups, esters, or nitriles.
- Hoffmann degradation is a reliable method for converting primary amides to primary amines with one less carbon atom.


Question 83:

The correct decreasing order of oxidation state of the underlined atom in each molecule is:

(with N in \( N_2O_5 \), Al in \( Al_2O_3 \), and S in \( H_2S \) underlined)

  • (A) \( PbO_2 > N_2O_3 > SO_3 \)
  • (B) \( P_4O_6 > Cl_2O_7 > AlH_3 \)
  • (C) \( P_4O_{10} > SO_3 > H_2O \)
  • (D) \( N_2O_5 > Al_2O_3 > H_2S \)

Question 84:

For the following reaction sequence, choose the correct option:

  • (A) If P gives a carboxylic acid on acidification, Q gives a poisonous gas on exposure to air and light.
  • (B) Both P and Q are carbonyl compounds.
  • (C) If P is the sodium salt of a carboxylic acid, Q is a primary alcohol.
  • (D) P and Q are aromatic compounds.

Question 85:

Two moles of an ideal gas undergo free expansion from 10 L to 100 L at 300 K. The values of \(\Delta S_{system}\) and \(\Delta S_{surroundings}\) are (R is universal gas constant):

  • (A) \(\Delta S_{system} = 0\); \(\Delta S_{surroundings} = 4.606 R\)
  • (B) \(\Delta S_{system} = 4.606 R\); \(\Delta S_{surroundings} = 0\)
  • (C) \(\Delta S_{system} = 0\); \(\Delta S_{surroundings} = 0\)
  • (D) \(\Delta S_{system} = 4.606 R\); \(\Delta S_{surroundings} = -4.606 R\)

Question 86:

For an elementary chemical reaction, the Arrhenius plot is given below. If the energy of activation is \( 6.64 kJ mol^{-1} \) and \( R = 8.3 J K^{-1} mol^{-1} \), the temperature at which the rate constant becomes \( e^2 min^{-1} \), is:

  • (A) \( 200 K \)
  • (B) \( 250 K \)
  • (C) \( 125 K \)
  • (D) \( 150 K \)

Question 87:

Consider the following statements about the solutions formed by mixing two liquids:

A. An ideal solution thus formed obeys Raoult’s law throughout the composition range.

B. Mixture of chloroform and acetone shows negative deviation from Raoult’s law.

C. Mixture of aniline and phenol shows positive deviation from Raoult’s law.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A only
  • (B) A and C only
  • (C) A and B only
  • (D) B and C only

Question 88:

The highest occupied molecular orbital for \( Ne_2 \) is:

  • (A) \( \pi^*_{2p} \)
  • (B) \( \sigma^*_{2p} \)
  • (C) \( \pi_{2p} \)
  • (D) \( \sigma_{2p} \)

Question 89:

For a salt XY, which is a strong electrolyte, the plot of \( \Lambda_m \) versus \( \sqrt{c} \) has a slope of \( -90.0 S cm^2 mol^{-3/2} L^{1/2} \) at \( 298 K \). At \( 0.01 M \) concentration of XY, the value of \( \Lambda_m \) is \( 145.0 S cm^2 mol^{-1} \). The limiting molar conductivity of \( Y^- \) ion (\( \lambda_{Y^-}^\circ \), in \( S cm^2 mol^{-1} \)) at \( 298 K \) will be (Given: \( \lambda_{X^+}^\circ = 74.0 S cm^2 mol^{-1} \)):

  • (A) 90.0
  • (B) 76.0
  • (C) 80.0
  • (D) 100.0

Question 90:

Among the following options, the correct trend in the electron gain enthalpy is:

  • (A) Cl > F > Br > I
  • (B) I > Br > Cl > F
  • (C) F > Cl > Br > I
  • (D) Br > Cl > F > I

Question 91:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Chromosomes are fully condensed at the end of prophase I.

Statement II: Meiosis I resembles mitosis.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is false
  • (B) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is true
  • (C) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • (D) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

Question 92:

Which of the following is not a characteristic of chordates?

  • (A) Absence of gills
  • (B) Presence of post anal part (tail)
  • (C) Presence of notochord
  • (D) Central nervous system is dorsal

Question 93:

Phyllotaxy is the pattern of arrangement of __________\.

