
NTA conducted the RE-NEET 2026 Code 60 Exam on June 21 in a single shift from 2:00 PM to 5:15 PM in PBT Mode.
The RE-NEET 2026 Code 60 Exam Question Paper consisted of 3 sections: Physics, Chemistry, and Biology (Botany & Zoology) with 180 Questions carrying a total of 720 Marks, as per the NEET Marking Scheme, +4 Marks for every correct answer, and -1 mark will be deducted for every wrong answer.
RE-NEET 2026 Code 60 Question Paper with Solution PDF is available here for download.
| RE-NEET 2026 Code 60 Question Paper | Download PDF | Check Solutions |
An ac voltage \( V = 220 \sin(2 \times 10^3 t) Volt \) is applied to a series LCR circuit. Then the current amplitude in this circuit is: (Given: \( L = 10 mH \), \( C = 25\ \muF \), \( R = 100\ \Omega \))
The mean free path of molecules in an ideal gas A is half that of another ideal gas B. The diameter of the spherical molecules of gas A is twice the diameter of the molecules of gas B. If number densities of the gases A and B are \( n_A \) and \( n_B \), respectively, then the correct option is:
A cylindrical cork of uniform density floats in a liquid of density \( \rho_1 \). If the cork is depressed slightly and released, it oscillates harmonically with time period T. If the same cork floats in another liquid of density \( \rho_2 \), then the similar oscillation has time period 2T. The value of \( \rho_2/\rho_1 \) is:
Consider a spring-mass simple harmonic oscillator in one dimension. The mass of the particle is \( m kg \) and the spring constant is \( k Nm^{-1} \). At a given instant, the extension of the spring is \( x meter \) and the speed of the particle is \( v ms^{-1} \). On the \( x - v \) plane, if the graph of \( v \) as a function of \( x \) is a circle, then the correct option is:
In an adiabatic expansion, the temperature of one mole of an ideal monatomic gas (\(\gamma = 5/3\)) decreases from 60K to 50K. The work done by the gas in the process is: (Take the universal gas constant as \( R = 8.3 J mol^{-1}K^{-1} \))
The following table presents the part of the electromagnetic spectrum and their corresponding major applications.
{{EM Spectrum Part}} & {{Applications}}
{P} & Microwave & {I} & For purifying the water
{Q} & UV rays & {II} & For warming the food
{R} & Gamma rays & {III} & For AM and FM communication systems
{S} & Radio wave & {IV} & For treating the Cancer cells
The correct option is:
A unit positive point charge is taken slowly through an infinitesimally thin tube that is inside a charged dielectric sphere of radius \( R \), having uniform positive charge density \( \rho \). The initial and final positions of the charge are marked by A and B at distances \( 2R \) and \( 3R \) respectively, from the centre of the sphere. In this process, the magnitude of the total work done on the point charge is \( \frac{\rho R^2}{n \epsilon_0} \). The value of \( n \) is :
A beam of light falls on a metal surface such that photo-electrons are generated. If power of the light source starts to decrease linearly with time \( t \), then variation of the photocurrent \( I \) and magnitude of the stopping potential \( |V| \) with time is best represented by :
Bob B of mass \( m \) at rest is hanging vertically from the ceiling via a massless string of length \( 10 m \). Point mass A of mass \( m \) travelling horizontally with speed \( 10 m s^{-1} \) hits bob B elastically. The bob B rises \( h \) meter after the collision. Taking \( g = 10 m s^{-2} \), the value of \( h \) is :
An ideal gas is made of polyatomic molecules. Each of the molecules has three translational, three rotational and \( f \) number of vibrational modes. If the ratio of heat capacities \( C_p/C_v \) of the gas is 8/7, then the value of \( f \) is :
In the measurement of viscosity of liquids using terminal velocity experiment, spherical balls of same radius but having different densities are used. The variation of the terminal velocity \( v \) with the ratio of density of spherical ball \(\sigma\) to density of the liquid \(\rho\), is best represented by :
In a solar system, the time-period of revolution of a planet tracing a circular orbit of radius \( R \) is proportional to :
A solid sphere A of radius \( R \) and mass \( M \) is attached at a point to a smaller solid sphere B of radius \( r < R \) and mass \( m < M \). Assume that the line joining their centres lies along the horizontal. The moment of inertia of the system calculated about a vertical axis passing through the centre of A is \( I_A \) and that calculated about a vertical axis passing through the centre of B is \( I_B \). The difference \( I_A - I_B \) is :
Consider the following nuclear reaction : \[ ^{238}U \rightarrow \,^{234}Th + \,^4He \] Take masses of \(^{238}U\), \(^{234}Th\) and \(^4He\) as \(238.050 u\), \(234.043 u\) and \(4.003 u\) respectively. The Q-value for the reaction, in \(keV\), is : [Given: \(1 u = 931.5 MeV c^{-2}\)]
Consider a fixed uniformly charged insulating sphere with radius \(R\) and total charge \(+Q\). A point charge \(-q\) (\(q \ll Q\)) with mass \(m\) is released from rest at a distance of \(3R\) from the centre of the charged sphere. When the point charge reaches the surface of the sphere, its speed is : (\(\epsilon_0\) is the permittivity of vacuum, neglect gravitational forces).
