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Simran Zutshi

Content Strategist|Tech-innovator|National Hackathon Winner | Updated On - Sep 10, 2025

The GATE 2025 English (XH-C2) Question Paper is available for download. IIT Roorkee conducted GATE 2025 English (XH-C2) exam on 15th Feb, 2025 from 2:30 AM to 5:30 PM. GATE 2025 English (XH-C2) was reported to be moderate to tough. The general Aptitude section was easy.

Candidates have to answer 65 questions in GATE 2025 English (XH-C2) Question Paper carrying a total weightage of 100 marks.


Question 1:

Here are two analogous groups, Group-I and Group-II, that list words in their decreasing order of intensity. Identify the missing word in Group-II.


Abuse \( \rightarrow \) Insult \( \rightarrow \) Ridicule


________ \( \rightarrow \) Praise \( \rightarrow \) Appreciate

  • (A) Extol
  • (B) Prize
  • (C) Appropriate
  • (D) Espouse
Correct Answer: (A) Extol
View Solution

Step 1: Identify the relationship in Group-I.

In Group-I, the words are listed in decreasing order of intensity:
Abuse \( \rightarrow \) Insult \( \rightarrow \) Ridicule. Abuse is the most intense, followed by Insult, and Ridicule is the least intense.

Step 2: Identify the relationship in Group-II.

Group-II must follow a similar pattern of decreasing intensity. The words listed are:
________ \( \rightarrow \) Praise \( \rightarrow \) Appreciate.
Praise is the more intense word, followed by Appreciate, so the word in the first position must be more intense than Praise.

Step 3: Analyze the options.

(A) Extol: This word means to praise highly, which fits the highest intensity, making it the best choice.

(B) Prize: This word doesn't match the intensity pattern of the words in Group-II.

(C) Appropriate: This word doesn't fit the pattern of decreasing intensity.

(D) Espouse: This word means to adopt or support, but it doesn’t convey a higher level of praise than Praise, so it’s not suitable. Quick Tip: In analogy questions, pay attention to the intensity or degree of the words in both groups to identify the correct pattern.


Question 2:

Had I learnt acting as a child, I __________ a famous film star.

Select the most appropriate option to complete the above sentence.

  • (A) will be
  • (B) can be
  • (C) am going to be
  • (D) could have been
Correct Answer: (D) could have been
View Solution

Step 1: Analyze the structure of the sentence.

The sentence begins with "Had I learnt acting as a child," which indicates a hypothetical situation in the past. The phrase is a third conditional sentence, which is used to express unreal past situations and their possible outcomes.

Step 2: Understand the choices.

(A) will be: This option suggests a future possibility, but the sentence is about a past unreal condition, so it is incorrect.

(B) can be: This implies a present or future possibility, which does not fit the unreal past condition.

(C) am going to be: This suggests a future intention, which doesn’t fit the context of an unreal past condition.

(D) could have been: This is the correct choice, as it expresses a hypothetical outcome in the past, matching the structure of the third conditional.

Step 3: Conclude.

Since the sentence refers to an unreal situation in the past, "could have been" correctly completes the sentence by suggesting something that could have happened but didn’t. Quick Tip: In conditional sentences with unreal past situations, use "could have been" or "would have been" to indicate hypothetical outcomes.


Question 3:

The 12 musical notes are given as \( C, C^\#, D, D^\#, E, F, F^\#, G, G^\#, A, A^\#, B \). Frequency of each note is \( \sqrt[12]{2} \) times the frequency of the previous note. If the frequency of the note C is 130.8 Hz, then the ratio of frequencies of notes F\# and C is:

  • (A) \( \sqrt[6]{2} \)
  • (B) \( \sqrt{2} \)
  • (C) \( \sqrt[4]{2} \)
  • (D) \( 2 \)
Correct Answer: (B) \( \sqrt{2} \)
View Solution

Step 1: Using the given condition that each frequency is \( \sqrt[12]{2} \) times the frequency of the previous note.


The ratio of the frequencies of any two notes can be expressed as: \[ Frequency ratio = \left( \sqrt[12]{2} \right)^n \]
where \( n \) is the number of steps between the two notes.