  • (A) fruits
  • (B) sepals
  • (C) leaves
  • (D) flowers

Question 94:

Which one of the following statements is incorrect?

  • (A) Glucagon stimulates glycogenolysis
  • (B) \(\beta\)-cells of pancreas secrete insulin
  • (C) \(\alpha\)-cells of pancreas secrete glucagon
  • (D) \(\alpha\)-cells of pancreas secrete insulin

Question 95:

The plastid that stores xanthophyll is known as __________\.

  • (A) aleuroplast
  • (B) amyloplast
  • (C) chloroplast
  • (D) chromoplast

Question 96:

Match List-I with List-II.

List-I

A. Fusion of protoplasms between gametes

B. Fusion of two nuclei

C. Generation of haploid spores

List-II

I. Meiosis

II. Plasmogamy

III. Karyogamy

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A-III, B-II, C-I
  • (B) A-I, B-III, C-II
  • (C) A-II, B-III, C-I
  • (D) A-II, B-I, C-III
Correct Answer: (C) A-II, B-III, C-I
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Question:

The question requires matching terms of sexual reproduction in fungi and other organisms from List-I with their biological definitions or outcomes in List-II.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

The sexual cycle in fungi involves three sequential steps: plasmogamy, karyogamy, and meiosis. Let us evaluate each:

- A. Plasmogamy: This is the first stage of sexual reproduction in fungi, defined as the fusion of protoplasms between two motile or non-motile gametes. Therefore, item A matches with II (Plasmogamy).

- B. Karyogamy: This is the second stage, defined as the fusion of the two haploid nuclei to form a single diploid zygotic nucleus. Therefore, item B matches with III (Karyogamy).

- C. Meiosis: The diploid zygote undergoes a reduction division (meiosis) to generate haploid sexual spores. Therefore, item C matches with I (Meiosis).

Combining these matched pairs gives us: A-II, B-III, and C-I.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The correct combination is A-II, B-III, C-I, which corresponds to Option (C).
Quick Tip: Break down the roots of the words: "plasmo" refers to cytoplasm/protoplasm, "karyo" refers to the nucleus, and "gamy" refers to fusion. This makes remembering plasmogamy and karyogamy very easy.


Question 97:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: In gymnosperms, the male and female gametophytes remain within the sporangia.

Statement II: In gymnosperms, seeds are not covered.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  • (B) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
  • (C) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  • (D) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

Question 98:

In water, frogs respire using __________\.

  • (A) lungs
  • (B) trachea
  • (C) skin
  • (D) buccal cavity

Question 99:

Mad cow disease is caused by __________\.

  • (A) Aspergillus sp.
  • (B) Mycoplasma sp.
  • (C) prions
  • (D) viroids

Question 100:

Which of the following statements regarding photorespiration are correct?

(a) Do not occur in C3 plants

(b) \(CO_2\) is consumed and \(O_2\) is generated

(c) Phosphoglycolate is formed

(d) No synthesis of ATP and NADPH

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (b) and (d) only
  • (B) (a) and (b) only
  • (C) (a) and (d) only
  • (D) (c) and (d) only

Question 101:

Select the correct sequence of experiments that led to a gradual understanding of photosynthesis in green plants.

  • (A) Release of oxygen \(\rightarrow\) production of glucose \(\rightarrow\) absorption spectra of chlorophyll a and b \(\rightarrow\) role of air
  • (B) Production of glucose \(\rightarrow\) role of air \(\rightarrow\) release of oxygen \(\rightarrow\) absorption spectra of chlorophyll a and b
  • (C) Absorption spectra of chlorophyll a and b \(\rightarrow\) production of glucose \(\rightarrow\) release of oxygen \(\rightarrow\) role of air
  • (D) Role of air \(\rightarrow\) release of oxygen \(\rightarrow\) production of glucose \(\rightarrow\) absorption spectra of chlorophyll a and b

Question 102:

How many turns of Calvin cycle are required for the formation of three molecules of glucose?

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 18
  • (C) 6
  • (D) 3

Question 103:

Mitochondrial inner membrane encloses __________\.

