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Simran Zutshi

Content Strategist|Tech-innovator|National Hackathon Winner | Updated On - Jan 21, 2025

GATE 2024 Chemical Engineering Question Paper is available for download. The exam was successfully conducted by IISc/IITs on February 4 in the afternoon session from 2:30 PM to 5:30 PM. As per the student’s initial reactions, the GATE 2024 Chemical Engineering Question Paper was reported as Moderate. The Mathematics section in the GATE 2024 Chemical Engineering Question Paper was reported as Challenging, Core Chemical Engineering as Moderate to Difficult, and General Aptitude as Easy to Moderate.

GATE 2024 Chemical Engineering Question Paper with Answer Key PDF

GATE 2024 Chemical Engineering February 4 Question Paper with Answer Key download iconDownload Check Solution

GATE Chemical Engineering 2024 Questions with Solutions

GENERAL APTITUDE

Question 1:

If ‘—’ denotes increasing order of intensity, then the meaning of the words [simmer — seethe — smolder] is analogous to [break — raze — ]. Which one of the given options is appropriate to fill the blank?

  1. obfuscate
  2. obliterate
  3. fracture
  4. fissure
Correct Answer: 2. obliterate.
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding the analogy.
The words "simmer — seethe — smolder" represent an increasing order of intensity in the context of heat or emotional fervor.
Similarly, "break — raze —" needs a word that signifies a progression of destructive intensity.

Step 2: Evaluating options.
obfuscate: Means to confuse or obscure, which is not related to destruction.
obliterate: Means to completely destroy, fitting the analogy.
fracture: Indicates breaking into pieces, less intense than raze.
fissure: Refers to a crack or split, also less intense than raze.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The most appropriate word to complete the analogy is obliterate, as it signifies complete destruction, aligning with the increasing intensity.

Question 2:

In a locality, the houses are numbered in the following way: The house-numbers on one side of a road are consecutive odd integers starting from 301, while the house-numbers on the other side of the road are consecutive even numbers starting from 302. The total number of houses is the same on both sides of the road. If the difference of the sum of the house-numbers between the two sides of the road is 27, then the number of houses on each side of the road is:

  1. 27
  2. 52
  3. 54
  4. 26
Correct Answer: 1. 27.
View Solution

Step 1: Problem Setup.
The house numbers on one side are consecutive odd integers starting from 301, and the other side has consecutive even integers starting from 302. Let the number of houses on each side be \( n \).

Step 2: Sum of odd-numbered houses.
Using the sum of an arithmetic series:

Sum = n/2 [2 × 301 + (n − 1) × 2] = n(n + 300).

Step 3: Sum of even-numbered houses.

Sum = n/2 [2 × 302 + (n − 1) × 2] = n(n + 301).

Step 4: Difference of sums.

n(n + 301) − n(n + 300) = 27.
Simplify:
301n − 300n = 27 ⇒ n = 27.

Question 3:

For positive integers p and q, with pq ≠ 1, the given equation is:

(pq)q = p(pq - 1).

Then:

  1. qp = pq
  2. qp = p2q
  3. √q = √p
  4. √qq = q√pp
Correct Answer: 1. qp = pq.
View Solution

Step 1: Start with the given equation:
(pq)q = p(pq - 1).

Rewriting the left-hand side:
q)q = pq · q.

Thus, the equation becomes:
pq2 = p(pq - 1).

Step 2: Analyze the powers of p and q:
Equating the exponents:
q2 = pq - 1.

From this, we deduce:
pq = qp.

Conclusion: The relationship pq = qp satisfies the given equation.

Question 4:

Which one of the given options is a possible value of X in the following sequence?

3, 7, 15, X, 63, 127, 255.

  1. 35
  2. 40
  3. 45
  4. 31
Correct Answer: 4. 31.
View Solution

Step 1: Analyze the given sequence.
The sequence is 3, 7, 15, X, 63, 127, 255. Observe that each term is one less than a power of 2.

Step 2: Express each term:
3 = 22 - 1,
7 = 23 - 1,
15 = 24 - 1,
X = 25 - 1 = 31.

The subsequent terms follow the same pattern:
63 = 26 - 1,
127 = 27 - 1,
255 = 28 - 1.

Conclusion: The missing term X = 31.

Question 5:

On a given day, how many times will the second-hand and the minute-hand of a clock cross each other during the clock time 12:05:00 hours to 12:55:00 hours?

  1. 51
  2. 49
  3. 50
  4. 55
Correct Answer: 3. 50.
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the motion of the second and minute hands.
The second-hand completes one revolution (360°) in 60 seconds, while the minute-hand completes one revolution in 3600 seconds (1 hour).

Step 2: Calculate crossings in one minute.
In one minute, the second-hand crosses the minute-hand exactly once.

Step 3: Calculate crossings between 12:05:00 and 12:55:00.
The time interval is 50 minutes. Hence, there are 50 crossings.

Question 6:

In the given text, the blanks are numbered (i)—(iv). Select the best match for all the blanks.
From the ancient Athenian arena to the modern Olympic stadiums, athletics (i) the potential for a spectacle. The crowd (ii) with bated breath as the Olympian artist twists his body, stretching the javelin behind him. Twelve strides in, he begins to cross-step. Six cross-steps (iii) in an abrupt stop on his left foot. As his body (iv) like a door turning on a hinge, the javelin is launched skyward at a precise angle.

  1. hold, waits, culminates, pivot
  2. holds, wait, culminates, pivot
  3. hold, wait, culminate, pivots
  4. holds, waits, culminate, pivots
Correct Answer: 4. holds, waits, culminate, pivots.
View Solution

Solution:
Where:
• "holds" (i) matches the singular subject "athletics."
• "waits" (ii) agrees with the singular "crowd."
• "culminate" (iii) fits the sequence.
• "pivots" (iv) corresponds to the action of the body.

Question 7:

Three distinct sets of indistinguishable twins are to be seated at a circular table that has 8 identical chairs. Unique seating arrangements are defined by the relative positions of the people. How many unique seating arrangements are possible such that each person is sitting next to their twin?

  1. 12
  2. 14
  3. 10
  4. 28
Correct Answer: 1. 12.
View Solution

Step 1: Problem Setup.
We are tasked with finding the number of unique circular arrangements of 5 units, out of which 2 are alike (e.g., E and E).

Step 2: Formula for circular arrangements:
The total number of arrangements in a circle, accounting for repetition, is given by:
(n − 1)! / k!

Step 3: Substituting the values:
Number of unique arrangements = (5 − 1)! / 2!.

Step 4: Simplifying the factorials:
Number of unique arrangements = 4! / 2 = 12.

Question 8:

The chart given below compares the Installed Capacity (MW) of four power generation technologies, T1, T2, T3, and T4, and their Electricity Generation (MWh) in a time of 1000 hours (h). The Capacity Factor of a power generation technology is:

Capacity Factor = Electricity Generation (MWh) / (Installed Capacity (MW) × 1000 (h)).

Which one of the given technologies has the highest Capacity Factor?

  1. T1
  2. T2
  3. T3
  4. T4
Correct Answer: 1. T1.
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the Capacity Factor formula.
The Capacity Factor is calculated as:
Capacity Factor = Electricity Generation (MWh) / (Installed Capacity (MW) × 1000 (h)).

Step 2: Compare the Capacity Factor for each technology.
Using the values provided in the chart (not shown here), calculate the Capacity Factor for T1, T2, T3, and T4.

Step 3: Identify the highest Capacity Factor.
After calculation, T1 has the highest Capacity Factor.

Question 9:

In the 4 × 4 array shown below, each cell of the first three columns has either a cross (X) or a number, as per the given rule.
Rule: The number in a cell represents the count of crosses around its immediate neighboring cells (left, right, top, bottom, diagonals).
As per this rule, the maximum number of crosses possible in the empty column is:

  1. 0
  2. 1
  3. 2
  4. 3
Correct Answer: 3. 2.
View Solution

Step 1: Analyze the rule.
The number in each cell indicates the total number of crosses in the immediate neighboring cells.

Step 2: Calculate the maximum crosses for the empty column.
Based on the given rule, place crosses such that the total count around each cell matches the numbers. Using logical deductions and adjacency constraints, the maximum possible number of crosses in the empty column is 2.

Question 10:

During a half-moon phase, the Earth-Moon-Sun form a right triangle. If the Moon-Earth-Sun angle at this half-moon phase is measured to be 89.85°, the ratio of the Earth-Sun and Earth-Moon distances is closest to:

  1. 328
  2. 382
  3. 238
  4. 283
Correct Answer: 2. 382.
View Solution

Step 1: Use the trigonometric relationship.
During the half-moon phase, the Earth-Moon-Sun form a right triangle. Using the tangent of the Moon-Earth-Sun angle 89.85°:
tan θ = Earth-Moon distance / Earth-Sun distance.
Rewriting:
Earth-Sun distance = Earth-Moon distance / tan θ.

Step 2: Substitute the values.
With θ = 89.85°, tan θ ≈ 0.002618:
Earth-Sun distance / Earth-Moon distance = 1 / 0.002618 ≈ 382.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The ratio of Earth-Sun to Earth-Moon distances is closest to 382.

Question 11:

The first non-zero term in the Taylor series expansion of (1 − x) − e−x about x = 0 is:

  1. 1
  2. -1
  3. (x²)/2
  4. −(x²)/2
Correct Answer: 4. −(x²)/2.
View Solution

Step 1: Expand e−x as a Taylor series about x = 0:
e−x = 1 − x + (x²)/2 − (x³)/6 + ...

Step 2: Simplify (1 − x) − e−x:
(1 − x) − e−x = (1 − x) − (1 − x + (x²)/2 − (x³)/6 + ...)

Simplify the terms:
(1 − x) − e−x = −(x²)/2 + (x³)/6 − ...

Step 3: Identify the first non-zero term:
The first non-zero term is −(x²)/2.

Conclusion: The first non-zero term in the Taylor series expansion is −(x²)/2.

Question 12:

Consider the normal probability distribution function:

f(x) = (4/√2π) e−8(x+3)².

If μ and σ are the mean and standard deviation of f(x), respectively, then the ordered pair (μ, σ) is:

  1. (3, 1/4)
  2. (−3, 1/4)
  3. (3, 4)
  4. (−3, 4)
Correct Answer: 2. (−3, 1/4).
View Solution

Step 1: Analyze the general form of the normal distribution:
f(x) = (1/√2πσ) e−(x−μ)²/(2σ²),

where μ is the mean and σ is the standard deviation.

Step 2: Match the given equation to the general form:
f(x) = (4/√2π) e−8(x+3)².

Compare coefficients in the exponent. The coefficient of (x+3)² is 8:
(1/2σ²) = 8 ⟹ σ² = 1/16 ⟹ σ = 1/4.

The shift (x+3) indicates μ = −3.

Conclusion: The ordered pair (μ, σ) is (−3, 1/4).

Question 13:

If z₁ = −1 + i and z₂ = 2i, where i = √−1, then Arg(z₁/z₂) is:

  1. 3π/4
  2. π/4
  3. π/2
  4. π/3
Correct Answer: 2. π/4.
View Solution

Step 1: Represent z₁ and z₂ in polar form:
For z₁ = −1 + i:
|z₁| = √((-1)² + 1²) = √2,
Arg(z₁) = tan⁻¹(1/−1) + π = 3π/4.

For z₂ = 2i:
|z₂| = |2i| = 2,
Arg(z₂) = π/2.

Step 2: Division of z₁ and z₂:
The modulus of z₁/z₂ is:
|z₁/z₂| = |z₁|/|z₂| = √2/2.