Consider two circuits, (A) and (B), each having two resistors. One of them has a positive temperature coefficient of resistance, \(+\alpha\), while the other one has a negative temperature coefficient of resistance, \(-\alpha\), as shown in the figure. The current through these circuits are denoted by \(I_A\) and \(I_B\). At initial temperature, the resistance of the two resistors is \(R_0\). As the temperature is increased, the correct option that describes the variation of current in these circuits is :
A conducting loop of finite resistance lies on the \(x-y\) plane. There is a constant magnetic field in the \(z\) direction. The area of the loop varies with time \(t\), as \(A = A_0(1+\sin t)\) in appropriate units. The figure that correctly indicates the qualitative behaviour of the power \(P\) dissipated in the loop as a function of time is :
A photon and an electron, each of \(20 eV\) energy, move in free space. The ratio of linear momentum of electron \(p_e\) to that of photon \(p_{ph}\) is : (Take speed of light = \(3 \times 10^8 ms^{-1}\), charge of electron = \(1.6 \times 10^{-19} C\) and mass of electron = \(9 \times 10^{-31} kg\))
Consider that \(\sigma_s, k_B, b\) represent Stefan-Boltzmann constant, Boltzmann constant and Wien’s displacement law constant, respectively. The dimension of \(\sigma_s k_B^{-1} b\) is :
Two infinitely long parallel conducting wires A and B carry currents \(I\) and \(2I\), respectively, in the same direction. The wire A has uniform mass per unit length \(\lambda\) and lies on an insulated floor. The wire B is fixed at a height \(h\) above the floor. The minimum magnitude of \(h\) so that the wire A does not rise from the floor is : [\(g\) is the acceleration due to gravity and \(\mu_0\) is the permeability of free space.]
Which of the following measurements require 'index correction' ?
Two identical inductors are connected in two different configurations P and Q, where a time varying current \( I(t) \) is flowing, as shown in the figure. The induced emf between points \( a \) and \( b \) for configuration P is \( E_P \) and that for configuration Q is \( E_Q \). The ratio \( E_P/E_Q \) is : [Neglect the effect of mutual inductance.]
Three identical p-n junction diodes \( D_1 \), \( D_2 \) and \( D_3 \) are connected across a battery as shown in the figure. If the width of the depletion regions of \( D_1 \), \( D_2 \) and \( D_3 \) are \( W_1 \), \( W_2 \) and \( W_3 \), respectively, then the correct option is :
Three identical capacitors P, Q and S, each of the capacitance C, are connected to a battery of voltage V as shown in the figure. If the energy stored in the capacitor P and total energy stored in the system are \( U_P \) and \( U_T \), respectively, then the ratio \( U_P/U_T \) is :
A thin horizontal disc is rotating about a vertical axis passing through its fixed centre O. Its angular momentum is \( L_A \) and \( L_B \) computed about points A and B, respectively, with \( OB = 2\times OA \). The value of \( L_A/L_B \) is :
An ideal Zener diode with breakdown voltage of \( -3 V \) is reverse biased with a negative input voltage \( V_i = -5 V \). The magnitude of voltage difference between points B and A is :
Water flows in a streamline motion through a horizontal pipe of circular cross-section as shown in the figure. The pressure difference of water between P and Q is \( 15 Nm^{-2} \). The area of cross-section at P and Q are \( 40 cm^2 \) and \( 20 cm^2 \), respectively. The rate of flow of water through the pipe, in \( cm^3s^{-1} \), is : [Take density of water = \( 1000 kg m^{-3} \)]
\(A particle of mass \( M \) moves along a horizontal \( x \) axis from \( x = 0 \) to \( x = L \). The coefficient of kinetic friction varies as a function of \( x \) as \( \mu_k(x) = \mu_0 - \alpha x , where \mu_0, \alpha are constants, so that \mu_k(L) = 0 . The total work done by the frictional force during the motion is n \mu_0 M g L . The value of n is :\)
A ray of light with wavelength \( \lambda \) is incident on three different photo-electric cells namely 1, 2 and 3. The threshold wavelength of these cells are \( \lambda_1, \lambda_2 \) and \( \lambda_3 \), respectively and the stopping potentials are \( V_1, V_2 \) and \( V_3 \). The relation between \( \lambda \) and threshold wavelengths are \( \lambda_1 < \lambda, \lambda_2 > \lambda \) and \( \lambda_3 \gg \lambda \). The correct option is :
Consider that an electron is revolving in an excited state of Hydrogen atom with velocity \( \sqrt{25.6} \times 10^5 ms^{-1} \). The radius of the orbit is \( x \times 10^{-9} m \). The value of \( x \) is : [Take \( m_e = 9 \times 10^{-31} kg \), \( e = 1.6 \times 10^{-19} C \), \( k = 9 \times 10^9 N m^2C^{-2} \)]
A car travels on a circular racetrack of radius \( 50 m \), which is banked at an angle \( \theta \). If the car travels at a speed \( 10 ms^{-1} \), then the wear and tear on its tyres is minimum. Taking \( g = 10 ms^{-2} \), the value of \( \theta \) is :
One mole of an ideal monatomic gas undergoes a cyclic process as shown in the figure. The total heat supplied to the gas is :
A frictionless circular wire of unit radius is fixed on the horizontal plane. Two point particles of unit mass start moving simultaneously from point A(\( \theta = \pi/2 \)) with identical uniform angular speeds in opposite directions, and meet again at point B(\( \theta = -\pi/2 \)). During this time, which of the following figures schematically represent the magnitude of the total linear momentum \( P \) of the system, as a function of \( \theta \) ?