  • (A) mucus
  • (B) aqueous humor
  • (C) matrix
  • (D) cytosol

Question 104:

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

  • (A) Fibrin is produced from fibrinogen
  • (B) Fibrinogen is produced from fibrin
  • (C) Blood coagulates in response to an injury
  • (D) Blood clot consists of fibrins

Question 105:

Sphenopsida class belongs to __________\.

  • (A) gymnosperms
  • (B) pteridophytes
  • (C) bryophytes
  • (D) angiosperms

Question 106:

Match List-I with List-II.

List-I

A. Spherical

B. Rod

C. Comma

D. Spiral

List-II

I. Vibrio

II. Cocci

III. Spirilla

IV. Bacilli

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
  • (B) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
  • (C) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
  • (D) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
Correct Answer: (B) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Bacteria (Kingdom Monera) are grouped into four main categories based on their basic shape. We need to connect each shape description with its correct scientific term.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

Let us match the bacterial shapes with their taxonomic terms:

1. Spherical (A): Spherical-shaped bacteria are called Cocci (singular: Coccus).
\[ Spherical (A) \rightarrow Cocci (II) \]

2. Rod (B): Rod-shaped bacteria are called Bacilli (singular: Bacillus).
\[ Rod (B) \rightarrow Bacilli (IV) \]

3. Comma (C): Comma-shaped bacteria are called Vibrio (singular: Vibrium).
\[ Comma (C) \rightarrow Vibrio (I) \]

4. Spiral (D): Spiral-shaped bacteria are called Spirilla (singular: Spirillum).
\[ Spiral (D) \rightarrow Spirilla (III) \]

Combining these matches, we get: A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III. This matches Option (B).


Step 4: Final Answer:

The correct matching sequence is A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III, which is Option (B).
Quick Tip: Associate the common names of bacteria with their shapes to easily remember this: Streptococcus (spherical \(\rightarrow\) Cocci), Lactobacillus (rod-shaped \(\rightarrow\) Bacilli), Vibrio cholerae (comma-shaped \(\rightarrow\) Vibrio).


Question 107:

Which of the following are characteristics of prokaryotic cells?

(a) Ribosomes are made of 50S and 30S subunits

(b) They can have plasmids

(c) They contain mesosome

(d) They have peroxisomes

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (a), (c) and (d) only
  • (B) (a), (b) and (c) only
  • (C) (b) and (c) only
  • (D) (a) and (c) only

Question 108:

Smooth endoplasmic reticulum __________\.

  • (A) is actively involved in protein synthesis
  • (B) is a site for the synthesis of carbohydrates
  • (C) has ribosomes attached to its surface
  • (D) is the major site for the synthesis of lipids

Question 109:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The class name Reptilia refers to creeping or crawling mode of locomotion.

Statement II: All organisms belonging to Reptilia have three chambered heart.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  • (B) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
  • (C) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  • (D) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

Question 110:

In frogs, the number of pairs of cranial nerves arising from the brain are __________\.

  • (A) 10
  • (B) 12
  • (C) 6
  • (D) 9

Question 111:

Cell theory was formulated by __________\.

  • (A) Singer and Nicolson
  • (B) Antonie Von Leeuwenhoek
  • (C) Schleiden and Schwann
  • (D) Robert Brown

Question 112:

Which of the following statements related to pituitary gland are correct?

(a) It is divided anatomically into adenohypophysis and neurohypophysis

(b) It secretes follicle stimulating hormone

(c) It secretes melanocyte stimulating hormone

(d) It does not secrete prolactin

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (c) and (d) only
  • (B) (b) and (c) only
  • (C) (a) and (b) only
  • (D) (a), (b) and (c) only

Question 113:

Which of the following is not a prokaryote?

  • (A) Mycoplasma
  • (B) Fungi
  • (C) Bacteria
  • (D) Blue green algae

Question 114:

Length of the stem at time 0 is 20 cm. The arithmetic growth rate is 30 cm per day. What is the length of the stem at the end of the 7th day?

  • (A) 230 cm
  • (B) 460 cm
  • (C) 50 cm
  • (D) 170 cm

Question 115:

Which of the following is not a part of human central neural system?