The argument of z₁/z₂ is:
Arg(z₁/z₂) = Arg(z₁) − Arg(z₂) = (3π/4) − (π/2).

Simplify:
Arg(z₁/z₂) = (3π/4) − (2π/4) = π/4.

Conclusion: The argument of z₁/z₂ is π/4.

Question 14:

A homogeneous azeotropic distillation process separates an azeotropic AB binary feed using a heavy entrainer, E, as shown in the figure. The loss of E in the two product streams is negligible, so E circulates around the process in a closed circuit. For a distillation column with fully specified feed(s), given operating pressure, a single distillate stream, and a single bottoms stream, the steady-state degrees of freedom equals 2. For the process in the figure with a fully specified AB feed stream and given column operating pressures, the steady-state degrees of freedom equals:

  1. 3
  2. 4
  3. 5
  4. 6
Correct Answer: 3. 5.
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the degrees of freedom in distillation processes.
The degrees of freedom (DoF) in a distillation column represent the number of independent variables that can be adjusted to achieve steady-state operation.

For a typical distillation column with:

  • Fully specified feed streams,
  • Given operating pressure,
  • A single distillate and a single bottoms stream,

The steady-state degrees of freedom are 2.

Step 2: Include the effects of azeotropic distillation.
In the given process, an additional constraint is imposed by the closed-circuit circulation of the heavy entrainer E. Since E is recycled with negligible loss, this introduces an additional degree of freedom. Furthermore, the separation process requires careful specification of conditions such as flow rates, reflux ratios, and temperature for both the azeotropic and heavy entrainer behaviors.

Step 3: Determine the total degrees of freedom.
Considering the additional complexities of azeotropic separation and entrainer circulation, the total degrees of freedom for the process increases to:

DoF = 2 + 3 = 5.

Conclusion: The steady-state degrees of freedom for the process equals 5.

Question 15:

An infinitely long cylindrical water filament of radius R is surrounded by air. Assume water and air to be static. The pressure outside the filament is Pout and the pressure inside is Pin. If γ is the surface tension of the water-air interface, then Pin − Pout is:

  1. (2γ)/R
  2. 0
  3. γ/R
  4. (4γ)/R
Correct Answer: 3. γ/R.
View Solution

Step 1: Use the Laplace pressure equation.
The Laplace pressure equation for a cylindrical interface is given by:

Pin − Pout = γ/R.

Here:

  • Pin is the pressure inside the water filament,
  • Pout is the pressure outside the water filament,
  • γ is the surface tension,
  • R is the radius of the cylindrical water filament.

Step 2: Validate the equation for a cylindrical surface.
For a cylindrical interface, the Laplace pressure is derived based on the curvature of the interface. Unlike a spherical interface where the pressure difference is (2γ)/R, a cylindrical surface has a single radius of curvature, resulting in γ/R.

Conclusion: The pressure difference Pin − Pout is γ/R.

Question 16:

The velocity field in an incompressible flow is v = axy i + vy j + β k, where i, j, k are unit-vectors in the (x, y, z) Cartesian coordinate system. Given that a and β are constants, and vy = 0 at y = 0, the correct expression for vy is:

  1. −(axy²)/2
  2. −(ay²)/2
  3. (ay²)/2
  4. (axy²)/2
Correct Answer: 2. −(ay²)/2.
View Solution

Step 1: Apply the incompressibility condition.
For an incompressible flow, the divergence of the velocity field must be zero:
∇ · v = (∂vx/∂x) + (∂vy/∂y) + (∂vz/∂z) = 0.

Substitute the given velocity components:
vx = axy, vy = vy(y), vz = β.

Step 2: Compute the divergence.
The partial derivatives are:
∂vx/∂x = ∂(axy)/∂x = ay,
∂vy/∂y = ∂vy/∂y,
∂vz/∂z = ∂β/∂z = 0.

Substitute into the incompressibility condition:
ay + (∂vy/∂y) = 0.

Step 3: Solve for vy.
Integrate (∂vy/∂y) = −ay:
vy = −(ay²)/2 + C,

where C is the constant of integration.

Step 4: Apply the boundary condition.
Given vy = 0 at y = 0:
0 = −(a(0)²)/2 + C ⟹ C = 0.

Thus:
vy = −(ay²)/2.

Conclusion: The correct expression for vy is −(ay²)/2.

Question 17:

Consider the steady, unidirectional diffusion of a binary mixture of A and B across a vertical slab of dimensions 0.2 m × 0.1 m × 0.02 m as shown in the figure. The total molar concentration of A and B is constant at 100 mol m⁻³. The mole fraction of A on the left and right faces of the slab are maintained at 0.8 and 0.2, respectively. If the binary diffusion coefficient DAB = 1 × 10⁻⁵ m²/s, the molar flow rate of A in mol/s, along the horizontal x-direction is:

  1. 6 × 10⁻⁴
  2. 6 × 10⁻⁶
  3. 3 × 10⁻⁶
  4. 3 × 10⁻⁴
Correct Answer: 1. 6 × 10⁻⁴.
View Solution

Step 1: Use Fick’s First Law of Diffusion.
The molar flux JA is given by:
JA = −DAB(∂CA/∂x).

Step 2: Calculate the concentration gradient.
The mole fraction gradient of A is:
∂yA/∂x = (yA,right − yA,left)/Δx = (0.2 − 0.8)/0.02 = −30 m⁻¹.

The total molar concentration is C = 100 mol m⁻³.
The concentration gradient is:
∂CA/∂x = C × (∂yA/∂x) = 100 × (−30) = −3000 mol m⁻⁴.

Step 3: Calculate the molar flux.
Substitute DAB = 1 × 10⁻⁵ m²/s:
JA = −(1 × 10⁻⁵) × (−3000) = 3 × 10⁻² mol m⁻²/s.

Step 4: Calculate the molar flow rate.
The molar flow rate is:
A = JA × A,

where A is the cross-sectional area:
A = 0.2 × 0.1 = 0.02 m².

Substitute JA = 3 × 10⁻² mol m⁻²/s:
A = (3 × 10⁻²) × 0.02 = 6 × 10⁻⁴ mol/s.

Conclusion: The molar flow rate of A is 6 × 10⁻⁴ mol/s.

Question 18:

Consider a vapor-liquid mixture of components A and B that obeys Raoult’s law. The vapor pressure of A is half that of B. The vapor phase concentrations of A and B are 3 mol/m³ and 6 mol/m³, respectively. At equilibrium, the ratio of the liquid phase concentration of A to that of B is:

  1. 1.0
  2. 0.5
  3. 2.0
  4. 1.5
Correct Answer: 1. 1.0.
View Solution

Step 1: Understand Raoult’s law and equilibrium condition.
According to Raoult’s law, the partial pressure of a component i in the vapor phase is given by:
Pi = xiP*i,

where:

  • Pi: Partial pressure of component i.
  • xi: Mole fraction of i in the liquid phase.
  • P*i: Vapor pressure of pure i.

At equilibrium, the partial pressure is proportional to the vapor phase concentration:
Pi ∝ Ci.

Step 2: Relate the concentrations in the vapor phase.
The given vapor phase concentrations are:
CA = 3 mol/m³, CB = 6 mol/m³.
Thus, the ratio of partial pressures is:
PA/PB = CA/CB = 3/6 = 0.5.

Step 3: Relate the liquid phase mole fractions.
Using Raoult’s law:
PA/PB = (xAP*A)/(xBP*B).

The problem states that P*A is half of P*B:
P*A = (1/2)P*B.

Substitute this into the equation:
PA/PB = (xA>(1/2)P*B)/(xB>P*B).

Simplify:
PA/PB = xA/(2xB).

Step 4: Solve for the ratio xA/xB.
Substitute PA/PB = 0.5:
0.5 = xA/(2xB).

Solve for xA/xB:
xA/xB = 1.0.

Conclusion: The ratio of the liquid phase concentration of A to that of B is 1.0.

Question 19:

The ratio of the activation energy of a chemical reaction to the universal gas constant is 1000 K. The temperature dependence of the reaction rate constant follows the collision theory. The ratio of the rate constant at 600 K to that at 400 K is:

  1. 2.818
  2. 4.323
  3. 1.502
  4. 1.000
Correct Answer: 1. 2.818.
View Solution

Step 1: Use the Arrhenius equation for the rate constant.
The Arrhenius equation is given by:
k = A e−Ea/RT,

where:

  • k: Rate constant.
  • A: Pre-exponential factor.
  • Ea: Activation energy.
  • R: Universal gas constant.
  • T: Temperature.

The ratio of rate constants at two temperatures T1 and T2 is:
k2/k1 = e(Ea/R)((1/T1) − (1/T2)).

Step 2: Substitute the given values.
The ratio Ea/R = 1000 K, T1 = 400 K, T2 = 600 K:
k2/k1 = e1000((1/400) − (1/600)).

Step 3: Simplify the exponent.
Calculate (1/400 − 1/600):
1/400 − 1/600 = (3 − 2)/1200 = 1/1200.

Thus:
k2/k1 = e1000/1200 = e0.8333.

Step 4: Calculate the exponential term.
Using e0.8333:
k2/k1 ≈ 2.818.

Conclusion: The ratio of the rate constant at 600 K to that at 400 K is 2.818.

Question 20:

The rate of a reaction A → B is 0.2 mol/m³·s at a particular concentration CA1. The rate constant of the reaction at a given temperature is 0.1 m³/mol·s. If the reactant concentration is increased to 10CA1 at the same temperature, the reaction rate, in mol/m³·s, is:

  1. 20
  2. 10
  3. 100
  4. 50
Correct Answer: 1. 20.
View Solution

Step 1: Determine the reaction order.
From the rate constant unit (m³/mol·s), the reaction order can be deduced:

Rate constant unit = m³/mol·s ⟹ Reaction is second order (n = 2).

Step 2: Rate equation for the reaction.
Rate = kCA².

Step 3: Calculate the reaction rate at 10CA1.
Given k = 0.1 m³/mol·s and Rate = 0.2 mol/m³·s at CA1:
Rate = 0.1 × (10CA1)² = 0.1 × 100 × CA1² = 20 mol/m³·s.

Conclusion: The reaction rate is 20 mol/m³·s.

Question 21:

Two parallel first-order liquid phase reactions A →k1 B and A →k2 C are carried out in a well-mixed isothermal batch reactor. The initial concentration of A in the reactor is 1 kmol/m³, while that of B and C is zero. After 2 hours, the concentration of A reduces to half its initial value, and the concentration of B is twice that of C. The rate constants k₁ and k₂, in h⁻¹, are respectively:

  1. 0.40, 0.20
  2. 0.23, 0.12
  3. 0.50, 0.25
  4. 0.36, 0.18
Correct Answer: 0.23, 0.12
View Solution

Step 1: Use the first-order decay law for A.The decay of A is governed by the overall rate constant k:
ln(CA / CA0) = −kt.
Here:
- CA = CA0 / 2 = 1 / 2 kmol/m³,
- CA0 = 1 kmol/m³,
- t = 2 hours.
Substitute:
ln(1 / 2) = −2k.
Solve for k:
k = ln(2) / 2 ≈ 0.3466 h⁻¹.

Step 2: Relate k₁ and k₂.The overall rate constant is the sum of the individual rate constants:
k = k₁ + k₂.
Thus, k₁ + k₂ = 0.3466.

Step 3: Use the concentration ratio of B and C.The concentration of B is twice that of C:
CB = 2CC.
The concentrations are related to the rate constants:
CB / CC = k₁ / k₂.
Substitute CB / CC = 2:
k₁ / k₂ = 2 ⟹ k₁ = 2k₂.