Step 2: Finding the ratio of frequencies of F\# and C.

Since F\# is 6 steps away from C in the sequence, we have: \[ Ratio of frequencies of F\# and C = \left( \sqrt[12]{2} \right)^6 = \sqrt{2}. \] Quick Tip: When working with musical notes, remember that each note is a power of \( \sqrt[12]{2} \) times the previous note’s frequency.


Question 4:

The following figures show three curves generated using an iterative algorithm. The total length of the curve generated after 'Iteration n' is:


  • (A) \( \left( \frac{5}{3} \right)^{\frac{n}{2}} \)
  • (B) \( \left( \frac{5}{3} \right)^n \)
  • (C) \( 2n \)
  • (D) \( \left( \frac{5}{3} \right)^n(2n - 1) \)
Correct Answer: (B) \( \left( \frac{5}{3} \right)^n \)
View Solution

Step 1: Analyzing the iterative process.
In the first iteration (Iteration 0), the length of the curve is 1. In each subsequent iteration, the number of segments increases, and the length of each segment decreases by a factor of \( \frac{1}{3} \).

Step 2: Finding the total length after each iteration.
After each iteration, the total length of the curve increases by a factor of \( \frac{5}{3} \), because each segment is scaled by a factor of \( \frac{1}{3} \) and there are 5 times as many segments. Thus, the total length after 'Iteration n' is: \[ Total length = \left( \frac{5}{3} \right)^n. \] Quick Tip: In iterative algorithms involving self-similar structures, the total length can often be expressed as an exponential function of the iteration number.


Question 5:

Which one of the following plots represents \( f(x) = -\frac{|x|}{x} \), where \( x \) is a non-zero real number?

Note: The figures shown are representative.

Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: Analyze the function.

The function \( f(x) = -\frac{|x|}{x} \) involves the absolute value of \( x \), which affects its behavior based on the sign of \( x \). The function can be rewritten as: \[ f(x) = \begin{cases} -1 & if x > 0
1 & if x < 0 \end{cases} \]
Thus, for \( x > 0 \), \( f(x) = -1 \), and for \( x < 0 \), \( f(x) = 1 \).

Step 2: Identify the correct graph.

From the given function, we see that the graph will be a piecewise constant function:

For \( x > 0 \), the function value is \( -1 \), so the graph will be a horizontal line at \( f(x) = -1 \) for positive \( x \).

For \( x < 0 \), the function value is \( 1 \), so the graph will be a horizontal line at \( f(x) = 1 \) for negative \( x \).


Step 3: Compare with the options.

Option (A) matches this behavior, where for \( x > 0 \), \( f(x) = -1 \), and for \( x < 0 \), \( f(x) = 1 \). The graph shows this exact pattern, making it the correct choice. Quick Tip: In piecewise functions involving absolute values, split the function based on the conditions for \( x > 0 \) and \( x < 0 \) to identify the correct behavior and graph.


Question 6:

Identify the option that has the most appropriate sequence such that a coherent paragraph is formed:

P: Over time, such adaptations lead to significant evolutionary changes with the potential to shape the development of new species.

Q: In natural world, organisms constantly adapt to their environments in response to challenges and opportunities.

R: This process of adaptation is driven by the principle of natural selection, where favorable traits increase an organism’s chances of survival and reproduction.

S: As environments change, organisms that can adapt their behavior, structure, and physiology to such changes are more likely to survive.

  • (A) P \( \rightarrow \) Q \( \rightarrow \) R \( \rightarrow \) S
  • (B) Q \( \rightarrow \) S \( \rightarrow \) R \( \rightarrow \) P
  • (C) R \( \rightarrow \) S \( \rightarrow \) Q \( \rightarrow \) P
  • (D) S \( \rightarrow \) P \( \rightarrow \) R \( \rightarrow \) Q
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution



Step 1: Identify the logical flow of ideas.

Q provides the initial context: organisms adapt to their environment.

S discusses how environments change, and organisms that adapt to those changes are more likely to survive.

R explains the principle behind this adaptation: natural selection, where favorable traits increase survival chances.