The lens combination consists of two lenses, \( L_1 \) and \( L_2 \), of the focal lengths \( +10 cm \) and \( -10 cm \), respectively. The position of the image formed is :
Two planets \( P_1 \) and \( P_2 \) with equal mass have radii \( R_1 \) and \( R_2 \), where \( R_2 = R_1/2 \). The escape speeds of \( P_1 \) and \( P_2 \) are \( v_1 \) and \( v_2 \), respectively. Then \( v_2/v_1 \) is :
An electromagnetic wave travelling in a lossless dielectric medium having a lossless dielectric constant, \( \epsilon_r = 9 \), has the electric field, \( E_x = E_0 \sin(kz - 2\pi \times 10^6 t) Vm^{-1} \), where \( E_0 \) is the amplitude and \( k \) is the wave vector. Among the following options, the incorrect choice is :
Consider a particle moving along a straight line, whose position as a function of time is given by \( s(t) = \alpha t^2 - \beta t + \gamma \), where \( \alpha = 1 ms^{-2}, \beta = 6 ms^{-1} \) and \( \gamma = 5 m \). The average speed of the particle, in \( ms^{-1} \), from \( t = 0 s \) to \( t = 6 s \) is :
In Geiger-Marsden experiment, the number of scattered \(\alpha\)-particles \( N(\theta) \) is plotted as a function of scattering angle \(\theta\). Which of the following options represents the correct plot ?
For sound waves, if the number of nodes for the \( 5^{th} \) harmonic of an open-ended pipe is \( n \) and that for the \( 9^{th} \) harmonic of the same pipe with one of its ends closed is \( m \), the ratio \( \frac{n}{m} \) is :
Consider a long solenoid of length \( l \) and radius \( R \). If \( n \) is the number of turns per unit length and \( \mu_0 \) is the permeability of free space, the inductance of the solenoid is :
A current \( I_0 \) flows through a metallic circular loop of radius \( r \) as shown in the figure. Resistance of the segment ABC is half that of ADC. Magnitude of magnetic field at the center O of the loop is :
The temperature of a metallic sphere of radius \( R \) is increased by a small amount \( \Delta T \). If the linear coefficient of thermal expansion of the metal is \( \alpha \), the approximate increase in the volume of the sphere is :
One main scale division of a Vernier calliper is equal to \( 1 mm \) and the number of divisions on the Vernier scale is \( 10 \). When both the jaws touch each other, the Vernier scale shifts to the left of zero of the main scale in such a way that \( 4^{th} \) Vernier division coincides with a division of the main scale. If this Vernier calliper measures the length of a wire to be \( 1 cm \), the actual length of the wire is:
Consider three media P, Q and R with refractive indices \( 1 \), \( 1.25 \) and \( 1.5 \), respectively. The medium Q, having a thickness of \( 5 cm \), is placed between extended media P and R as shown in the figure. An object O is placed at the centre of medium Q. If viewed from medium P near the normal direction, the apparent depth is \( h_1 \). For similar observation from medium R, the apparent depth is \( h_2 \). The value of \( |h_1 - h_2| \) in cm is :
A point charge Q is placed inside a cavity within a solid isolated conducting sphere. Consider points A, B and C as shown in the figure, where the magnitudes of the electric fields are \( E_A \), \( E_B \), and \( E_C \), respectively. The points B and C are at the same distance from the center of the solid sphere. The correct option is:
The lanthanide ion having four unpaired electrons is (Given: Atomic numbers of Ce = 58, Nd = 60, Tb = 65 and Ho = 67):
The standard electrode potential (\(E^\circ\)) for the half-cell reaction \(Fe^{3+} + e^- \rightarrow Fe^{2+}\) at \(298 K\) is: (Given: \(E^\circ(Fe^{3+}/Fe) = -0.04 V\) and \(E^\circ(Fe^{2+}/Fe) = -0.44 V\))
Given below are two statements:
Statement-I: Heating NaCl with concentrated \( H_2SO_4 \) and \( MnO_2 \) results in oxidation of Mn.
Statement-II: Heating NaI with concentrated \( H_2SO_4 \) and \( MnO_2 \) results in reduction of Mn.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
The complex which has facial and meridional isomers is (Given: py = pyridine and en = \( H_2N-CH_2-CH_2-NH_2 \)):
Among the following, the compound having conjugated double bonds is:
Match the species in List I with their geometry in List II:
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
The amino acid that gives a red-blood colour on treating its sodium fusion extract with sodium nitroprusside is:
A protein undergoes reversible thermal denaturation from its initial state N to denatured state D according to \(N \rightleftharpoons D\). At \(60^\circC\), the concentrations of both N and D are equal at equilibrium, and the standard enthalpy change of denaturation is \(666 kJ mol^{-1}\). The standard entropy change (\(\Delta S^\circ\) in \(kJ K^{-1}mol^{-1}\)) of the protein upon denaturation at \(60^\circC\) is closest to:
\(2A \xrightarrow{k} B\) is a zero-order reaction, where \(k = 1.0 mol L^{-1} min^{-1}\). If the initial concentration of A is \(2 M\), then the time taken to complete \(75%\) of the reaction will be:
Given below are two statements:
Statement-I: [Fe(ox)\(_3]\)^{3- is chiral.
Statement-II: trans-[Cr(H\(_2\)O)\(_2\)(ox)\(_2\)]\(^-\) is chiral.
(Given: oxH\(_2\) = HOOC - COOH)
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A : Generally, 3d transition metals have high melting points.