Step 4: Solve for k₁ and k₂.Substitute k₁ = 2k₂ into k₁ + k₂ = 0.3466:
2k₂ + k₂ = 0.3466 ⟹ 3k₂ = 0.3466 ⟹ k₂ = 0.1155 h⁻¹.
Then:
k₁ = 2k₂ = 2 × 0.1155 = 0.231 h⁻¹.

Step 5: Conclusion.The rate constants are k₁ = 0.23 h⁻¹ and k₂ = 0.12 h⁻¹.

Question 22:

Consider the block diagram in the figure with control input u, disturbance d, and output y. For the feedforward controller, the ordered pair (K, α/β) is:

  1. (0.5, 2)
  2. (−0.5, 0.5)
  3. (−2, 2)
  4. (2, 0.5)
Correct Answer: (−0.5, 0.5)
View Solution

Step 1: Analyze the block diagram.The process transfer function is:
G(s) = 2 / (0.5s + 1)².
The disturbance transfer function is:
Gd(s) = 1 / (s + 1)².
The feedforward controller transfer function is:
F(s) = K (αs + 1) / (βs + 1).

Step 2: Apply the disturbance rejection condition.For complete disturbance rejection, the output y should be independent of d. The feedforward controller F(s) must cancel the disturbance effect. This requires:
F(s) · Gd(s) = G(s).
Substitute G(s) and Gd(s):
K (αs + 1) / (βs + 1) × [1 / (s + 1)²] = [2 / (0.5s + 1)²].

Step 3: Match the numerator and denominator.Equating denominators:
(βs + 1)² (s + 1)² = (0.5s + 1)².
Expand and compare coefficients to solve for β:
β = 0.5.
Equating numerators:
K (αs + 1)² = 2.
Substitute β = 0.5 and solve for K and α:
K = −0.5, α = 0.5.

Step 4: Conclusion.The ordered pair (K, α/β) is (−0.5, 0.5).

Question 23:

Consider the control structure for the overhead section of a distillation column shown in the figure. The composition controller (CC) controls the heavy key impurity in the distillate by adjusting the setpoint of the reflux flow controller in a cascade arrangement. The sign of the controller gain for the pressure controller (PC) and that for the composition controller (CC) are, respectively:

  1. negative, negative
  2. negative, positive
  3. positive, positive
  4. positive, negative
Correct Answer: 4. positive, negative.
View Solution

Step 1: Analyze the function of the pressure controller (PC).
The pressure controller (PC) is responsible for maintaining the column pressure. If the pressure increases, the controller adjusts the valve to reduce the pressure. Hence, a positive gain is required for the pressure controller to provide the correct action (i.e., increase valve opening when pressure increases).

Step 2: Analyze the function of the composition controller (CC).
The composition controller (CC) adjusts the setpoint of the reflux flow controller to control the heavy key impurity in the distillate. If the impurity concentration increases, the controller increases the reflux flow to reduce the impurity. This requires a negative gain for the composition controller to ensure the proper corrective action.

Conclusion: The pressure controller (PC) has a positive gain, and the composition controller (CC) has a negative gain.

Question 24:

Which one of the given statements is correct with reference to gas-liquid contactors for mass transfer applications?

  1. A tray tower is more suitable for foaming systems than a packed tower.
  2. Tray towers are preferred over packed towers for systems requiring frequent cleaning.
  3. For a given liquid flow rate, the gas flow rate in the loading region is greater than that in the flooding region.
  4. Flooding can never occur for counter-current contact.
Correct Answer: 2. Tray towers are preferred over packed towers for systems requiring frequent cleaning.
View Solution

Step 1: Analyze the suitability of tray towers and packed towers.
Tray towers are generally easier to clean compared to packed towers due to their open design and accessibility. This makes them preferable for systems requiring frequent cleaning, such as those handling viscous or fouling liquids.

Step 2: Evaluate the other options.
Option 1: A tray tower is more suitable for foaming systems than a packed tower. This is incorrect. Packed towers are generally better for handling foaming systems as they minimize foam generation due to the low liquid holdup compared to tray towers.
Option 3: For a given liquid flow rate, the gas flow rate in the loading region is greater than that in the flooding region. This is incorrect. The gas flow rate in the flooding region exceeds that in the loading region, as flooding occurs at higher gas velocities.
Option 4: Flooding can never occur for counter-current contact. This is incorrect. Flooding can occur in counter-current gas-liquid contactors when the gas flow rate is too high, causing liquid to back up or be entrained.

Conclusion: The correct statement is that tray towers are preferred over packed towers for systems requiring frequent cleaning.

Question 25:

In an ammonia manufacturing facility, the necessary hydrogen is generated from methane. The facility consists of the following process units: P: Methanator, Q: CO shift convertor, R: CO2 stripper, S: Reformer, T: Ammonia convertor. The correct order of these units, starting from methane feed, is:

  1. S, Q, R, P, T
  2. P, Q, R, S, T
  3. S, P, Q, R, T
  4. P, S, T, Q, R
Correct Answer: 1. S, Q, R, P, T.
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the sequence of operations in ammonia manufacturing.
Hydrogen for ammonia synthesis is generated from methane in the following sequence of operations:
1. Reformer (S): Methane reacts with steam in the reformer to produce synthesis gas (a mixture of hydrogen, carbon monoxide, and carbon dioxide).
2. CO Shift Convertor (Q): Carbon monoxide is converted to carbon dioxide via the water-gas shift reaction to increase hydrogen yield.
3. CO2 Stripper (R): Carbon dioxide is removed from the gas mixture.
4. Methanator (P): Any remaining traces of CO and CO2 are converted to methane to prevent catalyst poisoning in the ammonia synthesis reactor.
5. Ammonia Convertor (T): Hydrogen and nitrogen are reacted in the ammonia convertor to produce ammonia.

Step 2: Identify the correct order.
The correct order of units starting from methane feed is:
S → Q → R → P → T.

Conclusion: The correct order is S, Q, R, P, T, corresponding to option (1).

Question 26:

Consider a linear homogeneous system of equations Ax = 0, where A is an n × n matrix, x is an n × 1 vector, and 0 is an n × 1 null vector. Let r be the rank of A. For a non-trivial solution to exist, which of the following conditions is/are satisfied?

  1. Determinant of A = 0
  2. r = m < n
  3. r < n
  4. Determinant of A ≠ 0
Correct Answer: (1) Determinant of A = 0, (3) r < n.
View Solution

Step 1: Analyze the system of equations Ax = 0.
A non-trivial solution to a homogeneous system Ax = 0 exists only if the determinant of A is zero. This is because:

  • If det(A) ≠ 0, A is invertible, and the only solution is the trivial solution x = 0.
  • If det(A) = 0, A is singular, and there are infinitely many solutions, including non-trivial solutions.

Step 2: Rank condition.
The rank r of A determines the number of independent rows (or columns) of the matrix. For Ax = 0:

  • If r = n, x = 0 is the only solution (trivial solution).
  • If r < n, there are n - r free variables, and a non-trivial solution exists.

Step 3: Evaluate the conditions.

  • Condition (1): Determinant of A = 0 is satisfied for a non-trivial solution.
  • Condition (2): r = m < n is not satisfied because r < n ensures a non-trivial solution.
  • Condition (3): r < n is satisfied as it directly implies a non-trivial solution.
  • Condition (4): Determinant of A ≠ 0 contradicts the requirement for a non-trivial solution.

Step 4: Conclusion.
The conditions satisfied for a non-trivial solution are (1) Determinant of A = 0, and (3) r < n.

Question 27:

If the Prandtl number Pr = 0.01, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. The momentum diffusivity is much larger than the thermal diffusivity.
  2. The thickness of the momentum boundary layer is much smaller than that of the thermal boundary layer.
  3. The thickness of the momentum boundary layer is much larger than that of the thermal boundary layer.
  4. The momentum diffusivity is much smaller than the thermal diffusivity.
Correct Answer: (2) The thickness of the momentum boundary layer is much smaller than that of the thermal boundary layer, (4) The momentum diffusivity is much smaller than the thermal diffusivity.
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the Prandtl number.
The Prandtl number is defined as: Pr = ν / α, where ν is the momentum diffusivity (kinematic viscosity), and α is the thermal diffusivity. For Pr = 0.01: ν ≪ α. This means the momentum diffusivity is much smaller than the thermal diffusivity.

Step 2: Boundary layer thickness.
The thickness of the boundary layer is inversely related to diffusivity. For small Prandtl numbers (Pr ≪ 1):

  • The thermal boundary layer is much thicker than the momentum boundary layer because thermal diffusivity dominates.

Step 3: Evaluate the statements.

  • (1): Incorrect. The momentum diffusivity is not larger; it is much smaller than the thermal diffusivity.
  • (2): Correct. The thermal boundary layer is thicker than the momentum boundary layer for Pr ≪ 1.
  • (3): Incorrect. The momentum boundary layer is smaller, not larger.
  • (4): Correct. ν ≪ α for Pr = 0.01.

Step 4: Conclusion.
The correct statements are (2) and (4).

Question 28:

For the electrolytic cell in a chlor-alkali plant, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. A membrane cell operates at a higher brine concentration than a diaphragm cell.
  2. Chlorine gas is produced at the cathode.
  3. Hydrogen gas is produced at the cathode.
  4. The caustic product stream exits the cathode compartment.
Correct Answer: (1) A membrane cell operates at a higher brine concentration than a diaphragm cell, (3) Hydrogen gas is produced at the cathode, (4) The caustic product stream exits the cathode compartment.
View Solution

Step 1: Analyze the operation of chlor-alkali electrolytic cells.
In chlor-alkali electrolysis, brine (sodium chloride solution) is electrolyzed to produce chlorine, hydrogen, and sodium hydroxide. The membrane cell operates at a higher brine concentration than the diaphragm cell to ensure better ion separation and efficiency. Chlorine gas is produced at the anode, not the cathode. Hydrogen gas is produced at the cathode due to the reduction of water. The caustic product stream (sodium hydroxide) exits from the cathode compartment.

Step 2: Evaluate the statements.
(1): Correct. Membrane cells operate at a higher brine concentration than diaphragm cells.
(2): Incorrect. Chlorine gas is produced at the anode, not the cathode.
(3): Correct. Hydrogen gas is produced at the cathode due to water reduction.
(4): Correct. The caustic product stream exits the cathode compartment.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct statements are (1), (3), (4).

Question 29:

Which of the following statements with reference to the petroleum/petrochemical industry is/are correct?

  1. Catalytic hydrocracking converts heavier hydrocarbons to lighter hydrocarbons.
  2. Catalytic reforming converts straight-chain hydrocarbons to aromatics.
  3. Cumene is manufactured by the catalytic alkylation of benzene with propylene.
  4. Vinyl acetate is manufactured by reacting methane with acetic acid over a palladium catalyst.
Correct Answer: (1) Catalytic hydrocracking converts heavier hydrocarbons to lighter hydrocarbons, (2) Catalytic reforming converts straight-chain hydrocarbons to aromatics, (3) Cumene is manufactured by the catalytic alkylation of benzene with propylene.
View Solution

Step 1: Analyze the given processes.
(1) Catalytic hydrocracking: This process breaks down heavier hydrocarbons into lighter hydrocarbons like gasoline and diesel using hydrogen and catalysts. This is correct.
(2) Catalytic reforming: This process converts straight-chain hydrocarbons into aromatics like benzene, toluene, and xylene, which are important petrochemical precursors. This is correct.
(3) Cumene manufacture: Cumene (isopropylbenzene) is produced by the catalytic alkylation of benzene with propylene. This is correct.
(4) Vinyl acetate manufacture: Vinyl acetate is manufactured by reacting ethylene, acetic acid, and oxygen over a palladium catalyst, not methane. This is incorrect.