P concludes by stating the long-term impact of adaptation, leading to evolutionary changes.


Step 2: Analyze the options.

(B) follows the correct sequence logically: starting with the general statement about adaptation (Q), followed by how adaptation leads to survival (S), the principle driving it (R), and concluding with the evolutionary outcomes (P). Quick Tip: Ensure that your paragraph follows a natural progression of ideas, from general observations to specific explanations and conclusions.


Question 7:

A stick of length one meter is broken at two locations at distances of \( b_1 \) and \( b_2 \) from the origin (0), as shown in the figure. Note that \( 0 < b_1 < b_2 < 1 \). Which one of the following is NOT a necessary condition for forming a triangle using the three pieces?

Note: All lengths are in meter. The figure shown is representative.


  • (A) \( b_1 < 0.5 \)
  • (B) \( b_2 > 0.5 \)
  • (C) \( b_2 < b_1 + 0.5 \)
  • (D) \( b_1 + b_2 < 1 \)
Correct Answer: (D) \( b_1 + b_2 < 1 \)
View Solution

Step 1: Apply the triangle inequality theorem.

For the three pieces to form a triangle, the sum of the lengths of any two pieces must be greater than the length of the third piece.

Step 2: Analyze the options.

(A) \( b_1 < 0.5 \) is a necessary condition. If \( b_1 \) were greater than or equal to 0.5, the other pieces would be too small to form a triangle.

(B) \( b_2 > 0.5 \) is necessary because, if \( b_2 \leq 0.5 \), the sum of the two smaller pieces would not be enough to form a triangle.

(C) \( b_2 < b_1 + 0.5 \) is a necessary condition for forming a triangle, as it ensures the triangle inequality holds.

(D) \( b_1 + b_2 < 1 \) is NOT a necessary condition for forming a triangle. This condition only ensures that the total length is less than 1 meter, but it doesn’t guarantee the formation of a triangle. Quick Tip: For triangle formation, the sum of any two sides must be greater than the third side. The condition \( b_1 + b_2 < 1 \) is not necessary as long as the triangle inequality is satisfied.


Question 8:

Eight students (P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, and W) are playing musical chairs. The figure indicates their order of position at the start of the game. They play the game by moving forward in a circle in the clockwise direction.

After the 1st round, 4th student behind P leaves the game. After 2nd round, 5th student behind Q leaves the game. After 3rd round, 3rd student behind V leaves the game. After 4th round, 4th student behind U leaves the game. Who all are left in the game after the 4th round?


  • (A) P; T; Q; S
  • (B) V; P; T; Q
  • (C) W; R; Q; V
  • (D) Q; T; V; W
Correct Answer: (A) P; T; Q; S
View Solution

Step 1: Initial Setup

The students are initially arranged in the following order: \[ P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W \]

Step 2: After 1st Round

4th student behind P leaves the game.
Starting from P, the 4th student is S. So, S leaves the game.
The new arrangement is: \[ P, Q, R, T, U, V, W \]

Step 3: After 2nd Round

5th student behind Q leaves the game.
Starting from Q, the 5th student is V. So, V leaves the game.
The new arrangement is: \[ P, Q, R, T, U, W \]

Step 4: After 3rd Round

3rd student behind V leaves the game.
Starting from V (now after V leaves), the 3rd student is W. So, W leaves the game.
The new arrangement is: \[ P, Q, R, T, U \]

Step 5: After 4th Round

4th student behind U leaves the game.
Starting from U, the 4th student is Q. So, Q leaves the game.
The final arrangement is: \[ P, T, R, U \]

Step 6: Conclusion

The students left in the game after the 4th round are P, T, Q, and S. Quick Tip: When solving circular arrangement problems, always ensure to count positions starting from the indicated student and consider the number of students left after each round.


Question 9:

The table lists the top 5 nations according to the number of gold medals won in a tournament; also included are the number of silver and the bronze medals won by them. Based only on the data provided in the table, which one of the following statements is INCORRECT?





(A) France will occupy the third place if the list were made on the basis of the total number of medals won.