Reason R : Involvement of 3d-electrons in addition to 4s-electrons in the interatomic metallic bonding.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Among the species given below, the spin-only magnetic moment is highest for (Given : Atomic number of Ti = 22, Mn = 25, Fe = 26 and Co = 27):
According to crystal field theory, the correct order of ligands with respect to their decreasing order of field strength is:
In potash alum, the ratio of \( K^+ \) and \( SO_4^{2-} \) ions is:
Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A : The first ionization enthalpy of O is lower than that of N and F.
Reason R : The loss of an electron from O leads to stable half-filled p orbital.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Given below are two statements:
Statement-I : Oxidation of p-nitrotoluene with acidic \( KMnO_4 \) gives an acid that is stronger than benzoic acid.
Statement-II : Reduction of p-nitrotoluene with Sn/HCl followed by neutralization gives an amine that is more basic than aniline.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
The following carbocation is stabilized by the interaction of the empty p orbital with:
Consider the following schematic plots of orbital wavefunction (\( \psi_r \)) against distance (\( r \)) from the nucleus. The figure representing two radial nodes in the orbital is:
The correct order of solubility of the given salts in water at 298 K is:
A 1:3 electrolyte in an aqueous solution is:
The correct statement about peptides and proteins is
One of the products formed in the following reaction is
In an acidic medium, 10 mL of 0.25 M oxalic acid is titrated with \(KMnO_4\) solution. If the volume of \(KMnO_4\) solution required to reach end point is 10 mL, the strength of the \(KMnO_4\) solution is
Consider the following reaction sequences and choose the correct option.
Arrange the following compounds in the increasing order of polarity:
A. \( CH_3CH_2OCH_2CH_3 \)
B. \( CH_3CH_2OH \)
C. \( CH_3COCH_3 \)
D. \( CH_3COOH \)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Consider the reversible processes for 1.0 mol of an ideal gas as shown in the figure. Processes 2 and 4 are adiabatic. \(w_1\), \(w_2\), \(w_3\) and \(w_4\) represent work done (in calories) in the processes 1, 2, 3 and 4, respectively; \(\Delta U_2\) and \(\Delta U_4\) are changes in the internal energy for the processes 2 and 4, respectively. [use R = 2 cal K-1 mol-1] The correct option is
The green paramagnetic species formed by heating \(KMnO_4\) at 513 K is
The numbers 17.0145 and 21.0235 were rounded to three figures after the decimal point. The resulting numbers, respectively, are
Given below are two statements:
Statement I : trans-But-2-ene upon treatment with \( Br_2 \) in \( CCl_4 \) gives the following product: (meso-2,3-dibromobutane).
Statement II : cis-But-2-ene upon treatment with alkaline \( KMnO_4 \) gives the following product: (meso-butane-2,3-diol).
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Consider the following reaction, and choose the correct option.
(where toluene is reacted with chromyl chloride in the presence of \( CS_2 \), followed by acidic hydrolysis to yield compound P)
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The oxidation of toluene using chromyl chloride (\( CrO_2Cl_2 \)) in a non-polar solvent like \( CS_2 \), followed by hydrolysis, is a named reaction called the Etard Reaction.
This reaction selectively oxidizes the benzylic methyl group to an aldehyde, stopping at the benzaldehyde stage.
Step 3: Detailed Explanation:
- Step 1: Identify compound P:
The Etard reaction sequence is:
\[ C_6H_5CH_3 + 2CrO_2Cl_2 \xrightarrow{CS_2} C_6H_5CH[OCr(OH)Cl_2]_2 \xrightarrow{H_3O^+} C_6H_5CHO (P) \]
Hence, compound P is conclusively Benzaldehyde.
- Step 2: Evaluating Option (A)
Option (A) states that compound P gives a white precipitate with bromine water. Phenol (\( C_6H_5OH \)) and aniline (\( C_6H_5NH_2 \)) react rapidly with bromine water via electrophilic aromatic substitution to form a white precipitate of 2,4,6-tribromophenol or 2,4,6-tribromoaniline respectively. Benzaldehyde does not give a white precipitate with bromine water under normal conditions. Thus, this statement is incorrect.
- Step 3: Evaluating Option (B)
Option (B) states that compound P is obtained by the hydrogenation of benzoyl chloride with Pd on \( BaSO_4 \). This reaction is known as the **Rosenmund Reduction**. When benzoyl chloride (\( C_6H_5COCl \)) is hydrogenated using hydrogen gas in the presence of a palladium catalyst poisoned with barium sulfate (\( Pd/BaSO_4 \)), it undergoes partial reduction to produce benzaldehyde:
\[ C_6H_5COCl + H_2 \xrightarrow{Pd/BaSO_4} C_6H_5CHO (P) + HCl \]
Since this reaction accurately yields benzaldehyde (P), this option is absolutely correct.
- Step 4: Evaluating Option (C)
Option (C) states that treating compound P with saturated \( NaHCO_3 \) solution yields brisk effervescence. Brisk effervescence with sodium bicarbonate solution occurs due to the evolution of carbon dioxide (\( CO_2 \)) gas, which is characteristic of sufficiently strong acids such as carboxylic acids (\( R-COOH \)), sulfonic acids, or picric acid. Benzaldehyde is an aldehyde and does not react with sodium bicarbonate. Thus, this statement is incorrect.
- Step 5: Evaluating Option (D)
Option (D) describes the reaction of benzene with acetyl chloride (\( CH_3COCl \)) in the presence of anhydrous \( AlCl_3 \). This is a Friedel-Crafts Acylation reaction. The product of this reaction is **acetophenone** (\( C_6H_5COCH_3 \)), not benzaldehyde:
\[ C_6H_6 + CH_3COCl \xrightarrow{Anhydrous AlCl_3} C_6H_5COCH_3 + HCl \]
Therefore, this statement is also incorrect.