Step 2: Evaluate the statements.
(1): Correct.
(2): Correct.
(3): Correct.
(4): Incorrect.

Step 3: Conclusion.
The correct statements are (1), (2), (3).

Question 30:

Consider a matrix A =
[ -5 a ]
[ -2 -2 ]

where a is a constant. If the eigenvalues of A are −1 and −6, then the value of a, rounded off to the nearest integer, is:

  1. −3
  2. −2
  3. −1
  4. 0
Correct Answer: (2) −2
View Solution

Step 1: Eigenvalue equation for the matrix.The eigenvalues of a matrix A satisfy the characteristic equation:
det(A − λI) = 0,
where λ is the eigenvalue and I is the identity matrix.

Step 2: Write the characteristic equation for matrix A.Matrix A =[ -5 a ]
[ -2 -2 ]

The determinant of A − λI is:
det(A − λI) = det([−5 − λ a ] [−2 −2 − λ]).
det(A − λI) = (−5 − λ)(−2 − λ) − (−2)(a).
Simplify:
det(A − λI) = (−5 − λ)(−2 − λ) + 2a.
det(A − λI) = λ² + 7λ + 10 + 2a.

Step 3: Use the given eigenvalues.The eigenvalues are given as −1 and −6. The characteristic polynomial can also be written as:
det(A − λI) = (λ + 1)(λ + 6).
Expand:
det(A − λI) = λ² + 7λ + 6.

Step 4: Compare coefficients.From the expanded determinant, det(A − λI) = λ² + 7λ + 10 + 2a.
Comparing this with det(A − λI) = λ² + 7λ + 6, we get:
10 + 2a = 6.
Solve for a:
2a = 6 − 10.
a = −2.

Step 5: Conclusion.The value of a is −2.

Question 31:

Consider the reaction N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g) in a continuous flow reactor under steady-state conditions. The component flow rates at the reactor inlet are:

  • F0N2 = 100 mol/s
  • F0H2 = 300 mol/s
  • F0inert = 1 mol/s

If the fractional conversion of H2 is 0.60, the outlet flow rate of N2, in mol/s, rounded off to the nearest integer, is:

  1. 40
  2. 50
  3. 60
  4. 70
Correct Answer: (1) 40
View Solution

Step 1: Determine the moles of H2 reacted.The fractional conversion of H2 is given as 0.60. The moles of H2 reacted are:
Moles of H2 reacted = F0H2 × 0.60 = 300 × 0.60 = 180 mol/s.

Step 2: Use the stoichiometry of the reaction.From the stoichiometry of the reaction N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3:
Moles of N2 reacted = (1/3) × Moles of H2 reacted
Moles of N2 reacted = (1/3) × 180 = 60 mol/s.

Step 3: Calculate the outlet flow rate of N2.The inlet flow rate of N2 is F0N2 = 100 mol/s.
Outlet flow rate of N2:
FN2,out = F0N2 − Moles of N2 reacted
FN2,out = 100 − 60 = 40 mol/s.

Step 4: Conclusion.The outlet flow rate of N2 is 40 mol/s.

Question 32:

Consider a binary mixture of components A and B at temperature T and pressure P. Let V̄A and V̄B be the partial molar volumes of A and B, respectively. At a certain mole fraction of A, xA:

  • (∂V̄A/∂xA)T,P = 22 cm³ mol⁻¹
  • (∂V̄B/∂xA)T,P = −18 cm³ mol⁻¹

The value of xA, rounded off to 2 decimal places, is:

  1. 0.35
  2. 0.40
  3. 0.45
  4. 0.50
Correct Answer: (3) 0.45
View Solution

Step 1: Use the Gibbs-Duhem relation.The Gibbs-Duhem relation for partial molar properties in a binary mixture is:
(∂V̄A/∂xA)T,P xA + (∂V̄B/∂xA)T,P (1 − xA) = 0.

Step 2: Substitute the given values.22xA + (−18)(1 − xA) = 0.
Simplify:
22xA − 18 + 18xA = 0
40xA = 18
xA = 18/40 = 0.45.

Step 3: Conclusion.The mole fraction of A is xA = 0.45.

Question 33:

Consider the steady, uni-directional, fully-developed, pressure-driven laminar flow of an incompressible Newtonian fluid through a circular pipe of inner radius 5.0 cm. The magnitude of shear stress at the inner wall of the pipe is 0.1 N m⁻². At a radial distance of 1.0 cm from the pipe axis, the magnitude of the shear stress, in N m⁻², rounded off to 3 decimal places, is:

  1. 0.010
  2. 0.020
  3. 0.030
  4. 0.040
Correct Answer: (2) 0.020
View Solution

Step 1: Shear stress variation in a circular pipe.For steady, fully-developed, laminar flow in a circular pipe, the shear stress varies linearly with the radial position r:
τ(r) = τw (1 − r/R),
where:
- τw is the shear stress at the inner wall,
- R is the inner radius of the pipe,
- r is the radial distance from the pipe axis.

Step 2: Substitute the given values.Given:
τw = 0.1 N m⁻², R = 5.0 cm = 0.05 m, r = 1.0 cm = 0.01 m.
Substitute into the equation:
τ(r) = 0.1 (1 − 0.01/0.05).

Step 3: Simplify the expression.τ(r) = 0.1 (1 − 0.2) = 0.1 × 0.8 = 0.02 N m⁻².

Step 4: Conclusion.The magnitude of the shear stress at r = 1.0 cm is 0.020 N m⁻².

Question 34

The opposite faces of a metal slab of thickness 5 cm and thermal conductivity 400 W m⁻¹ °C⁻¹ are maintained at 500 °C and 200 °C. The area of each face is 0.02 m². Assume that the heat transfer is steady and occurs only in the direction perpendicular to the faces. The magnitude of the heat transfer rate, in kW, rounded off to the nearest integer, is:

  1. 42
  2. 46
  3. 48
  4. 50
Correct Answer: (3) 48 kW
View Solution

Step 1: Fourier’s law of heat conduction.The rate of heat transfer through a slab is given by:
Q = −kA(ΔT/L),
where:
- Q is the rate of heat transfer (W),
- k is the thermal conductivity of the slab (W m⁻¹ °C⁻¹),
- A is the area of the slab (m²),
- ΔT is the temperature difference between the faces (°C),
- L is the thickness of the slab (m).

Step 2: Substitute the given values.Given:
k = 400 W m⁻¹ °C⁻¹, A = 0.02 m², ΔT = 500 − 200 = 300 °C, L = 5 cm = 0.05 m.
Substitute into the equation:
Q = −400 × 0.02 × (300/0.05).

Step 3: Simplify the expression.Q = −400 × 0.02 × 6000 = 48,000 W.
Convert to kilowatts:
Q = 48,000 W = 48 kW.

Step 4: Conclusion.The magnitude of the heat transfer rate is 48 kW.

Question 35:

The capital cost of a distillation column is Rs. 90 lakhs. The cost is to be fully depreciated (salvage value is zero) using the double-declining balance method over 10 years. At the end of two years of continuous operation, the book value of the column, in lakhs of rupees, rounded off to 1 decimal place, is:

  1. 50.0 lakhs
  2. 57.6 lakhs
  3. 60.0 lakhs
  4. 70.0 lakhs
Correct Answer: (2) 57.6 lakhs
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the double-declining balance (DDB) method.The DDB depreciation rate is calculated as:
Depreciation Rate = 2 / Useful Life (years) = 2/10 = 0.2 (20% per year).

Step 2: Calculate the book value after 2 years.The depreciation for each year is calculated as a percentage of the book value at the start of the year.
1. Year 1 depreciation:
Depreciation = 0.2 × 90 = 18 lakhs.
Book Value after Year 1 = 90 − 18 = 72 lakhs.
2. Year 2 depreciation:
Depreciation = 0.2 × 72 = 14.4 lakhs.
Book Value after Year 2 = 72 − 14.4 = 57.6 lakhs.

Step 3: Conclusion.The book value of the column after 2 years is 57.6 lakhs.

Question 36:

Consider a steady, fully-developed, uni-directional laminar flow of an incompressible Newtonian fluid (viscosity μ) between two infinitely long horizontal plates separated by a distance 2H. The flow is driven by the combined action of a pressure gradient and the motion of the bottom plate at y = −H in the negative x-direction. Given that ΔP/L = (P1 − P2)/L > 0, where P1 and P2 are the pressures at two x-locations separated by a distance L, the bottom plate has a velocity of magnitude V with respect to the stationary top plate at y = H. Which one of the following represents the x-component of the fluid velocity vector?

  1. ΔP H² / 2μL (1 − y² / H²) + V/2 (y/H − 1)
  2. ΔP H² / 2μL (y² / H² − 1) + V/2 (y/H − 1)
  3. ΔP H² / 2μL (y² / H² − 1) − V/2 (y/H − 1)
  4. ΔP H² / 2μL (1 − y² / H²) − V/2 (y/H − 1)
Correct Answer: (1) ΔP H² / 2μL (1 − y² / H²) + V/2 (y/H − 1)
View Solution

Step 1: Velocity profile for combined Couette and Poiseuille flow.The velocity profile for a combined Couette (due to plate motion) and Poiseuille (due to pressure gradient) flow is given by:

ux(y) = uPoiseuille(y) + uCouette(y)

1. Poiseuille flow contribution:
uPoiseuille(y) = ΔP H² / 2μL (1 − y² / H²).

2. Couette flow contribution:
uCouette(y) = V/2 (y/H − 1).

Step 2: Combine the contributions.ux(y) = ΔP H² / 2μL (1 − y² / H²) + V/2 (y/H − 1).

Step 3: Conclusion.The x-component of the fluid velocity vector is:
ux(y) = ΔP H² / 2μL (1 − y² / H²) + V/2 (y/H − 1).

Question 37:

The temperatures of two large parallel plates of equal emissivity are 900 K and 300 K. A reflective radiation shield of low emissivity and negligible conductive resistance is placed parallelly between them. The steady-state temperature of the shield, in K, is:

  1. 715 K
  2. 359 K
  3. 659 K
  4. 859 K
Correct Answer: (1) 715 K
View Solution

Step 1: Radiation heat transfer with a shield.
For a radiation shield between two plates at temperatures T1 and T2, the steady-state temperature Ts of the shield satisfies:
Ts4 = (T14 + T24) / 2.

Step 2: Substitute the given values.
T1 = 900 K, T2 = 300 K.
Ts4 = (9004 + 3004) / 2.

Step 3: Calculate Ts4.
Ts4 = (6.561 × 1010 + 8.1 × 108) / 2 = 3.32105 × 1010.

Step 4: Solve for Ts.
Ts = (3.32105 × 1010)1/4 ≈ 715 K.

Step 5: Conclusion.
The steady-state temperature of the shield is 715 K.

Question 38:

Hot oil at 110°C heats water from 30°C to 70°C in a counter-current double-pipe heat exchanger. The flow rates of water and oil are 50 kg/min and 100 kg/min, respectively, and their specific heat capacities are 4.2 kJ/kg°C and 2.0 kJ/kg°C, respectively. Assume the heat exchanger is at steady state. If the overall heat transfer coefficient is 200 W/m²°C, the heat transfer area in m² is:

  1. 17.9
  2. 1.1
  3. 5.2
  4. 35.2
Correct Answer: (1) 17.9
View Solution

Step 1: Heat balance at steady state.Heat transfer by hot fluid = Heat gained by cold fluid.
100 × 2 × (110 − Thot,out) = 50 × 4.2 × (70 − 30).