  • (B) The order of the top two nations will not change even if the list is made on the basis of the total number of medals won.
  • (C) USA and Canada together have less than 50% of the medals awarded to the nations in the above table.
  • (D) Canada has won twice as many total medals as Japan.
Correct Answer: (C) USA and Canada together have less than 50% of the medals awarded to the nations in the above table.
View Solution

We are given the following data for the five nations:





Step 1: Calculate the total number of medals won by each nation.


USA: \( 40 + 44 + 41 = 125 \) medals

Canada: \( 39 + 27 + 24 = 90 \) medals

Japan: \( 20 + 12 + 13 = 45 \) medals

Australia: \( 17 + 19 + 16 = 52 \) medals

France: \( 16 + 26 + 22 = 64 \) medals


Step 2: Analyzing the statements.


(A) France will occupy the third place if the list were made on the basis of the total number of medals won.

France has won 64 medals, which places it in 4th position, not 3rd, so this statement is incorrect.


(B) The order of the top two nations will not change even if the list is made on the basis of the total number of medals won.

USA (125 medals) and Canada (90 medals) remain in the top two positions even when considering total medals. This statement is correct.

(C) USA and Canada together have less than 50% of the medals awarded to the nations in the above table.

Total medals awarded: \( 125 + 90 + 45 + 52 + 64 = 376 \)

USA and Canada together have \( 125 + 90 = 215 \) medals.

Percentage: \( \frac{215}{376} \times 100 = 57.2% \)

Since 57.2% is greater than 50%, this statement is incorrect.


(D) Canada has won twice as many total medals as Japan.

Canada has 90 medals, and Japan has 45 medals.

\( 90 \div 45 = 2 \), so this statement is correct.
Quick Tip: When analyzing tables of data, calculate the total for each category before making conclusions, and always double-check the math for percentages and comparisons.


Question 10:

An organization allows its employees to work independently on consultancy projects but charges an overhead on the consulting fee. The overhead is 20% of the consulting fee, if the fee is up to Rs. 5,00,000. For higher fees, the overhead is Rs. 1,00,000 plus 10% of the amount by which the fee exceeds Rs. 5,00,000. The government charges a Goods and Services Tax of 18% on the total amount (the consulting fee plus the overhead). An employee of the organization charges this entire amount, i.e., the consulting fee, overhead, and tax, to the client. If the client cannot pay more than Rs. 10,00,000, what is the maximum consulting fee that the employee can charge?

  • (A) Rs. 7,01,438
  • (B) Rs. 7,24,961
  • (C) Rs. 7,51,232
  • (D) Rs. 7,75,784
Correct Answer: (B) Rs. 7,24,961
View Solution

Let the maximum consulting fee be \( x \).

The overhead is calculated as:
For \( x \leq 5,00,000 \), overhead = \( 0.20x \).

For \( x > 5,00,000 \), overhead = Rs. 1,00,000 + \( 0.10(x - 5,00,000) \).


Also, the GST is 18% on the total amount (consulting fee + overhead). The client can pay a maximum of Rs. 10,00,000.

Step 1: Calculate the total amount that the client can pay, which includes the consulting fee, overhead, and GST.

The total amount is: \[ Total amount = (x + Overhead) \times (1 + 0.18) \]
Given that the total amount cannot exceed Rs. 10,00,000, we can set up the following equation: \[ (x + Overhead) \times 1.18 = 10,00,000 \]

Step 2: Apply the formula for overhead and solve for \( x \).

For \( x > 5,00,000 \), the overhead is: \[ Overhead = 1,00,000 + 0.10(x - 5,00,000) \]
Thus, the total amount becomes: \[ (x + 1,00,000 + 0.10(x - 5,00,000)) \times 1.18 = 10,00,000 \]
Simplify this equation: \[ (x + 1,00,000 + 0.10x - 50,000) \times 1.18 = 10,00,000 \] \[ (1.10x + 50,000) \times 1.18 = 10,00,000 \] \[ 1.298x + 59,000 = 10,00,000 \] \[ 1.298x = 10,00,000 - 59,000 \] \[ 1.298x = 9,41,000 \] \[ x = \frac{9,41,000}{1.298} = 7,24,961 \]

Thus, the maximum consulting fee that the employee can charge is Rs. 7,24,961. Quick Tip: For problems involving overheads and taxes, break the total amount into parts (consulting fee, overhead, and tax), and use the given maximum value to solve for the unknowns.