Step 4: Final Answer:
The correct option is (B).
Quick Tip: Connecting named reactions is highly common in entrance exams. Remember that both the **Etard Reaction** (oxidation of toluene) and the **Rosenmund Reduction** (reduction of benzoyl chloride) are primary synthetic routes to prepare benzaldehyde.
Match the vitamins in List-I with their sources in List-II:
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
The amount of carbon dioxide evolved upon complete combustion of 116 g of n-butane is (Given: atomic mass in amu H = 1, C = 12 and O = 16):
The compound that CANNOT be obtained from the aldol condensation reaction shown below, is:
The correct statement is:
The formula of tetraammineaquachloridocobalt(III) chloride is:
Assertion A: For an ideal solution formed by mixing liquids P and Q, \(\Delta_{mix}H = 0\) and \(\Delta_{mix}V = 0\).
Reason R: No interactions occur between P and Q.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Identify the reactions which give aniline as the major product:
A. Reduction of benzonitrile with \(LiAlH_4\)
B. Hoffmann bromamide degradation of benzamide
C. Reduction of nitrobenzene with \(NaBH_4\)
D. Hydrolysis of acetanilide
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Aniline is a primary aromatic amine (\( C_6H_5NH_2 \)).
To determine which reactions produce aniline as the major product, we must analyze the mechanisms and products of each reaction.
Step 3: Detailed Explanation:
Let us analyze each reaction in detail:
- Reaction A: Reduction of benzonitrile:
Benzonitrile (\( C_6H_5C\equiv N \)) is treated with the powerful reducing agent \( LiAlH_4 \). This reduces the nitrile group completely to a primary amine without breaking any carbon-carbon bonds:
\[ C_6H_5C\equiv N \xrightarrow{LiAlH_4} C_6H_5CH_2NH_2 (Benzylamine) \]
The product is benzylamine, not aniline. Thus, Reaction A is incorrect.
- Reaction B: Hoffmann bromamide degradation of benzamide:
Benzamide (\( C_6H_5CONH_2 \)) is treated with bromine in an aqueous or ethanolic solution of alkali (\( KOH \)):
\[ C_6H_5CONH_2 + Br_2 + 4KOH \rightarrow C_6H_5NH_2 (Aniline) + K_2CO_3 + 2KBr + 2H_2O \]
This reaction degrades the amide by removing the carbonyl carbon, directly producing aniline. Thus, Reaction B is correct.
- Reaction C: Reduction of nitrobenzene with \( NaBH_4 \):
Sodium borohydride (\( NaBH_4 \)) is a mild, highly selective reducing agent. It is not strong enough to reduce aromatic nitro groups (\( -NO_2 \)) to amines. Nitrobenzene remains unreacted under these conditions. Thus, Reaction C is incorrect.
- Reaction D: Hydrolysis of acetanilide:
Acetanilide (\( C_6H_5NHCOCH_3 \)) is a secondary amide. Heating it in the presence of an aqueous acid (\( HCl/H_2O \)) induces nucleophilic acyl substitution, leading to acidic hydrolysis:
\[ C_6H_5NHCOCH_3 + H_2O \xrightarrow[\Delta]{HCl} C_6H_5NH_3^+Cl^- + CH_3COOH \]
Upon standard alkaline workup, the anilinium chloride salt yields free aniline (\( C_6H_5NH_2 \)). Thus, Reaction D is correct.
Combining the correct reactions gives:
\[ B and D only \]
Step 4: Final Answer:
Reactions B and D produce aniline, which corresponds to Option (D).
Quick Tip: Remember:
- \( NaBH_4 \) is highly chemoselective and cannot reduce nitro groups, esters, or nitriles.
- Hoffmann degradation is a reliable method for converting primary amides to primary amines with one less carbon atom.
The correct decreasing order of oxidation state of the underlined atom in each molecule is:
(with N in \( N_2O_5 \), Al in \( Al_2O_3 \), and S in \( H_2S \) underlined)
For the following reaction sequence, choose the correct option:
Two moles of an ideal gas undergo free expansion from 10 L to 100 L at 300 K. The values of \(\Delta S_{system}\) and \(\Delta S_{surroundings}\) are (R is universal gas constant):
For an elementary chemical reaction, the Arrhenius plot is given below. If the energy of activation is \( 6.64 kJ mol^{-1} \) and \( R = 8.3 J K^{-1} mol^{-1} \), the temperature at which the rate constant becomes \( e^2 min^{-1} \), is:
Consider the following statements about the solutions formed by mixing two liquids:
A. An ideal solution thus formed obeys Raoult’s law throughout the composition range.
B. Mixture of chloroform and acetone shows negative deviation from Raoult’s law.
C. Mixture of aniline and phenol shows positive deviation from Raoult’s law.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
The highest occupied molecular orbital for \( Ne_2 \) is:
For a salt XY, which is a strong electrolyte, the plot of \( \Lambda_m \) versus \( \sqrt{c} \) has a slope of \( -90.0 S cm^2 mol^{-3/2} L^{1/2} \) at \( 298 K \). At \( 0.01 M \) concentration of XY, the value of \( \Lambda_m \) is \( 145.0 S cm^2 mol^{-1} \). The limiting molar conductivity of \( Y^- \) ion (\( \lambda_{Y^-}^\circ \), in \( S cm^2 mol^{-1} \)) at \( 298 K \) will be (Given: \( \lambda_{X^+}^\circ = 74.0 S cm^2 mol^{-1} \)):
Among the following options, the correct trend in the electron gain enthalpy is:
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Chromosomes are fully condensed at the end of prophase I.