  • (A) Pia mater
  • (B) Pericardium
  • (C) Arachnoid
  • (D) Dura mater

Question 116:

Which of the following plant growth regulators promotes internode elongation prior to flowering in cabbage?

  • (A) Indole butyric acid
  • (B) Ethephon
  • (C) Abscisic acid
  • (D) Gibberellin

Question 117:

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I (Placentation types): A. Marginal, B. Axile, C. Parietal, D. Free central

List-II (Examples): I. Argemone, II. Tomato, III. Primrose, IV. Pea

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
  • (B) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
  • (C) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
  • (D) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
Correct Answer: (B) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question requires matching different types of placentation (arrangement of ovules within the ovary) listed in List-I with their characteristic plant examples in List-II. Placentation is categorized into different types based on the attachment point of ovules inside the ovary.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

Let us analyze the standard types of placentation and their descriptions:

- Marginal Placentation (A): The placenta forms a ridge along the ventral suture of the ovary, and the ovules are borne on this ridge in two rows. This is a classic characteristic of the Fabaceae family, with Pea (*Pisum sativum*) being the primary example. Therefore, A matches with IV.

- Axile Placentation (B): The placenta is axial and the ovules are attached to it in a multilocular ovary. Examples include Tomato, China rose, and Lemon. Therefore, B matches with II.

- Parietal Placentation (C): The ovules develop on the inner wall of the ovary or on the peripheral part. The ovary is unilocular but becomes two-chambered due to the formation of a false septum (replum). Examples include Mustard and *Argemone*. Therefore, C matches with I.

- Free Central Placentation (D): The ovules are borne on a central column, and the septa separating the chambers are completely absent. Examples include Primrose and *Dianthus*. Therefore, D matches with III.

Combining these matching pairs gives us: A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III. This matches Option (B).


Step 4: Final Answer:

The correct matching sequence is A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III, which matches Option (B).
Quick Tip: Use visual associations to memorize placentation types: Marginal = Pea pod, Axile = sliced Tomato wheels, Parietal = Mustard, Free Central = Dianthus/Primrose.


Question 118:

Which of the following plant growth regulators is used as herbicide?

  • (A) Abscisic acid
  • (B) Gibberellin
  • (C) 2,4-D
  • (D) Kinetin

Question 119:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: When any plane passing through the central axis of the body divides the organism into two identical halves, it is called radial symmetry.

Statement II: In phylum Echinodermata, both adults and larvae are radially symmetrical.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  • (B) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
  • (C) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  • (D) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

Question 120:

Match List-I with List-II.

List-I

A. Starch

B. Antibody

C. Concanavalin A

D. GLUT-4

List-II

I. Fights infection

II. Energy storage

III. Glucose transport

IV. Lectin

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
  • (B) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  • (C) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
  • (D) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
Correct Answer: (D) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to match different biomolecules listed in List-I with their primary biological function or classification listed in List-II. We will identify the biochemical nature and physiological roles of starch, antibodies, Concanavalin A, and GLUT-4 based on the biomolecules and cell biology chapters.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

Let us match the biomolecules with their specific functions:

- Starch: A major homopolysaccharide composed of glucose units. It serves as the primary energy storage molecule in green plants. Therefore, A matches with II (Energy storage).

- Antibodies: Specialized immunoglobulins (proteins) produced by B-lymphocytes. They recognize and neutralize foreign pathogens to defend the body. Therefore, B matches with I (Fights infection).

- Concanavalin A: A secondary metabolite of plant origin that belongs to the chemical group of lectins (proteins that bind to carbohydrates). Therefore, C matches with IV (Lectin).

- GLUT-4: A specific transmembrane glucose transporter protein. It is insulin-regulated and facilitates the diffusion of glucose into adipose and muscle tissues. Therefore, D matches with III (Glucose transport).

Combining these matched pairs: A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III. This matches Option (D).


Step 4: Final Answer:

The correct matching sequence is A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III, which corresponds to Option (D).
Quick Tip: GLUT-4 is a very common topic in NEET exams. Remember that "GLUT" stands for GLUcose Transporter, which immediately connects D to III (Glucose transport).


Question 121:

The number of vertebrae in a human is __________\.

  • (A) 26
  • (B) 206
  • (C) 7
  • (D) 12

Question 122:

Which pigment has absorption peak at 700 nm in the photosynthetic reaction centre PS I (P700)?