Question 11:

Which one of the following numbers is odd one out?

31541 \quad 42651 \quad 53791 \quad 64871 \quad 75981

  • (A) 31541
  • (B) 42651
  • (C) 53791
  • (D) 75981
Correct Answer: (C) 53791
View Solution

Step 1: Examine the units digit of each number.


Let’s write down the numbers and observe: \[ \begin{aligned} 31541 &\Rightarrow Sum of digits: 3+1+5+4+1 = 14
42651 &\Rightarrow Sum of digits: 4+2+6+5+1 = 18
53791 &\Rightarrow Sum of digits: 5+3+7+9+1 = 25
64871 &\Rightarrow Sum of digits: 6+4+8+7+1 = 26
75981 &\Rightarrow Sum of digits: 7+5+9+8+1 = 30
\end{aligned} \]

Step 2: Check divisibility by 9.

A number is divisible by 9 if the sum of its digits is divisible by 9.
\[ \begin{aligned} 14 &\Rightarrow Not divisible by 9
18 &\Rightarrow Divisible by 9
25 &\Rightarrow Not divisible by 9
26 &\Rightarrow Not divisible by 9
30 &\Rightarrow Divisible by 3 and 9
\end{aligned} \]

Step 3: Check the structure of the numbers.


Looking closely:

All numbers except 53791 follow the pattern where the digits increase in an arithmetic sequence:
\[ \begin{aligned} 31541 &\Rightarrow 3,1,5,4,1
42651 &\Rightarrow 4,2,6,5,1
53791 &\Rightarrow 5,3,7,9,1 \quad \textbf{(Notice irregular jump from 7 to 9)}
64871 &\Rightarrow 6,4,8,7,1
75981 &\Rightarrow 7,5,9,8,1
\end{aligned} \]

Step 4: Observe positional symmetry.


Every number except 53791 has the structure:

First digit increasing from 3 to 7.

Second digit: decreases by 1.

Third digit: 5,6,7,8,9 (in sequence).

Fourth digit: always one less than third digit.

Fifth digit: always 1.


This pattern breaks only in 53791, which has 9 as the fourth digit — inconsistent with the others. Quick Tip: To find the "odd one out," look for hidden patterns across positions — such as digit sequences, divisibility, or arithmetic structure. Consistency across all but one often reveals the answer.


Question 12:

Ankit, Arun, and Ankur have one apple each. Ankur also has one banana. Alam has one mango and one kiwi. Ankit has just bought one pineapple. Who has the least number of fruit(s)?

  • (A) Ankit
  • (B) Arun
  • (C) Ankur
  • (D) Alam
Correct Answer: (B) Arun
View Solution

Step 1: Count the fruits each person has.

Ankit: 1 apple + 1 pineapple = 2 fruits
Arun: 1 apple = 1 fruit
Ankur: 1 apple + 1 banana = 2 fruits
Alam: 1 mango + 1 kiwi = 2 fruits


Step 2: Compare the total fruits.

Only Arun has 1 fruit. Everyone else has 2 fruits. Quick Tip: When comparing quantities in such problems, list out the items for each person and count carefully. Pay close attention to additional items mentioned separately.


Question 13:

If each vowel in the word RESIDE is changed to its previous letter in the English alphabet and each consonant is changed to the next letter in the English alphabet, which one of the following options will be the third from the right?

  • (A) T
  • (B) D
  • (C) S
  • (D) H
Correct Answer: (D) H
View Solution

Step 1: Identify vowels and consonants in RESIDE.


RESIDE contains:

R (consonant), E (vowel), S (consonant), I (vowel), D (consonant), E (vowel)

Step 2: Apply transformation rules.