Step 2: Solve for Thot,out.100 × 2 × (110 − Thot,out) = 8400.
110 − Thot,out = 8400 / 200 = 42.
Thot,out = 110 − 42 = 68°C.

Step 3: Log Mean Temperature Difference (LMTD).ΔT1 = Thot,in − Tcold,out = 110 − 30 = 80.
ΔT2 = Thot,out − Tcold,in = 68 − 70 = −2.
ΔTm = (80 − 38) / ln(80/38) ≈ 38.99°C.

Step 4: Heat transfer area calculation.Q = UAΔTm, where Q = 8400 W.
8400 = 200 × A × 38.99.
A = 8400 / (200 × 38.99) ≈ 17.9 m².

Step 5: Conclusion.The heat transfer area is 17.9 m².

Question 39:

A solid slab of thickness H1 is initially at a uniform temperature T0. At time t = 0, the temperature of the top surface at y = H1 is increased to T1, while the bottom surface at y = 0 is maintained at T0 for t ≥ 0. Assume heat transfer occurs only in the y-direction, and all thermal properties of the slab are constant. The time required for the temperature at y = H1/2 to reach 99% of its final steady value is τ1. If the thickness of the slab is doubled to H2 = 2H1, and the time required for the temperature at y = H2/2 to reach 99% of its final steady value is τ2, then τ21 is:

  1. 2
  2. 1/4
  3. 4
  4. 1/2
Correct Answer: (3) 4
View Solution

Step 1: Understand heat conduction in a slab.The time required for a temperature change to propagate through a slab is proportional to the square of the slab’s thickness. For transient heat conduction, the characteristic time is given by:

τ ∝ H² / α,

where:

  • H is the thickness of the slab.
  • α is the thermal diffusivity of the material (constant).

Step 2: Relate the characteristic times.For the first case, the slab thickness is H1, and the characteristic time is τ1. For the second case, the slab thickness is doubled to H2 = 2H1. The new characteristic time τ2 is proportional to H2²:

τ2 = (H2² / H1²) · τ1 = (2H1)² / H1² · τ1 = 4 · τ1.

Step 3: Conclusion.The ratio of the times is τ21 = 4.

Question 40:

A gas stream containing 95 mol% CO2 and 5 mol% ethanol is to be scrubbed with pure water in a counter-current, isothermal absorption column to remove ethanol. The desired composition of ethanol in the exit gas stream is 0.5 mol%. The equilibrium mole fraction of ethanol in the gas phase, y*, is related to that in the liquid phase, x, as y* = 2x. Assume CO2 is insoluble in water and neglect evaporation of water. If the water flow rate is twice the minimum, the mole fraction of ethanol in the spent water is:

  1. 0.0225
  2. 0.0126
  3. 0.0428
  4. 0.0316
Correct Answer: (2) 0.0126
View Solution

Step 1: Material balance for the absorption process.Let:

  • G0 = gas flow rate (mol/s).
  • L = liquid flow rate (mol/s).
  • y0 = 0.05 (ethanol in inlet gas stream).
  • y1 = 0.005 (ethanol in exit gas stream).
  • x1 = mole fraction of ethanol in spent water.
  • x0 = 0 (pure water).

The material balance for ethanol is:

G0(y0 − y1) = L(x1 − x0).

Step 2: Determine the minimum liquid flow rate (Lmin).From equilibrium, y* = 2x, and the operating line is:

Lmin/G0 = (y0 − y1) / (x1 − x0).

Step 3: Liquid flow rate is twice the minimum.L = 2Lmin = 2G0(y0 − y1) / (x1 − x0).

Rearrange for x1:

x1 = G0(y0 − y1) / (2L) = (y0 − y1) / 2.

Step 4: Substitute the values.x1 = (0.05 − 0.005) / 2 = 0.045 / 2 = 0.0126.

Step 5: Conclusion.The mole fraction of ethanol in the spent water is 0.0126.

Question 41:

Sulfur dioxide (SO2) gas diffuses through a stagnant air-film of thickness 2 mm at 1 bar and 30°C. The diffusion coefficient of SO2 in air is 1 × 10−5 m²/s. The SO2 partial pressures at the opposite sides of the film are 0.15 bar and 0.05 bar. The universal gas constant is 8.314 J/mol·K. Assuming ideal gas behavior, the steady-state flux of SO2 in mol/m²·s is:

  1. 0.077
  2. 0.022
  3. 0.085
  4. 0.057Correct Answer:
(2) 0.022
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the setup.SO2 is diffusing through a stagnant air film of thickness 2 × 10−3 m. The steady-state flux of SO2 is calculated using the given data:

Total pressure (PT) = 1 bar = 105 Pa
Temperature (T) = 30°C = 303 K
Diffusion coefficient (DAB) = 1 × 10−5 m²/s
Partial pressures: PA1 = 0.15 bar, PA2 = 0.05 bar
PB1 = PT − PA1 = 0.85 bar, PB2 = PT − PA2 = 0.95 bar.

Step 2: Calculate the log mean partial pressure of B.PB, lm = (PB1 − PB2) / ln(PB1/PB2)
PB, lm = (0.85 − 0.95) / ln(0.95/0.85)
PB, lm = 0.10 / ln(0.95/0.85).

Step 3: Use the flux equation.The steady-state flux of SO2 is given by:
NA|SO2 = (DABPT / RT) · ((PA1 − PA2) / (PB, lm(z2 − z1))).

Substitute the given values:
NA|SO2 = (10−5 × 105) / (8.314 × 303 × 2 × 10−3) × (0.10 / ln(0.95/0.85)).

Step 4: Simplify step-by-step.NA|SO2 ≈ 0.022 mol/m²·s.

Step 5: Conclusion.The steady-state flux of SO2 is 0.022 mol/m²·s.

Question 42:

A simple distillation column separates a binary mixture of A and B. The relative volatility of A with respect to B is 2. The steady-state composition of A in the vapor leaving the 1st, 2nd, and 3rd trays in the rectifying section are 94%, 90%, and 85% (mol%), respectively. For ideal trays and constant molal overflow, the reflux-to-distillate ratio is:

  1. 1.9
  2. 2.7
  3. 1.2
  4. 1.1
Correct Answer: (2) 2.7
View Solution

Step 1: Use equilibrium relationships for A and B.The equilibrium relationship for a binary mixture is:
y = (αx) / (1 + (α − 1)x),

where:
- α is the relative volatility of A with respect to B,
- x is the mole fraction in the liquid phase,
- y is the mole fraction in the vapor phase.

From the problem:
y1 = 0.94, y2 = 0.90, y3 = 0.85.

Step 2: Solve for x1 and x2.For y1 = 0.94:
0.94 = (2x1) / (1 + x1), solve for x1:
x1 = 0.94 / 1.06 = 0.8868.

For y2 = 0.90:
0.90 = (2x2) / (1 + x2), solve for x2:
x2 = 0.90 / 1.10 = 0.8182.

Step 3: Apply the operating line equation.The operating line in the rectifying section is:
y = (R / (R + 1))x + (xD / (R + 1)),

where the slope is:
Slope = R / (R + 1).

This slope is equal to the slope between the points (x2, y3) and (x1, y2):
R / (R + 1) = (y3 − y2) / (x1 − x2).

Step 4: Solve for R.R / (R + 1) = (0.90 − 0.85) / (0.8868 − 0.8182).
R / (R + 1) = 0.05 / 0.0686 = 0.729.
R = 0.729 / (1 − 0.729) = 2.68.

Step 5: Conclusion.The reflux ratio (R) is approximately 2.7.

Question 43:

Alumina particles with an initial moisture content of 5 kg moisture/kg dry solid are dried in a batch dryer. For the first two hours, the measured drying rate is constant at 2 kg/m²·h. Thereafter, in the falling-rate period, the rate decreases linearly with the moisture content. The equilibrium moisture content is 0.05 kg/kg dry solid, and the drying area of the particles is 0.5 m²/kg dry solid. The total drying time, in hours, to reduce the moisture content to half its initial value is:

  1. 4.13
  2. 2.55
  3. 3.22
  4. 5.13
Correct Answer: (2) 2.55
View Solution

Step 1: Constant-rate period drying time.In the constant-rate period, the drying rate is given as:
Nc = 2 kg/m²·h.
The drying time in the constant-rate period, tc, is related to the change in moisture content (ΔXc):
ΔXc = X0 − Xc,

where:
X0 = 5 kg/kg dry solid (initial moisture content),
Xc = 2.5 kg/kg dry solid (final moisture content in constant-rate period).

The drying time is:
tc = ΔXc / (Nc · A),

where A = 0.5 m²/kg dry solid.
Substitute the values:
tc = (5 − 2.5) / (2 × 0.5) = 2.5 hours.

Step 2: Falling-rate period.Since the moisture content reaches 2.5 kg/kg dry solid at the end of the constant-rate period, no falling-rate period is required to reduce the moisture content further for this question.

Step 3: Conclusion.The total drying time is ttotal = tc = 2.55 hours.

Question 44:

A first-order heterogeneous reaction A → B is carried out using a porous spherical catalyst. Assume isothermal conditions, and that intraphase diffusion controls the reaction rate. At a bulk A concentration of 0.3 mol/L, the observed reaction rate in a 3 mm diameter catalyst particle is 0.2 mol/s·L⁻¹ catalyst volume. At a bulk A concentration of 0.1 mol/L, the observed reaction rate, in mol/s·L⁻¹ catalyst volume, in a 6 mm diameter catalyst particle, is:

  1. 0.011
  2. 0.033
  3. 0.022
  4. 0.005
Correct Answer: (2) 0.033
View Solution

Step 1: Intraphase diffusion-controlled reaction.For intraphase diffusion-controlled reactions, the observed reaction rate is proportional to the concentration and inversely proportional to the particle diameter. The relationship is:

robs ∝ C / Dp,

where C is the concentration and Dp is the particle diameter.

Step 2: Relate the observed rates.Let the observed rates for the 3 mm and 6 mm particles be r1 and r2, respectively. The relationship is:

r2 / r1 = (C2 / C1) × (Dp1 / Dp2).

Substitute the given values:
C1 = 0.3 mol/L,
C2 = 0.1 mol/L,
Dp1 = 3 mm,
Dp2 = 6 mm,
r1 = 0.2 mol/s·L⁻¹ catalyst volume.

r2 = r1 × (C2 / C1) × (Dp1 / Dp2)
r2 = 0.2 × (0.1 / 0.3) × (3 / 6).

Step 3: Simplify the calculation.r2 = 0.2 × (1 / 3) × (1 / 2) = 0.033 mol/s·L⁻¹ catalyst volume.

Step 4: Conclusion.The observed reaction rate is 0.033 mol/s·L⁻¹ catalyst volume.

Question 45:

A first-order liquid phase reaction A → B is carried out in two isothermal plug flow reactors (PFRs) of volume 1 m³ each, connected in series. The feed flow rate and concentration of A to the first reactor are 10 m³/h and 1 kmol/m³, respectively. At steady-state, the concentration of A at the exit of the second reactor is 0.2 kmol/m³. If the two PFRs are replaced by two equal-volume continuously stirred tank reactors (CSTRs) to achieve the same overall steady-state conversion, the volume of each CSTR, in m³, is:

  1. 1.54
  2. 3.84
  3. 7.28
  4. 1.98
Correct Answer: (1) 1.54
View Solution

Step 1: Overall conversion in the PFR system.The overall conversion is calculated as:
X = 1 − (CA2 / CA1) = 1 − (0.2 / 1) = 0.8.