  • (A) Xanthophylls
  • (B) Carotenoids
  • (C) Chlorophyll b
  • (D) Chlorophyll a

Question 123:

Arrange the following taxonomic categories in ascending order.

(a) Genus, (b) Class, (c) Order, (d) Phylum, (e) Family, (f) Kingdom, (g) Species

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (g), (c), (d), (b), (e), (a), (f)
  • (B) (f), (c), (b), (g), (d), (e), (a)
  • (C) (g), (a), (e), (c), (b), (d), (f)
  • (D) (a), (c), (d), (g), (f), (b), (e)

Question 124:

Match List-I with List-II.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A-II, B-III, C-V, D-I, E-IV
  • (B) A-III, B-V, C-II, D-IV, E-I
  • (C) A-I, B-V, C-II, D-IV, E-III
  • (D) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV, E-V

Question 125:

Arrange the following elements in descending order of their contribution to percentage weight of the human body.

(a) Oxygen (b) Carbon (c) Hydrogen (d) Nitrogen

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (b), (c), (d), (a)
  • (B) (b), (a), (c), (d)
  • (C) (a), (b), (d), (c)
  • (D) (c), (a), (b), (d)
Correct Answer: (C) (a), (b), (d), (c)
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The chemical composition of living organisms is dominated by water and organic molecules. This is reflected in the weight percentage contribution of different elements.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

According to standard biochemistry reference tables, the approximate elemental composition by mass in the human body is:

- Oxygen (a): This is the most abundant element, contributing approximately 65.0% of the total body weight.

- Carbon (b): This is the second most abundant element, forming the backbone of all organic molecules, contributing about 18.5% of the body weight.

- Nitrogen (d): Key to proteins and nucleic acids, contributing approximately 3.3% of the body weight.

- Hydrogen (c): Despite being abundant in terms of atom numbers, hydrogen is extremely light and contributes only about 0.5% of the total body weight.

Arranging these elements in descending order (highest to lowest percentage weight) yields:
\[ Oxygen (65.0%) > Carbon (18.5%) > Nitrogen (3.3%) > Hydrogen (0.5%) \]

In terms of options, the sequence of letters is: (a), (b), (d), (c). This corresponds to Option (C).


Step 4: Final Answer:

The descending order of the elements is (a), (b), (d), (c), which is Option (C).
Quick Tip: Remember the acronym "O-C-N-H" to recall the abundance of elements in the human body from highest to lowest: O (Oxygen) \( > \) C (Carbon) \( > \) N (Nitrogen) \( > \) H (Hydrogen).


Question 126:

Match List-I with List-II.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
  • (B) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
  • (C) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • (D) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

Question 127:

The number of action potentials generated by sino-artrial node (SAN) in a healthy human is __________\ per minute.

  • (A) 100 - 110
  • (B) 120 - 140
  • (C) 28 - 30
  • (D) 70 - 75

Question 128:

Symbiotic association between fungi and algae are called __________\ .

  • (A) mycorrhiza
  • (B) chrysophytes
  • (C) lichens
  • (D) sponges

Question 129:

How many molecules of pyruvic acid are produced at the end of glycolysis from 206 molecules of glucose?

  • (A) 103
  • (B) 412
  • (C) 206
  • (D) 309

Question 130:

Which of the following represents the correct sequence of arrangement of bones in the lower limb of humans?

  • (A) Femur-patella-tibia-tarsal
  • (B) Femur-tarsal-patella-tibia
  • (C) Femur-tibia-patella-tarsal
  • (D) Patella-femur-tibia-tarsal

Question 131:

Genus represents __________\ .

  • (A) a group of closely related species
  • (B) a group of closely related families
  • (C) an individual plant or animal
  • (D) a population of plants and animals

Question 132:

The correct sequence of adult cell cycle phases is __________\ .

  • (A) G1-S-G2-M
  • (B) S-M-G2-G1
  • (C) G1-G2-S-M
  • (D) G1-M-G2-S

Question 133:

Endomembrane system includes __________ .