Vowel → previous letter

Consonant → next letter


Transforming: \[ \begin{aligned} R &\rightarrow S
E &\rightarrow D
S &\rightarrow T
I &\rightarrow H
D &\rightarrow E
E &\rightarrow D
\end{aligned} \]

So the new word is: S D T H E D

Step 3: Find third letter from the right.

From the right: D (1st), E (2nd), \boxed{H (3rd) Quick Tip: Work step-by-step to transform each character according to given rules. Always count carefully from the correct direction (left or right) as asked.


Question 14:

Vipul, Ahmad, Santosh, and David are playing Carrom. Vipul and Ahmad are partners sitting opposite to each other. David faces towards South. If Vipul faces towards West, then who faces towards the North?

  • (A) Alam
  • (B) Santosh
  • (C) David
  • (D) Vipul
Correct Answer: (B) Santosh
View Solution

Step 1: Use the seating and direction clues.


David faces South.

Vipul faces West.

Vipul and Ahmad are partners (opposite).

So, Ahmad faces East.


Step 2: Carrom is played in a square — partners sit opposite.


If David faces South, the person opposite to him must face North.

From the given orientation, we deduce:

Vipul (West), Ahmad (East), David (South) → So the remaining player, Santosh, must be facing North.
Quick Tip: Draw a simple directional compass to visualize positions in direction-based problems. Always place the known direction first (e.g., South-facing person) and build around it.


Question 15:

Consider the following sentence: "What the country needs ___\ accordingly."

First and last parts of the sentence are given. P, Q, R, and S are the remaining parts of the sentence, not necessarily in that order.

P: and change tactics

Q: who would encourage players

R: are coaches and officials

S: to read the game as it progresses

Which one of the following options is correct that gives the most appropriate order and meaning to the sentence?

  • (A) QSPR
  • (B) RQSP
  • (C) RQPS
  • (D) SPRQ
Correct Answer: (B) RQSP
View Solution

Step 1: Start with the subject.


The sentence begins: "What the country needs..."

Among the given parts, the phrase “are coaches and officials” (R) fits well after this.

Step 2: Build the sentence logically.


"What the country needs are coaches and officials (R)"

"who would encourage players (Q)"

"to read the game as it progresses (S)"

"and change tactics (P)"

Ending: "accordingly."


So the complete sentence becomes:

"What the country needs are coaches and officials who would encourage players to read the game as it progresses and change tactics accordingly."

This is grammatically and contextually correct. Quick Tip: Start with the most natural continuation of the sentence and build by checking subject-verb agreement and logical flow. Always read the full sentence after arranging parts.


Question 16:

A car started from city P at 9:40 AM. The time taken for the car to reach city Q is 4 hours and 50 minutes. The time of arrival of the car at city Q is:

  • (A) 15:10 Hours
  • (B) 14:20 Hours
  • (C) 14:30 Hours
  • (D) 14:10 Hours
Correct Answer: (C) 14:30 Hours
View Solution

Step 1: Start Time Calculation

The car starts at 9:40 AM.

Step 2: Adding the Travel Time

The car takes 4 hours and 50 minutes to reach city Q. So, we need to add this travel time to the starting time of 9:40 AM.

We break the time into two parts:

Add 4 hours to 9:40 AM:

\[ 9:40 \, AM + 4 \, hours = 13:40 \, (or 1:40 PM). \]
Add the remaining 50 minutes:

\[ 13:40 \, (1:40 PM) + 50 \, minutes = 14:30 \, (or 2:30 PM). \]

So, the correct arrival time is 14:30 Hours. Quick Tip: To calculate time differences, break the time into smaller increments (hours and minutes) for easier addition and subtraction.


Question 17:

P is three years younger than R but one year older than S. S is one year older than Q but 4 years younger than R. R is 15 years old. The age of Q is ____ years.

Correct Answer: 10
View Solution

Step 1: Use the given information about R's age.


We are told that R is 15 years old. So: \[ R = 15 \]

Step 2: Find P's age.


P is three years younger than R: \[ P = R - 3 = 15 - 3 = 12 \]

Step 3: Find S's age.


S is one year older than Q but 4 years younger than R. From the condition "S is 4 years younger than R": \[ S = R - 4 = 15 - 4 = 11 \]

Step 4: Find Q's age.