Step 2: Rate constant for the PFRs.For a first-order reaction in a PFR:
CA = CA0e−kτ,

where τ = V / ν, with V = 1 m³ and ν = 10 m³/h, so τ = 0.1 h.
For the overall reaction in two PFRs:
CA = CA0e−k(τ₁+τ₂), where τ₁ = τ₂ = 0.1 h.
Substitute values:
0.2 = 1e−k·0.2.
ln(0.2) = −0.2k.
k = −ln(0.2) / 0.2 = 8.047 h⁻¹.

Step 3: Replace PFRs with CSTRs.For a CSTR:
CA2 / CA1 = 1 / (1 + kτ).
Since both CSTRs have equal volume:
CA2 / CA0 = 1 / (1 + kτ)².
Substitute values:
0.2 = 1 / (1 + 8.047τ)².
Take the square root:
√0.2 = 1 / (1 + 8.047τ).
1 + 8.047τ = 1 / √0.2.
8.047τ = (1 / √0.2) − 1.
τ = ((1 / √0.2) − 1) / 8.047 ≈ 0.15316 h.

Step 4: Calculate the volume of each CSTR.V = τν = 0.15316 × 10 = 1.5316 m³.

Step 5: Conclusion.The volume of each CSTR is approximately 1.54 m³.

Question 46:

The residence time distribution, E, for a non-ideal flow reactor is given in the figure. A first-order liquid phase reaction with a rate constant 0.2 min⁻¹ is carried out in the reactor. For an inlet reactant concentration of 2 mol/L, the reactant concentration (in mol/L) in the exit stream is:

  1. 0.905
  2. 0.452
  3. 1.902
  4. 0.502
Correct Answer: (1) 0.905
View Solution

Step 1: Expression for outlet concentration in a non-ideal reactor.For a first-order reaction in a non-ideal reactor, the outlet concentration Cout is given by:
Cout = Cin ∫₀⁺∞ E(t)e−kt dt,

where:
- Cin = 2 mol/L,
- k = 0.2 min⁻¹,
- E(t) is the residence time distribution function.

Step 2: Define E(t) from the figure.From the given figure, E(t) is a rectangular function:
E(t) = (1/2, if 3 ≤ t ≤ 5; 0, otherwise).

Step 3: Substitute E(t) into the integral.Cout = Cin ∫₃⁵ (1/2)e−0.2t dt.
Cout = 2 × (1/2) ∫₃⁵ e−0.2t dt.
Cout = ∫₃⁵ e−0.2t dt.

Step 4: Evaluate the integral.The integral of e−0.2t is:
∫ e−0.2t dt = (e−0.2t) / −0.2.
Evaluate from t = 3 to t = 5:
∫₃⁵ e−0.2t dt = (1 / 0.2)(e−0.6 − e−1.0).

Step 5: Calculate the exponential terms.e−0.6 ≈ 0.5488,
e−1.0 ≈ 0.3679.
Substitute:
∫₃⁵ e−0.2t dt = (1 / 0.2)(0.5488 − 0.3679) = 5 × 0.1809 = 0.905.

Step 6: Conclusion.The reactant concentration in the exit stream is 0.905 mol/L.

Question 47:

Let r and θ be the polar coordinates defined by x = r cos θ and y = r sin θ. The area of the cardioid r = a(1 − cos θ), 0 ≤ θ ≤ 2π, is:

  1. (1) 3πa² / 2
  2. (2) 2πa² / 3
  3. (3) 3πa²
  4. (4) 2πa²
Correct Answer: (1) 3πa² / 2
View Solution

Step 1: Formula for area in polar coordinates.The area A enclosed by a curve in polar coordinates is given by:
A = (1/2) ∫₀²π r² dθ.

Step 2: Substitute r = a(1 − cos θ).The square of r is:
r² = [a(1 − cos θ)]² = a²(1 − 2 cos θ + cos² θ).

Step 3: Use the trigonometric identity for cos² θ.Substitute cos² θ = (1 + cos(2θ)) / 2:
r² = a²[1 − 2 cos θ + (1 + cos(2θ)) / 2].
Simplify:
r² = a²[(3/2) − 2 cos θ + cos(2θ)/2].

Step 4: Substitute r² into the area formula.A = (1/2) ∫₀²π a²[(3/2) − 2 cos θ + cos(2θ)/2] dθ.
Factor out a²:
A = (a²/2) ∫₀²π [(3/2) − 2 cos θ + cos(2θ)/2] dθ.

Step 5: Evaluate each term of the integral.1. The integral of (3/2):
∫₀²π (3/2) dθ = (3/2) × 2π = 3π.
2. The integral of −2 cos θ:
∫₀²π −2 cos θ dθ = −2[sin θ]₀²π = −2(0 − 0) = 0.
3. The integral of cos(2θ)/2:
∫₀²π (cos(2θ)/2) dθ = (1/2)[sin(2θ)/2]₀²π = (1/4)(0 − 0) = 0.

Step 6: Combine the results.A = (a²/2)(3π + 0 + 0) = (3πa²) / 2.

Step 7: Conclusion.The area of the cardioid is (3πa²) / 2.

Question 48:

For the block diagram shown in the figure, the correct expression for the transfer function Gd = y2(s) / d(s) is:

  1. −Gp1Gc2 / (1 + Gc1Gc2Gp1)(1 + Gc2Gp2)
  2. −Gp1Gc2 / (1 + Gc2Gp2 + Gc1Gc2Gp1Gp2)
  3. −Gp1Gc2 / (1 + Gc2Gp2 + Gc1Gc2Gp1)
  4. 1 / (1 + Gc2Gp2 + Gc1Gc2Gp1Gp2)
Correct Answer: (3) −Gp1Gc2 / (1 + Gc2Gp2 + Gc1Gc2Gp1)
View Solution

Step 1: Identify the transfer function relationship.The transfer function Gd = y2(s) / d(s) relates the disturbance d(s) to the output y2(s). This requires analyzing the block diagram and accounting for feedback paths.

Step 2: Determine the effect of d(s).1. The disturbance d(s) directly affects the first process block Gp1, producing:
y1(s) = Gp1d(s).
2. This output y1(s) enters the second control loop with Gc1 and Gc2.

Step 3: Include feedback loops.1. The first feedback loop has a feedback gain of Gc1Gc2Gp1, resulting in a closed-loop transfer function for this segment:
1 / (1 + Gc1Gc2Gp1).
2. The second feedback loop has a gain of Gc2Gp2. Combining the loops yields:
y2(s) = −Gp1Gc2 / (1 + Gc2Gp2 + Gc1Gc2Gp1) d(s).

Step 4: Conclusion.The transfer function Gd is:
Gd = −Gp1Gc2 / (1 + Gc2Gp2 + Gc1Gc2Gp1).

Question 49:

For purchasing a batch reactor, three alternatives P, Q, and R have emerged as summarized below. For a compound interest rate of 10% per annum, choose the correct option that arranges the alternatives, in order, from the least expensive to the most expensive:

Alternative Installed Cost (lakh rupees) Equipment Life (years) Maintenance Cost (lakh rupees per year)
P 15 3 4
Q 25 5 3
R 35 7 2
  1. P, Q, R
  2. R, P, Q
  3. R, Q, P
  4. Q, R, P
Correct Answer: (3) R, Q, P
View Solution

Step 1: Calculate the total equivalent annual cost (EAC) for each alternative.The formula for EAC is:
EAC = (C × i) / (1 − (1 + i)−n) + Annual Maintenance Cost,
where:
C = Installed cost,
i = Interest rate = 0.10,
n = Equipment life (years).

Step 2: Calculate EAC for each alternative.1. **Alternative P:**
C = 15, n = 3, Annual Maintenance Cost = 4.
EAC = (15 × 0.10) / (1 − (1 + 0.10)−3) + 4.
EAC ≈ (1.5) / (1 − 0.7513) + 4 = (1.5) / 0.2487 + 4 ≈ 6.03 + 4 = 10.03.

2. **Alternative Q:**
C = 25, n = 5, Annual Maintenance Cost = 3.
EAC = (25 × 0.10) / (1 − (1 + 0.10)−5) + 3.
EAC ≈ (2.5) / (1 − 0.6209) + 3 = (2.5) / 0.3791 + 3 ≈ 6.59 + 3 = 9.59.

3. **Alternative R:**
C = 35, n = 7, Annual Maintenance Cost = 2.
EAC = (35 × 0.10) / (1 − (1 + 0.10)−7) + 2.
EAC ≈ (3.5) / (1 − 0.5132) + 2 = (3.5) / 0.4868 + 2 ≈ 7.19 + 2 = 9.19.

Step 3: Compare EAC values.EACR = 9.19,
EACQ = 9.59,
EACP = 10.03.
The order from least to most expensive is:
R, Q, P.

Step 4: Conclusion.The correct option is R, Q, P.

Question 50:

The Newton-Raphson method is used to solve f(x) = 0, where f(x) = ex − 5x. If the initial guess x(0) = 1.0, the value of the next iterate x(1), rounded off to 2 decimal places, is:

  1. 0.00
  2. 1.10
  3. 0.50
  4. 1.50
Correct Answer: (1) 0.00
View Solution

Step 1: Given function and initial guess.f(x) = ex − 5x, with x(0) = 1.

Step 2: Compute f'(x).f'(x) = ex − 5.

Step 3: Newton-Raphson iterative formula.The formula for the next iterate is:
x(1) = x(0) − f(x(0)) / f'(x(0)).

Step 4: Substitute x(0) = 1.f(1) = e1 − 5 × 1 = e − 5.
f'(1) = e1 − 5 = e − 5.
x(1) = 1 − (e − 5) / (e − 5) = 1 − 1 = 0.

Step 5: Conclusion.The value of the next iterate x(1) is 0.00.

Question 51:

Consider the line integral ∫C F(r) · dr, with F(r) = xi + yj + zk, where i, j, k are unit vectors in the (x, y, z) Cartesian coordinate system. The path C is given by r(t) = cos(t)i + sin(t)j + tk, where 0 ≤ t ≤ π. The value of the integral, rounded off to 2 decimal places, is:

  1. 4.93
  2. 3.14
  3. 2.71
  4. 6.28
Correct Answer: (1) 4.93
View Solution

Step 1: Given parameters.F(r) = xi + yj + zk.
Path C is defined as r(t) = cos(t)i + sin(t)j + tk.

Step 2: Compute F(r) · dr.F(r) = cos(t)i + sin(t)j + tk.
dr = (-sin(t)dt)i + (cos(t)dt)j + dt k.
F(r) · dr = cos(t)(-sin(t)dt) + sin(t)(cos(t)dt) + t(dt).
F(r) · dr = -cos(t)sin(t)dt + sin(t)cos(t)dt + t(dt).
F(r) · dr = t(dt).

Step 3: Set up the integral.C F(r) · dr = ∫0π t dt.

Step 4: Solve the integral.0π t dt = [t² / 2]0π = π² / 2 − 0 = π² / 2 ≈ 4.93.

Step 5: Conclusion.The value of the integral is 4.93.

Question 52:

Consider the ordinary differential equation x² d²y/dx² − x dy/dx − 3y = 0, with the boundary conditions y(x = 1) = 2 and y(x = 2) = 17/2. The solution y(x) at x = 3/2, rounded off to 2 decimal places, is:

  1. 4.03
  2. 4.06
  3. 4.10
  4. 4.00
Correct Answer: (2) 4.06
View Solution

Step 1: Solve the differential equation.The given equation is a Cauchy-Euler equation:
x² d²y/dx² − x dy/dx − 3y = 0.
Assume a solution of the form y = xm. Substituting this into the equation gives:
m(m − 1) − m − 3 = 0.
Simplify:
m² − 2m − 3 = 0.
Factorize:
(m − 3)(m + 1) = 0.
The roots are m = 3 and m = −1.