  • (A) mitochondria, chloroplast, peroxisomes and vacuole
  • (B) Golgi complex, chloroplast, peroxisomes and vacuole
  • (C) endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi complex, lysosomes and vacuole
  • (D) endoplasmic reticulum, chloroplast, peroxisomes and vacuole

Question 134:

Photorespiration reaction catalyzed by RuBisCo is shown below:

RuBP + O\(_2 \rightarrow\) 3-Phosphoglycerate + X

Identify "X" from the given options:

  • (A) Oxaloacetate
  • (B) Malate
  • (C) Phosphoenolpyruvate
  • (D) 2-Phosphoglycolate

Question 135:

Which of the following are characteristic features of Solanaceae family?

(a) Flowers are bisexual and actinomorphic

(b) Calyx have five sepals and are united

(c) Androecium have five stamens and are epipetalous

(d) Ovary is inferior

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (a) and (b) only
  • (B) (b), (c) and (d) only
  • (C) (a), (b) and (c) only
  • (D) (d) only

Question 136:

Sperm motility is due to __________\ .

  • (A) amoeboid movement
  • (B) muscular movement
  • (C) flagellar movement
  • (D) ciliary movement

Question 137:

Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A : Abingdon tortoise in Galapagos islands became extinct within a decade after goats were introduced.

Reason R : Goats were more efficient at browsing than Abingdon tortoise.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

  • (A) A is correct but R is not correct
  • (B) A is not correct but R is correct
  • (C) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
  • (D) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A

Question 138:

Match List-I with List-II.

List-I

A. Both species are harmed

B. One species is harmed and the other is benefited

C. Both species are benefited

D. One is benefited while the other has no effect

List-II

I. Predation

II. Mutualism

III. Competition

IV. Commensalism

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (A) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
  • (B) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
  • (C) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
  • (D) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

Question 139:

Which of the following plant produces non-albuminous seeds ?

  • (A) Barley
  • (B) Pea
  • (C) Wheat
  • (D) Maize

Question 140:

Which of the following statements about lac-operon is correct ?

  • (A) Genes \( i \), \( z \), \( y \) and \( a \) share single common promoter
  • (B) Galactose can act as an inducer of lac operon
  • (C) Gene \( i \) is constitutively expressed
  • (D) Lactose activates repressor to bind to the operator

Question 141:

Which of the following is used as an effective sedative and painkiller for treating post-surgery patients ?

  • (A) Morphine
  • (B) Anti-retroviral drugs
  • (C) Interferon
  • (D) Antibiotics

Question 142:

Which of the following is the correct order of arrangement of vertebrate column from the head to toe ?

  • (A) Cervical vertebra, lumbar vertebra, thoracic vertebra, sacrum
  • (B) Cervical vertebra, thoracic vertebra, lumbar vertebra, sacrum
  • (C) Cervical vertebra, thoracic vertebra, sacrum, lumbar vertebra
  • (D) Sacrum, lumbar vertebra, thoracic vertebra, cervical vertebra

Question 143:

Muscle contraction is initiated by a signal sent by the central nervous system by the release of

  • (A) cyclic guanine monophosphate
  • (B) cyclic adenine monophosphate
  • (C) acetyl choline
  • (D) acetyl coenzyme A

Question 144:

Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A : Forelimbs of human and bats are homologous.

Reason R : Forelimbs of humans and bats have similar anatomical structure.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

  • (A) A is true but R is false
  • (B) A is false but R is true
  • (C) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
  • (D) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

Question 145:

Given below are two statements :

Statement I : Down’s syndrome is caused by the absence of one of the X-chromosomes.

Statement II : Turner’s syndrome is caused by the presence of an additional copy of the chromosomes.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (A) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  • (B) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
  • (C) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  • (D) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

Question 146:

Which of the following statements about the reabsorption process in Henle’s loop are correct ?

(a) The descending limb of Henle’s loop is permeable to water but almost impermeable to electrolytes.

(b) Urine gets concentrated in Henle’s loop.

(c) Reabsorption of \( Na^+ \) and water takes place in Henle’s loop.

(d) Active or passive transport of electrolytes occurs in the ascending limb of Henle’s loop.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (A) (a), (b) and (c) only
  • (B) (a), (b) and (d) only
  • (C) (a) and (b) only
  • (D) (b), (c) and (d) only

Question 147:

If the diploid chromosome number of typical angiosperm is 36, what would be the chromosome number in its endosperm ?