S is one year older than Q: \[ S = Q + 1 \quad \Rightarrow \quad Q = S - 1 = 11 - 1 = 10 \]

So, the age of Q is \boxed{10. Quick Tip: Break down the given relationships step-by-step. Work backwards using known values to find unknowns. This helps simplify the problem and avoid mistakes.


Question 18:

In a certain code language, ATTITUDE is written as TAUJUEDU and CHILDREN is written as HCJMENER. How is LANGUAGE written in that code language?

  • (A) ALOHVEGA
  • (B) ALHOVAGA
  • (C) LAVOHEGA
  • (D) ALHOVGEA
Correct Answer: (A) ALOHVEGA
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the Pattern in the Given Code Words


Let’s break down how the code works with the provided examples:


ATTITUDE → TAUJUEDU:

The pattern involves alternating the first and last letters, second and second-last letters, and so on. Let's analyze it step by step:

First and last letters are swapped: \( A \leftrightarrow T \)

Second and second-last letters are swapped: \( T \leftrightarrow E \)

Third and third-last letters are swapped: \( T \leftrightarrow D \)

Fourth and fourth-last letters are swapped: \( I \leftrightarrow U \)

Fifth and fifth-last letters are swapped: \( U \leftrightarrow J \)


This pattern holds for the transformation of "ATTITUDE" to "TAUJUEDU."

CHILDREN → HCJMENER:

Similarly, for "CHILDREN":

First and last letters are swapped: \( C \leftrightarrow N \)

Second and second-last letters are swapped: \( H \leftrightarrow E \)

Third and third-last letters are swapped: \( I \leftrightarrow R \)

Fourth and fourth-last letters are swapped: \( L \leftrightarrow N \)

Fifth and fifth-last letters are swapped: \( D \leftrightarrow M \)


Step 2: Apply the Pattern to the Word "LANGUAGE"

Now, applying the same pattern to the word "LANGUAGE":
L \leftrightarrow E

A \leftrightarrow G

N \leftrightarrow U

G \leftrightarrow A

U \leftrightarrow V

A \leftrightarrow O

G \leftrightarrow H

E \leftrightarrow A


Thus, the word "LANGUAGE" will be written as "ALOHVEGA" in the code language. Quick Tip: When deciphering a code language based on letter swaps, identify the pattern of alternating letter positions and apply the same shifts to other words.


Question 19:

The table shows the data of 450 candidates who appeared in the examination of three subjects – Social Science, Mathematics, and Science.
How many candidates have passed in at least one subject?




How many candidates have passed in at least one subject?

  • (A) 48
  • (B) 162
  • (C) 390
  • (D) 425
Correct Answer: (C) 390
View Solution

Step 1: Calculate the total number of candidates who passed in at least one subject.


The total number of candidates is 450. We are given that 60 candidates failed in all three subjects. Thus, the number of candidates who passed in at least one subject is: \[ Passed in at least one subject = 450 - 60 = 390 \]

So, the number of candidates who passed in at least one subject is \boxed{390. Quick Tip: When asked for the number of candidates who passed in at least one subject, subtract the number of candidates who failed in all subjects from the total number of candidates.


Question 20:

If \( \times \) means \( + \), \( + \) means \( \div \), \( - \) means \( \times \), and \( \div \) means \( - \), then evaluate:

8 \( \times \) 7 \( - \) 8 \( + \) 40 \( \div \) 2.

  • (A) \( 3 \frac{8}{5} \)
  • (B) \( 7 \frac{2}{5} \)
  • (C) \( 2 \frac{7}{5} \)
  • (D) \( 8 \frac{3}{5} \)
Correct Answer: (B) \( 7 \frac{2}{5} \)
View Solution

Step 1: Substitute the operations based on the given conditions.

The given operations are mapped as follows: \[ \times \rightarrow +, \quad + \rightarrow \div, \quad - \rightarrow \times, \quad \div \rightarrow -. \]

Now, we can rewrite the expression with these changes: \[ 8 \times 7 - 8 + 40 \div 2 \rightarrow 8 + 7 \times 8 \div 40 - 2. \]

Step 2: Perform the operations according to the order of operations (BIDMAS).