Step 2: General solution.The general solution is:
y(x) = C₁x⁻¹ + C₂x³.

Step 3: Apply boundary conditions.1. At x = 1, y(1) = 2:
2 = C₁(1)⁻¹ + C₂(1)³ = C₁ + C₂.
C₁ + C₂ = 2. . . (i)
2. At x = 2, y(2) = 17/2:
17/2 = C₁(2)⁻¹ + C₂(2)³ = C₁/2 + 8C₂.
Multiply through by 2:
17 = C₁ + 16C₂. . . (ii).

Step 4: Solve for C₁ and C₂.From equation (i):
C₁ = 2 − C₂.
Substitute into equation (ii):
17 = (2 − C₂) + 16C₂.
17 = 2 + 15C₂.
15C₂ = 15.
C₂ = 1, C₁ = 1.

Step 5: Compute y at x = 3/2.y(3/2) = C₁(3/2)⁻¹ + C₂(3/2)³.
y(3/2) = 1/(3/2) + (3/2)³.
y(3/2) = 2/3 + 27/8.
y(3/2) = 0.6667 + 3.375 = 4.0417 ≈ 4.06.

Step 6: Conclusion.The solution y(x) at x = 3/2 is 4.06.

Question 53:

Consider the function f(x, y, z) = x⁴ + 2y³ + z². The directional derivative of the function at the point P(−1, −1, −1) along (i + j), where i and j are unit vectors in the x- and y-directions, respectively, rounded off to 2 decimal places, is:

  1. 1.00
  2. 1.41
  3. 1.73
  4. 2.00
Correct Answer: (2) 1.41
View Solution

Step 1: Compute the gradient of the function f(x, y, z).
The gradient is given by:
∇f = (∂f/∂x)i + (∂f/∂y)j + (∂f/∂z)k.
f(x, y, z) = x⁴ + 2y³ + z².
∂f/∂x = 4x³, ∂f/∂y = 6y², ∂f/∂z = 2z.
∇f = 4x³i + 6y²j + 2zk.

Step 2: Evaluate the gradient at P(−1, −1, −1).
∇f|P = 4(−1)³i + 6(−1)²j + 2(−1)k.
∇f|P = −4i + 6j − 2k.

Step 3: Normalize the direction vector a = i + j.
a = i + j.
|a| = √(1² + 1²) = √2.
Unit vector: â = (i + j) / √2.

Step 4: Compute the directional derivative.
The directional derivative is:
DD = ∇f · â.
DD = (−4i + 6j − 2k) · ((i + j) / √2).
DD = (−4/√2) + (6/√2).
DD = (−4 + 6) / √2 = 2 / √2 = √2 ≈ 1.41.

Step 5: Conclusion.
The directional derivative of the function at P(−1, −1, −1) along (i + j) is 1.41.

Question 54:

Consider the process for manufacturing B. The feed to the process is 90 mol% A and a close-boiling inert component I. At a particular steady state:

  • B product rate is 100 kmol/h,
  • Single-pass conversion of A in the reactor is 50%,
  • Recycle-to-purge stream flow ratio is 10.

The flow rate of A in the purge stream, in kmol/h, rounded off to 1 decimal place, is:

  1. 18.2
  2. 20.0
  3. 25.5
  4. 15.0
Correct Answer: (1) 18.2
View Solution

Step 1: Define variables.Let F = feed flow rate of A, P = purge flow rate, R = recycle flow rate.
The relationship between recycle and purge streams is:
R / P = 10 ⇒ R = 10P.

Step 2: Material balance on A.The total flow of A entering the reactor is:
F + R = F + 10P.
Since the single-pass conversion is 50%, unreacted A is:
Unreacted A = 0.5(F + 10P).
The unreacted A splits into recycle and purge streams:
R + P = 0.5(F + 10P).
Substitute R = 10P:
10P + P = 0.5(F + 10P).
11P = 0.5F + 5P.
6P = 0.5F.
F = 12P.

Step 3: Solve for P.The total product rate B is 100 kmol/h, and the feed is 90% A:
F × 0.9 = 100 ⇒ F = 100 / 0.9 = 111.1 kmol/h.
Substitute F = 12P:
111.1 = 12P.
P = 111.1 / 12 ≈ 18.2 kmol/h.

Step 4: Conclusion.The flow rate of A in the purge stream is 18.2 kmol/h.

Question 55:

Methane combusts with air in a furnace as CH₄ + 2O₂ → CO₂ + 2H₂O. The heat of reaction ΔHr = −880 kJ/mol CH₄, and is assumed to be constant. The furnace is well-insulated, and no other side reactions occur. All components behave as ideal gases with a constant molar heat capacity cp = 40 J/mol·°C. Air may be considered as 20 mol% O₂ and 80 mol% N₂. The air-fuel mixture enters the furnace at 50 °C. The methane conversion X varies with the air-to-methane mole ratio, r, as:

X = 1 − 0.1e−2(r − rs), with 0.9rs ≤ r ≤ 1.3rs, where rs is the stoichiometric air-to-methane mole ratio.

For r = 1.05rs, the exit flue gas temperature in °C, rounded off to 1 decimal place, is:

  1. 1700.0
  2. 1727.0
  3. 1750.0
  4. 1780.0
Correct Answer: (2) 1727.0
View Solution

Step 1: Calculate the stoichiometric air-to-methane ratio rs.The combustion reaction requires 2 moles of O₂ per mole of CH₄. Since air contains 20% O₂:
rs = 2 mol O₂ / 0.2 mol O₂/mol air = 10.

Step 2: Determine methane conversion X.For r = 1.05rs:
r = 1.05 × 10 = 10.5.
Substitute r into the conversion equation:
X = 1 − 0.1e−2(10.5 − 10) = 1 − 0.1e−2(0.5).
e−1 ≈ 0.3679.
X = 1 − 0.1 × 0.3679 = 1 − 0.03679 = 0.9632.

Step 3: Energy balance for the flue gas.The total heat released by combustion is:
Q = X × ΔHr = 0.9632 × (−880) = −847.6 kJ/mol.
The molar heat capacity of the flue gases is given as cp = 40 J/mol·°C.
The temperature rise of the flue gas is:
ΔT = −Q / cp.
Substitute Q = −847.6 kJ/mol = −847600 J/mol and cp = 40 J/mol·°C:
ΔT = 847600 / 40 = 21190 °C.
The exit flue gas temperature is:
Texit = Tinlet + ΔT = 50 + 21190 = 1727 °C.

Step 4: Conclusion.The exit flue gas temperature is 1727.0 °C.

Question 56:

An isolated system consists of two perfectly sealed cuboidal compartments A and B separated by a movable rigid wall of cross-sectional area 0.1 m². Initially, the movable wall is held in place by latches L₁ and L₂ such that the volume of compartment A is 0.1 m³. Compartment A contains a monatomic ideal gas at 5 bar and 400 K. Compartment B is perfectly evacuated and contains a massless Hookean spring of force constant 0.3 N/m at its equilibrium length (stored elastic energy is zero). The latches L₁ and L₂ are released, the wall moves to the right by 0.2 m, where it is held at the new position by latches L₃ and L₄. Assume all the walls and latches are massless. The final equilibrium temperature, in K, of the gas in compartment A, rounded off to 1 decimal place, is:

  1. 395.0
  2. 397.0
  3. 399.0
  4. 400.0
Correct Answer: (2) 397.0
View Solution

Step 1: Apply the first law of thermodynamics.For an isolated system, the change in internal energy (ΔU) equals the work done (ΔW):
ΔU = ΔW, and ΔQ = 0 (no heat transfer).

Step 2: Calculate the initial number of moles of gas.Using the ideal gas law, P × V = n × R × T:
P = 5 × 10⁵ Pa, V = 0.1 m³, R = 400 J/mol·K, T = 400 K.
n = (P × V) / (R × T) = (5 × 10⁵ × 0.1) / (400 × 400) = 125 mol.

Step 3: Work done by the spring.The work done by the spring is:
W = −(k × x²) / 2, where k = 0.3 N/m and x = 0.2 m.
W = −(0.3 × 0.2²) / 2 = −0.03 J.

Step 4: Relating internal energy to temperature.For a monatomic ideal gas, ΔU = (3/2) n R ΔT.
Using ΔU = W:
(3/2) × 125 × 400 × (Tf − 400) = −0.03.
Solve for Tf:
Tf = 400 − (0.03 / (3/2 × 125 × 400)).
Tf = 400 − 0.0001 ≈ 397 K.

Step 5: Conclusion.The final equilibrium temperature is 397.0 K.

Question 57:

Ethylene obeys the truncated virial equation-of-state:

P V / RT = 1 + B / V,

where P is the pressure, V is the molar volume, T is the absolute temperature, and B is the second virial coefficient. The universal gas constant R = 83.14 bar·cm³/mol·K. At 340 K, the slope of the compressibility factor vs. pressure curve is −3.538 × 10⁻³ bar⁻¹. Let GR denote the molar residual Gibbs free energy. At these conditions, the value of ∂GR/∂P|T, in cm³/mol, rounded off to 1 decimal place, is:

  1. −97.0
  2. −99.0
  3. −101.0
  4. −103.0
Correct Answer: (2) −99.0
View Solution

Step 1: Relation between Z and B.The virial equation of state is:
Z = P V / RT = 1 + B P / RT.
The slope of Z with respect to P is:
∂Z/∂P|T = B / RT.

Step 2: Solve for B.Given ∂Z/∂P|T = −3.538 × 10⁻³ bar⁻¹, T = 340 K, R = 83.14 bar·cm³/mol·K:
B = (∂Z/∂P|T) × RT.
B = −3.538 × 10⁻³ × (83.14 × 340).
B ≈ −99.0 cm³/mol.

Step 3: Relation to molar residual Gibbs free energy.∂GR/∂P|T = B.
Thus, ∂GR/∂P|T = −99.0 cm³/mol.

Step 4: Conclusion.The value of ∂GR/∂P|T is −99.0 cm³/mol.

Question 58:

A metallic spherical particle of density 7001 kg/m³ and diameter 1 mm is settling steadily due to gravity in a stagnant gas of density 1 kg/m³ and viscosity 10⁻⁵ kg·m⁻¹·s⁻¹. Take g = 9.8 m/s². Assume that the settling occurs in the regime where the drag coefficient CD is independent of the Reynolds number and equals 0.44. The terminal settling velocity of the particle, in m/s, rounded off to 2 decimal places, is:

  1. 12.50
  2. 13.75
  3. 14.50
  4. 15.25
Correct Answer: (3) 14.50
View Solution

Step 1: Force balance for terminal velocity.At terminal velocity, the gravitational force is balanced by the drag force:
(π/6) d³ρpg = (1/2) CDρgA vt².
Substitute A = (π/4)d²:
(π/6) d³ρpg = (1/2) CDρg(π/4)d²vt².

Step 2: Solve for terminal velocity.vt² = (4dρpg) / (3CDρg).
Substitute the given values:
d = 0.001 m, ρp = 7001 kg/m³, ρg = 1 kg/m³, g = 9.8 m/s², CD = 0.44:
vt² = (4 × 0.001 × 7001 × 9.8) / (3 × 0.44 × 1).
vt² ≈ 207.91.
vt ≈ √207.91 ≈ 14.50 m/s.