  • (A) 54
  • (B) 72
  • (C) 18
  • (D) 36

Question 148:

Arrange the following in descending order of number of species in the Amazonian rain forest.

(a) Plants (b) Birds (c) Fishes (d) Invertebrates (e) Mammals

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (A) (e) > (b) > (a) > (c) > (d)
  • (B) (b) > (a) > (d) > (c) > (e)
  • (C) (c) > (b) > (d) > (e) > (a)
  • (D) (d) > (a) > (c) > (b) > (e)

Question 149:

A population of diploid organisms is at Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. If the frequency of allele A is 0.1, the frequency of AA is

  • (A) 0.10
  • (B) 0.99
  • (C) 0.01
  • (D) 0.02

Question 150:

The opening between the right atrium and the right ventricle is guarded by

  • (A) semilunar valve
  • (B) sino-atrial node
  • (C) bicuspid valve
  • (D) tricuspid valve

Question 151:

Which of the following enzymes synthesizes precursor mRNA ?

  • (A) RNA polymerase III
  • (B) DNA polymerase
  • (C) RNA polymerase I
  • (D) RNA polymerase II

Question 152:

Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A : In recombinant DNA technology, lysozyme is used for disrupting bacterial cells while cellulase is used for plant cells.

Reason R : Isolation of genetic material needs disruption of cells.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

  • (A) A is correct but R is not correct
  • (B) A is not correct but R is correct
  • (C) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
  • (D) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A

Question 153:

Which of the following hormone is not secreted by human placenta ?

  • (A) Progesterone
  • (B) LH
  • (C) hCG
  • (D) Estrogen

Question 154:

Colostrum, secreted by mother during initial days of lactation, is abundant in

  • (A) IgA
  • (B) IgD
  • (C) IgG
  • (D) IgM

Question 155:

Consider a population of 10 million cells. Given the per-capita birth rate of 0.002 (per unit time) and the per-capita death rate of 0.002 (per unit time), the expected number of cells after 10 generations is

  • (A) 10 million
  • (B) 100 million
  • (C) 1 million
  • (D) 5 million

Question 156:

Given below are two statements :

Statement I : Plasmids are autonomously replicating DNA.

Statement II : Plasmids are extrachromosomal DNA.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

  • (A) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  • (B) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
  • (C) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  • (D) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

Question 157:

During PCR, primers bind to the DNA strands in the ______ step.

  • (A) annealing
  • (B) ligation
  • (C) denaturation
  • (D) extension

Question 158:

Match List-I with List-II.

List-I

A. Transformation

B. Cloning site

C. Selection

D. Ori

List-II

I. Restriction enzyme

II. Transfer DNA to host bacteria

III. Replication

IV. Antibiotic

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (A) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
  • (B) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
  • (C) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
  • (D) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III

Question 159:

Adaptive radiation in placental mammals and Australian Marsupials leading to similarity between distant species is an example of ______ .

  • (A) founder effect
  • (B) genetic drift
  • (C) divergent evolution
  • (D) convergent evolution

Question 160:

The covering of ovum at ovulation is

  • (A) zona pellucida
  • (B) chorion
  • (C) endometrium
  • (D) zona radiata

Question 161:

Which of the following statements are correct ?

(a) Energy flow from producers to consumers is unidirectional

(b) Energy pyramid can never be inverted

(c) Transfer of energy follows the 1% law

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (A) (a) and (c) only
  • (B) (b) and (c) only
  • (C) (a), (b) and (c)
  • (D) (a) and (b) only

Question 162:

How many theca are present in each lobe of a typical bilobed angiosperm anther ?

  • (A) 8
  • (B) 12
  • (C) 2
  • (D) 6

Question 163:

Which of the following statements is correct about Plasmodium ?

  • (A) Gametocytes develop in mosquito gut
  • (B) Fertilization takes place in mosquito gut
  • (C) Reproduces sexually in liver cells
  • (D) Reproduces sexually in RBCs

Question 164:

For a person with blood group 'O', which of the following is not a possible combination of parents' blood group genotypes ?