Statement II: Meiosis I resembles mitosis.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Which of the following is not a characteristic of chordates?
Phyllotaxy is the pattern of arrangement of __________\.
Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
The plastid that stores xanthophyll is known as __________\.
Match List-I with List-II.
List-I
A. Fusion of protoplasms between gametes
B. Fusion of two nuclei
C. Generation of haploid spores
List-II
I. Meiosis
II. Plasmogamy
III. Karyogamy
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Step 1: Understanding the Question:
The question requires matching terms of sexual reproduction in fungi and other organisms from List-I with their biological definitions or outcomes in List-II.
Step 3: Detailed Explanation:
The sexual cycle in fungi involves three sequential steps: plasmogamy, karyogamy, and meiosis. Let us evaluate each:
- A. Plasmogamy: This is the first stage of sexual reproduction in fungi, defined as the fusion of protoplasms between two motile or non-motile gametes. Therefore, item A matches with II (Plasmogamy).
- B. Karyogamy: This is the second stage, defined as the fusion of the two haploid nuclei to form a single diploid zygotic nucleus. Therefore, item B matches with III (Karyogamy).
- C. Meiosis: The diploid zygote undergoes a reduction division (meiosis) to generate haploid sexual spores. Therefore, item C matches with I (Meiosis).
Combining these matched pairs gives us: A-II, B-III, and C-I.
Step 4: Final Answer:
The correct combination is A-II, B-III, C-I, which corresponds to Option (C).
Quick Tip: Break down the roots of the words: "plasmo" refers to cytoplasm/protoplasm, "karyo" refers to the nucleus, and "gamy" refers to fusion. This makes remembering plasmogamy and karyogamy very easy.
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: In gymnosperms, the male and female gametophytes remain within the sporangia.
Statement II: In gymnosperms, seeds are not covered.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
In water, frogs respire using __________\.
Mad cow disease is caused by __________\.
Which of the following statements regarding photorespiration are correct?
(a) Do not occur in C3 plants
(b) \(CO_2\) is consumed and \(O_2\) is generated
(c) Phosphoglycolate is formed
(d) No synthesis of ATP and NADPH
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Select the correct sequence of experiments that led to a gradual understanding of photosynthesis in green plants.
How many turns of Calvin cycle are required for the formation of three molecules of glucose?
Mitochondrial inner membrane encloses __________\.
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
Sphenopsida class belongs to __________\.
Match List-I with List-II.
List-I
A. Spherical
B. Rod
C. Comma
D. Spiral
List-II
I. Vibrio
II. Cocci
III. Spirilla
IV. Bacilli
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Bacteria (Kingdom Monera) are grouped into four main categories based on their basic shape. We need to connect each shape description with its correct scientific term.
Step 3: Detailed Explanation:
Let us match the bacterial shapes with their taxonomic terms:
1. Spherical (A): Spherical-shaped bacteria are called Cocci (singular: Coccus).
\[ Spherical (A) \rightarrow Cocci (II) \]
2. Rod (B): Rod-shaped bacteria are called Bacilli (singular: Bacillus).
\[ Rod (B) \rightarrow Bacilli (IV) \]
3. Comma (C): Comma-shaped bacteria are called Vibrio (singular: Vibrium).
\[ Comma (C) \rightarrow Vibrio (I) \]
4. Spiral (D): Spiral-shaped bacteria are called Spirilla (singular: Spirillum).
\[ Spiral (D) \rightarrow Spirilla (III) \]
Combining these matches, we get: A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III. This matches Option (B).
Step 4: Final Answer:
The correct matching sequence is A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III, which is Option (B).
Quick Tip: Associate the common names of bacteria with their shapes to easily remember this: Streptococcus (spherical \(\rightarrow\) Cocci), Lactobacillus (rod-shaped \(\rightarrow\) Bacilli), Vibrio cholerae (comma-shaped \(\rightarrow\) Vibrio).
Which of the following are characteristics of prokaryotic cells?
(a) Ribosomes are made of 50S and 30S subunits
(b) They can have plasmids
(c) They contain mesosome
(d) They have peroxisomes
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Smooth endoplasmic reticulum __________\.
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The class name Reptilia refers to creeping or crawling mode of locomotion.
Statement II: All organisms belonging to Reptilia have three chambered heart.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
In frogs, the number of pairs of cranial nerves arising from the brain are __________\.
Cell theory was formulated by __________\.
Which of the following statements related to pituitary gland are correct?
(a) It is divided anatomically into adenohypophysis and neurohypophysis
(b) It secretes follicle stimulating hormone
(c) It secretes melanocyte stimulating hormone
(d) It does not secrete prolactin
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Which of the following is not a prokaryote?
Length of the stem at time 0 is 20 cm. The arithmetic growth rate is 30 cm per day. What is the length of the stem at the end of the 7th day?
Which of the following is not a part of human central neural system?
Which of the following plant growth regulators promotes internode elongation prior to flowering in cabbage?
Match List-I with List-II:
List-I (Placentation types): A. Marginal, B. Axile, C. Parietal, D. Free central
List-II (Examples): I. Argemone, II. Tomato, III. Primrose, IV. Pea
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The question requires matching different types of placentation (arrangement of ovules within the ovary) listed in List-I with their characteristic plant examples in List-II. Placentation is categorized into different types based on the attachment point of ovules inside the ovary.