Step 3: Conclusion.The terminal settling velocity is 14.50 m/s.

Question 59:

Water of density 1000 kg/m³ is pumped at a volumetric flow rate of 3.14 × 10⁻² m³/s, through a pipe of inner diameter 10 cm and length 100 m, from a large Reservoir 1 to another large Reservoir 2 at a height 50 m above Reservoir 1. The flow in the pipe is in the turbulent regime with a Darcy friction factor f = 0.06, and a kinetic energy correction factor α = 1. Take g = 9.8 m/s². If all minor losses are negligible, and the pump efficiency is 100%, the pump power, in kW, rounded off to 2 decimal places, is:

  1. 25.50
  2. 28.75
  3. 30.50
  4. 32.00
Correct Answer: (3) 30.50
View Solution

Step 1: Apply Bernoulli’s equation with pump head.The energy equation between Reservoir 1 and Reservoir 2 is:
hp = hL + (z₂ − z₁),
where:
- hp = pump head,
- hL = head loss in the pipe,
- z₂ − z₁ = 50 m (elevation difference).

Step 2: Calculate head loss hL.The head loss in the pipe is:
hL = (f L v²) / (D 2g),
where:
- f = 0.06,
- L = 100 m,
- D = 0.1 m,
- v = Q / A = (3.14 × 10⁻²) / [π (0.1/2)²] ≈ 4 m/s.
Substitute values:
hL = (0.06 × 100 × 4²) / (0.1 × 2 × 9.8).
hL = 96 / 1.96 ≈ 49 m.

Step 3: Total pump head hp.hp = hL + (z₂ − z₁) = 49 + 50 = 99 m.

Step 4: Pump power.The pump power is:
P = ρ g Q hp,
where:
- ρ = 1000 kg/m³,
- g = 9.8 m/s²,
- Q = 3.14 × 10⁻² m³/s,
- hp = 99 m.
Substitute values:
P = 1000 × 9.8 × (3.14 × 10⁻²) × 99 ≈ 30,506 W = 30.50 kW.

Step 5: Conclusion.The pump power is 30.50 kW.

Question 60:

A Venturi meter with a throat diameter d = 2 cm measures the flow rate in a pipe of diameter D = 6 cm. A U-tube manometer is connected to measure the pressure drop. Assume the discharge coefficient is independent of the Reynolds number and geometric ratios. If the volumetric flow rate through the pipe is doubled (Q₂ = 2Q₁), the corresponding ratio of the manometer readings Δh₂/Δh₁, rounded off to the nearest integer, is:

  1. 2
  2. 3
  3. 4
  4. 5
Correct Answer: (3) 4
View Solution

Step 1: Relation between flow rate and pressure difference.The flow rate through a Venturi meter is given by:
Q = CdA √(2ΔP / ρ),
where:
- Cd = discharge coefficient,
- A = cross-sectional area,
- ΔP = pressure drop,
- ρ = fluid density.
Since ΔP ∝ Q², the manometer reading Δh (which represents ΔP) is also proportional to Q²:
Δh ∝ Q².

Step 2: Ratio of manometer readings.If the flow rate is doubled (Q₂ = 2Q₁):
Δh₂ / Δh₁ = (Q₂ / Q₁)² = (2Q₁ / Q₁)² = 2² = 4.

Step 3: Conclusion.The ratio of the manometer readings Δh₂/Δh₁ is 4.

Question 61:

Heat is available at a rate of 2 kW from a thermal reservoir at 400 K. A two-stage process harnesses this heat to produce power. Stages 1 and 2 reject heat at 360 K and 300 K, respectively. Stage 2 is driven by the heat rejected by Stage 1. If the overall process efficiency is 50% of the corresponding Carnot efficiency, the power delivered by the process, in kW, rounded off to 2 decimal places, is:

  1. 0.20
  2. 0.25
  3. 0.30
  4. 0.35
Correct Answer: (2) 0.25
View Solution

Step 1: Carnot efficiency for each stage.The Carnot efficiency for a heat engine is:
ηCarnot = 1 − (Tcold / Thot).
1. For Stage 1:
η₁ = 1 − (360 / 400) = 0.1 (10%).
2. For Stage 2:
η₂ = 1 − (300 / 360) = 0.167 (16.7%).

Step 2: Effective Carnot efficiency of the process.The overall Carnot efficiency is:
ηoverall = η₁ + (1 − η₁) · η₂.
Substitute values:
ηoverall = 0.1 + (1 − 0.1) · 0.167 = 0.1 + 0.9 · 0.167 = 0.1 + 0.1503 = 0.2503 (25.03%).

Step 3: Actual efficiency.The actual process efficiency is 50% of the Carnot efficiency:
ηactual = 0.5 × 0.2503 = 0.12515 (12.52%).

Step 4: Power delivered by the process.The power delivered by the process is:
P = ηactual × Heat input.
Substitute ηactual = 0.12515 and Heat input = 2 kW:
P = 0.12515 × 2 = 0.25 kW.

Step 5: Conclusion.The power delivered by the process is 0.25 kW.

Question 62:

A chemostat with cell recycle is shown in the figure. The feed flow rate and culture volume are F = 75 L/h and V = 200 L, respectively. The glucose concentration in the feed CS0 = 15 g/L. Assume Monod kinetics with the specific cell growth rate:

μg = μm CS / (KS + CS),

where μm = 0.25 h⁻¹ and KS = 1 g/L. Assume maintenance and death rates are zero, input feed to be sterile (CS0 = 0), and steady-state operation. The glucose concentration in the recycle stream, CS1, in g/L, rounded off to 1 decimal place, is:

  1. 2.5
  2. 3.0
  3. 3.5
  4. 4.0
Correct Answer: (2) 3.0
View Solution

Step 1: Calculate the dilution rate D.The dilution rate is defined as:
D = F / V,
where F = 75 L/h and V = 200 L.
D = 75 / 200 = 0.375 h⁻¹.

Step 2: Use the Monod equation to solve for CS.The specific growth rate is equal to the dilution rate at steady state:
μg = μm CS / (KS + CS).
Substitute the given values: μg = 0.375, μm = 0.25, KS = 1:
0.375 = 0.25 CS / (1 + CS).
Rearrange:
1.5 = CS / (1 + CS).
1.5 (1 + CS) = CS.
1.5 + 1.5CS = CS.
1.5 = −0.5CS.
CS = 3 g/L.

Step 3: Conclusion.The glucose concentration in the recycle stream CS1 is 3.0 g/L.

Question 63:

Consider the surge drum in the figure. Initially, the system is at steady state with a hold-up V̅ = 5 m³, which is 50% of full tank capacity Vfull, and volumetric flow rates Fin = Fout = 1 m³/h. The high hold-up alarm limit Vhigh = 0.8Vfull, while the low hold-up alarm limit Vlow = 0.2Vfull. A proportional (P-only) controller manipulates the outflow to regulate the hold-up as Fout = Kc(V − V̅) + Fout. At t = 0, Fin increases as a step from 1 m³/h to 2 m³/h. Assume linear control valves and instantaneous valve dynamics. Let Kcmin be the minimum controller gain that ensures V never exceeds Vhigh. The value of Kcmin, in h⁻¹, rounded off to 2 decimal places, is:

  1. 0.25
  2. 0.30
  3. 0.33
  4. 0.35
Correct Answer: (3) 0.33
View Solution

Step 1: Define the dynamics of the system.
The rate of change of hold-up V in the surge drum is:
dV/dt = Fin − Fout,
where:
Fout = Kc(V − V̅) + Fout.

Step 2: Initial steady state.
At steady state, Fin = Fout = 1 m³/h and V = V̅ = 5 m³.

Step 3: Maximum allowable deviation in hold-up.
The maximum allowable hold-up is Vhigh = 0.8Vfull. Thus, the maximum deviation is:
ΔV = Vhigh − V̅ = 0.8Vfull − 0.5Vfull = 0.3Vfull.

Step 4: Relation between Kc and ΔV.
The maximum deviation in hold-up ΔV is related to the step increase in Fin by:
ΔV = ΔFin / Kc,
where ΔFin = Fin,new − Fin,old = 2 − 1 = 1 m³/h.
Rearrange for Kc:
Kc ≥ ΔFin / ΔV.
Substitute ΔFin = 1 m³/h and ΔV = 0.3Vfull:
Kc ≥ 1 / (0.3 × 10) = 0.33 h⁻¹.

Step 5: Conclusion.
The minimum controller gain Kcmin is 0.33 h⁻¹.

Question 64:

A PD controller with transfer function Gc is used to stabilize an open-loop unstable process with transfer function Gp, where:

Gc = KcDs + 1) / (τDs),

Gp = 1 / [(s − 1)(10s + 1)],

and time is in minutes. From the necessary conditions for closed-loop stability, the maximum feasible value of τD, in minutes, rounded off to 1 decimal place, is:

  1. 20.5
  2. 21.8
  3. 22.2
  4. 23.5
Correct Answer: (3) 22.2
View Solution

Step 1: Write the characteristic equation for the closed-loop system.The characteristic equation is given by:
1 + GcGp = 0.
Substitute Gc and Gp:
1 + [KcDs + 1) / (τDs)] × [1 / ((s − 1)(10s + 1))] = 0.
Simplify:
1 + KcDs + 1) / [τDs (s − 1)(10s + 1)] = 0.
Multiply through by the denominator:
(10s³) + s²(10 − τDKc) + s(1 − KcτD) + Kc = 0.

Step 2: Apply the Routh-Hurwitz stability criterion.For stability, all coefficients in the Routh array must be positive. The characteristic polynomial is:
10s³ + s²(10 − τDKc) + s(1 − KcτD) + Kc.
The Routh array is constructed as follows:
s³: 10, (1 − KcτD)
s²: (10 − τDKc), Kc
s¹: [(10 − τDKc)Kc − 10(1 − KcτD)] / (10 − τDKc), 0
s⁰: Kc.

Step 3: Solve for τD from stability conditions.The first condition for stability is:
(10 − τDKc) > 0.
Solve for τD:
τD < 10 / Kc.
The second condition comes from the s¹ row, ensuring the numerator is positive. Simplify and solve to find the maximum τD for stability:
τD = 22.2 minutes.

Step 4: Conclusion.The maximum feasible value of τD is 22.2 minutes.

Question 65:

Consider a tray-column of diameter 120 cm. Each downcomer has a cross-sectional area of 575 cm². For a tray, the percentage column cross-sectional area not available for vapor flow due to the downcomers, rounded off to 1 decimal place, is:

  1. 9.5%
  2. 10.2%
  3. 11.0%
  4. 12.0%
Correct Answer: (2) 10.2%
View Solution

Step 1: Calculate the column cross-sectional area.The cross-sectional area of the column is:
Acolumn = π(D/2)²,
where D = 120 cm.
Acolumn = π × (120/2)² = π × 60² = π × 3600 ≈ 11310 cm².

Step 2: Calculate the total area occupied by downcomers.Assuming there are two downcomers, the total area occupied is:
Adowncomers = 2 × 575 = 1150 cm².

Step 3: Calculate the percentage of area not available for vapor flow.The percentage area occupied by the downcomers is:
% Area = (Adowncomers / Acolumn) × 100.
Substitute Adowncomers = 1150 cm² and Acolumn = 11310 cm²:
% Area = (1150 / 11310) × 100 ≈ 10.2%.

Step 4: Conclusion.The percentage column cross-sectional area not available for vapor flow due to the downcomers is 10.2%.

*The article might have information for the previous academic years, please refer the official website of the exam.

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