  • (A) Father : \(I^B i\) and Mother : \(I^B i\)
  • (B) Father : \(I^A I^B\) and Mother : \(I^A i\)
  • (C) Father : \(I^A i\) and Mother : \(I^B i\)
  • (D) Father : \(I^A i\) and Mother : \(I^A i\)

Question 165:

Which of the following is used as a clot buster ?

  • (A) Cyclosporin A
  • (B) Statins
  • (C) Streptokinase
  • (D) Penicillin

Question 166:

Which of the following disease is not sexually transmitted ?

  • (A) Gonorrhoea
  • (B) Genital warts
  • (C) Syphilis
  • (D) Tuberculosis

Question 167:

Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A : In an experiment, Mendel observed that the F1 progeny plants are all tall and none are dwarf.

Reason R : Stem height is a contrasting trait, with tall being dominant and dwarf being recessive.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

  • (A) A is correct but R is not correct
  • (B) A is not correct but R is correct
  • (C) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
  • (D) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A

Question 168:

The method of directly injecting a sperm into ovum in assisted reproductive technology is called :

  • (A) Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI)
  • (B) Embryo transfer (ET)
  • (C) Gamete intra fallopian transfer (GIFT)
  • (D) Zygote intra fallopian transfer (ZIFT)

Question 169:

The inactive form of Bt toxin is converted to the active form in the insect gut

  • (A) by proteases
  • (B) by nucleases
  • (C) due to alkaline pH
  • (D) due to acidic pH

Question 170:

Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A : The logistic growth model of populations is considered more realistic than the exponential growth model.

Reason R : Resources are finite.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

  • (A) A is correct but R is not correct
  • (B) A is not correct but R is correct
  • (C) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
  • (D) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A

Question 171:

Which of the following are secondary lymphoid organs ?

(a) Bone marrow

(b) Tonsils

(c) Spleen

(d) Thymus

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (A) (b) and (d) only
  • (B) (a) and (d) only
  • (C) (a) and (b) only
  • (D) (b) and (c) only

Question 172:

Which of the following in female gametophyte of an angiosperm helps in guiding the pollen tube for fertilizing the eggs ?

  • (A) Central cells
  • (B) Polar nucleus
  • (C) Antipodals
  • (D) Synergids

Question 173:

Given below are two statements :

Statement I : Ovulation is caused by LH surge leading to rupture of Graafian follicles.

Statement II : Graafian follicle remaining after ovulation transform into corpus luteum and secretes large amount of estrogen.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

  • (A) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  • (B) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
  • (C) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  • (D) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

Question 174:

Given below are two statements :

Statement I : Modern Homo sapiens arose in Australia and moved across continents.

Statement II : Homo sapiens arose around 75000 to 10000 years ago.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

  • (A) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  • (B) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
  • (C) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  • (D) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

Question 175:

Which of the following are primary consumers in a food chain ?

  • (A) Herbivores
  • (B) Carnivores
  • (C) Parasites
  • (D) Predators

Question 176:

Which of the following is not evidence for evolution ?

  • (A) Embryological support for evolution as proposed by Ernst Haeckel
  • (B) Divergent evolution of anatomical structures such as forelimbs
  • (C) Convergent evolution of traits like wings of birds and butterflies
  • (D) Paleontological evidence from fossil records

Question 177:

Sponges exchange O\(_2\) with CO\(_2\) by

  • (A) tracheal tubes
  • (B) gills
  • (C) simple diffusion over their entire body surfaces
  • (D) moist cuticle

Question 178:

Match List-I with List-II.

List-I

A. Excess growth hormone

B. Luteinizing hormone

C. Vasopressin

D. Oxytocin

List-II

I. Reabsorption of water and electrolytes in kidney

II. Contraction of uterus during child birth

III. Acromegaly

IV. Ovulation

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (A) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
  • (B) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
  • (C) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
  • (D) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

Question 179:

Natural selection can lead to __________

(a) stabilisation

(b) genetic drift

(c) directional change

(d) disruption

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (A) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
  • (B) (a) and (c) only
  • (C) (a) only
  • (D) (a), (c) and (d) only

RE-NEET 2026 Paper Analysis

*The article might have information for the previous academic years, please refer the official website of the exam.

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