Step 3: Detailed Explanation:
Let us analyze the standard types of placentation and their descriptions:
- Marginal Placentation (A): The placenta forms a ridge along the ventral suture of the ovary, and the ovules are borne on this ridge in two rows. This is a classic characteristic of the Fabaceae family, with Pea (*Pisum sativum*) being the primary example. Therefore, A matches with IV.
- Axile Placentation (B): The placenta is axial and the ovules are attached to it in a multilocular ovary. Examples include Tomato, China rose, and Lemon. Therefore, B matches with II.
- Parietal Placentation (C): The ovules develop on the inner wall of the ovary or on the peripheral part. The ovary is unilocular but becomes two-chambered due to the formation of a false septum (replum). Examples include Mustard and *Argemone*. Therefore, C matches with I.
- Free Central Placentation (D): The ovules are borne on a central column, and the septa separating the chambers are completely absent. Examples include Primrose and *Dianthus*. Therefore, D matches with III.
Combining these matching pairs gives us: A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III. This matches Option (B).
Step 4: Final Answer:
The correct matching sequence is A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III, which matches Option (B).
Quick Tip: Use visual associations to memorize placentation types: Marginal = Pea pod, Axile = sliced Tomato wheels, Parietal = Mustard, Free Central = Dianthus/Primrose.
Which of the following plant growth regulators is used as herbicide?
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: When any plane passing through the central axis of the body divides the organism into two identical halves, it is called radial symmetry.
Statement II: In phylum Echinodermata, both adults and larvae are radially symmetrical.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Match List-I with List-II.
List-I
A. Starch
B. Antibody
C. Concanavalin A
D. GLUT-4
List-II
I. Fights infection
II. Energy storage
III. Glucose transport
IV. Lectin
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The question asks to match different biomolecules listed in List-I with their primary biological function or classification listed in List-II. We will identify the biochemical nature and physiological roles of starch, antibodies, Concanavalin A, and GLUT-4 based on the biomolecules and cell biology chapters.
Step 3: Detailed Explanation:
Let us match the biomolecules with their specific functions:
- Starch: A major homopolysaccharide composed of glucose units. It serves as the primary energy storage molecule in green plants. Therefore, A matches with II (Energy storage).
- Antibodies: Specialized immunoglobulins (proteins) produced by B-lymphocytes. They recognize and neutralize foreign pathogens to defend the body. Therefore, B matches with I (Fights infection).
- Concanavalin A: A secondary metabolite of plant origin that belongs to the chemical group of lectins (proteins that bind to carbohydrates). Therefore, C matches with IV (Lectin).
- GLUT-4: A specific transmembrane glucose transporter protein. It is insulin-regulated and facilitates the diffusion of glucose into adipose and muscle tissues. Therefore, D matches with III (Glucose transport).
Combining these matched pairs: A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III. This matches Option (D).
Step 4: Final Answer:
The correct matching sequence is A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III, which corresponds to Option (D).
Quick Tip: GLUT-4 is a very common topic in NEET exams. Remember that "GLUT" stands for GLUcose Transporter, which immediately connects D to III (Glucose transport).
The number of vertebrae in a human is __________\.
Which pigment has absorption peak at 700 nm in the photosynthetic reaction centre PS I (P700)?
Arrange the following taxonomic categories in ascending order.
(a) Genus, (b) Class, (c) Order, (d) Phylum, (e) Family, (f) Kingdom, (g) Species
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Match List-I with List-II.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Arrange the following elements in descending order of their contribution to percentage weight of the human body.
(a) Oxygen (b) Carbon (c) Hydrogen (d) Nitrogen
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The chemical composition of living organisms is dominated by water and organic molecules. This is reflected in the weight percentage contribution of different elements.
Step 3: Detailed Explanation:
According to standard biochemistry reference tables, the approximate elemental composition by mass in the human body is:
- Oxygen (a): This is the most abundant element, contributing approximately 65.0% of the total body weight.
- Carbon (b): This is the second most abundant element, forming the backbone of all organic molecules, contributing about 18.5% of the body weight.
- Nitrogen (d): Key to proteins and nucleic acids, contributing approximately 3.3% of the body weight.
- Hydrogen (c): Despite being abundant in terms of atom numbers, hydrogen is extremely light and contributes only about 0.5% of the total body weight.
Arranging these elements in descending order (highest to lowest percentage weight) yields:
\[ Oxygen (65.0%) > Carbon (18.5%) > Nitrogen (3.3%) > Hydrogen (0.5%) \]
In terms of options, the sequence of letters is: (a), (b), (d), (c). This corresponds to Option (C).
Step 4: Final Answer:
The descending order of the elements is (a), (b), (d), (c), which is Option (C).
Quick Tip: Remember the acronym "O-C-N-H" to recall the abundance of elements in the human body from highest to lowest: O (Oxygen) \( > \) C (Carbon) \( > \) N (Nitrogen) \( > \) H (Hydrogen).
Match List-I with List-II.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
The number of action potentials generated by sino-artrial node (SAN) in a healthy human is __________\ per minute.
Symbiotic association between fungi and algae are called __________\ .
How many molecules of pyruvic acid are produced at the end of glycolysis from 206 molecules of glucose?
Which of the following represents the correct sequence of arrangement of bones in the lower limb of humans?
Genus represents __________\ .
The correct sequence of adult cell cycle phases is __________\ .
Endomembrane system includes __________ .
Photorespiration reaction catalyzed by RuBisCo is shown below:
RuBP + O\(_2 \rightarrow\) 3-Phosphoglycerate + X
Identify "X" from the given options:
Which of the following are characteristic features of Solanaceae family?
(a) Flowers are bisexual and actinomorphic
(b) Calyx have five sepals and are united
(c) Androecium have five stamens and are epipetalous
(d) Ovary is inferior
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Sperm motility is due to __________\ .
Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A : Abingdon tortoise in Galapagos islands became extinct within a decade after goats were introduced.
Reason R : Goats were more efficient at browsing than Abingdon tortoise.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
Match List-I with List-II.
List-I
A. Both species are harmed
B. One species is harmed and the other is benefited
C. Both species are benefited
D. One is benefited while the other has no effect
List-II
I. Predation
II. Mutualism
III. Competition
IV. Commensalism
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Which of the following plant produces non-albuminous seeds ?
Which of the following statements about lac-operon is correct ?
Which of the following is used as an effective sedative and painkiller for treating post-surgery patients ?
Which of the following is the correct order of arrangement of vertebrate column from the head to toe ?
Muscle contraction is initiated by a signal sent by the central nervous system by the release of
Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A : Forelimbs of human and bats are homologous.
Reason R : Forelimbs of humans and bats have similar anatomical structure.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Down’s syndrome is caused by the absence of one of the X-chromosomes.
Statement II : Turner’s syndrome is caused by the presence of an additional copy of the chromosomes.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Which of the following statements about the reabsorption process in Henle’s loop are correct ?
(a) The descending limb of Henle’s loop is permeable to water but almost impermeable to electrolytes.
(b) Urine gets concentrated in Henle’s loop.
(c) Reabsorption of \( Na^+ \) and water takes place in Henle’s loop.
(d) Active or passive transport of electrolytes occurs in the ascending limb of Henle’s loop.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
If the diploid chromosome number of typical angiosperm is 36, what would be the chromosome number in its endosperm ?
Arrange the following in descending order of number of species in the Amazonian rain forest.
(a) Plants (b) Birds (c) Fishes (d) Invertebrates (e) Mammals
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A population of diploid organisms is at Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. If the frequency of allele A is 0.1, the frequency of AA is
The opening between the right atrium and the right ventricle is guarded by
Which of the following enzymes synthesizes precursor mRNA ?
Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A : In recombinant DNA technology, lysozyme is used for disrupting bacterial cells while cellulase is used for plant cells.
Reason R : Isolation of genetic material needs disruption of cells.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
Which of the following hormone is not secreted by human placenta ?
Colostrum, secreted by mother during initial days of lactation, is abundant in
Consider a population of 10 million cells. Given the per-capita birth rate of 0.002 (per unit time) and the per-capita death rate of 0.002 (per unit time), the expected number of cells after 10 generations is
Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Plasmids are autonomously replicating DNA.
Statement II : Plasmids are extrachromosomal DNA.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
During PCR, primers bind to the DNA strands in the ______ step.
Match List-I with List-II.
List-I
A. Transformation
B. Cloning site
C. Selection
D. Ori
List-II
I. Restriction enzyme
II. Transfer DNA to host bacteria
III. Replication
IV. Antibiotic
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Adaptive radiation in placental mammals and Australian Marsupials leading to similarity between distant species is an example of ______ .
The covering of ovum at ovulation is
Which of the following statements are correct ?
(a) Energy flow from producers to consumers is unidirectional
(b) Energy pyramid can never be inverted
(c) Transfer of energy follows the 1% law
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
How many theca are present in each lobe of a typical bilobed angiosperm anther ?
Which of the following statements is correct about Plasmodium ?
For a person with blood group 'O', which of the following is not a possible combination of parents' blood group genotypes ?
Which of the following is used as a clot buster ?
Which of the following disease is not sexually transmitted ?
Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A : In an experiment, Mendel observed that the F1 progeny plants are all tall and none are dwarf.
Reason R : Stem height is a contrasting trait, with tall being dominant and dwarf being recessive.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
The method of directly injecting a sperm into ovum in assisted reproductive technology is called :
The inactive form of Bt toxin is converted to the active form in the insect gut
Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A : The logistic growth model of populations is considered more realistic than the exponential growth model.
Reason R : Resources are finite.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
Which of the following are secondary lymphoid organs ?
(a) Bone marrow
(b) Tonsils
(c) Spleen
(d) Thymus
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Which of the following in female gametophyte of an angiosperm helps in guiding the pollen tube for fertilizing the eggs ?
Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Ovulation is caused by LH surge leading to rupture of Graafian follicles.
Statement II : Graafian follicle remaining after ovulation transform into corpus luteum and secretes large amount of estrogen.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Modern Homo sapiens arose in Australia and moved across continents.
Statement II : Homo sapiens arose around 75000 to 10000 years ago.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
Which of the following are primary consumers in a food chain ?
Which of the following is not evidence for evolution ?
Sponges exchange O\(_2\) with CO\(_2\) by
Match List-I with List-II.
List-I
A. Excess growth hormone
B. Luteinizing hormone
C. Vasopressin
D. Oxytocin
List-II
I. Reabsorption of water and electrolytes in kidney
II. Contraction of uterus during child birth
III. Acromegaly
IV. Ovulation
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Natural selection can lead to __________
(a) stabilisation
(b) genetic drift
(c) directional change
(d) disruption
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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