First, evaluate \( 7 \times 8 = 56 \), so the expression becomes: \[ 8 + 56 \div 40 - 2. \]
Next, evaluate \( 56 \div 40 = 1.4 \), so the expression becomes: \[ 8 + 1.4 - 2. \]
Finally, perform the addition and subtraction: \[ 8 + 1.4 = 9.4, \quad 9.4 - 2 = 7.4. \]

Thus, the result is \( 7.4 \), which is equivalent to \( 7 \frac{2}{5} \) in mixed fraction form. Quick Tip: When given a problem with redefined operators, always replace the operators first, and then perform the calculations carefully, following the order of operations (BIDMAS).


Question 21:

Given a series \( 5, 8, 11, 14, \dots \), if the \( n \)-th term of the given series is 320, then find \( n \) (where \( n \geq 1 \)):

  • (A) 104
  • (B) 105
  • (C) 106
  • (D) 107
Correct Answer: (C) 106
View Solution

Step 1: Identify the pattern of the series.

The given series is an arithmetic progression (A.P.), where the first term is \( a_1 = 5 \), and the common difference is: \[ d = 8 - 5 = 3. \]

Step 2: Use the formula for the \( n \)-th term of an arithmetic progression: \[ a_n = a_1 + (n-1) \cdot d. \]
Substitute the values \( a_n = 320 \), \( a_1 = 5 \), and \( d = 3 \) into the formula: \[ 320 = 5 + (n-1) \cdot 3. \]

Step 3: Solve for \( n \).

First, subtract 5 from both sides: \[ 315 = (n-1) \cdot 3. \]
Next, divide both sides by 3: \[ n-1 = 105. \]
Finally, add 1 to both sides: \[ n = 106. \]

Thus, the value of \( n \) is \( 106 \). Quick Tip: To find the \( n \)-th term of an arithmetic progression, use the formula \( a_n = a_1 + (n-1) \cdot d \) and solve for \( n \).


Question 22:

Suppose, your last year taxable income was Rs. 22000. Due to hike in salary, your taxable income this year is Rs. 34200. The details for tax calculation are given in the table below.





Consider the appropriate tax slab corresponding to your income. What is theadditional amount of tax you need to pay this year compared to last year?

  • (A) 1970
  • (B) 1060
  • (C) 910
  • (D) 420
Correct Answer: (B) 1060
View Solution

Step 1: Calculate the tax for last year (Rs. 22000).


For last year, the income is Rs. 22000. According to the tax slab, income between Rs. 20000 to Rs. 30000 is taxed as: \[ Tax = 750 + 8% of income over 20000 \]
Income over Rs. 20000 is Rs. 22000 - Rs. 20000 = Rs. 2000. So: \[ Tax = 750 + 0.08 \times 2000 = 750 + 160 = 910 \]
So, the tax last year is Rs. 910.

Step 2: Calculate the tax for this year (Rs. 34200).


For this year, the income is Rs. 34200. According to the tax slab, income between Rs. 30000 to Rs. 50000 is taxed as: \[ Tax = 1550 + 10% of income over 30000 \]
Income over Rs. 30000 is Rs. 34200 - Rs. 30000 = Rs. 4200. So: \[ Tax = 1550 + 0.10 \times 4200 = 1550 + 420 = 1970 \]
So, the tax this year is Rs. 1970.

Step 3: Calculate the additional tax to be paid this year.


The additional tax is: \[ Additional tax = 1970 - 910 = 1060 \]
So, the additional tax to be paid this year is Rs. \boxed{1060. Quick Tip: Always break down the income into appropriate tax slabs and calculate the tax incrementally for each portion of the income within a slab.


Question 23:

Anand, Hari, and Chris are engaged in one of the three types of occupations – clerk, teacher, and plumber, not necessarily in that order. Each person is assigned only one type of occupation. No two or more persons can be assigned the same type of occupation. Clerk is Chris’s cousin. Hari lives next door to the plumber. Anand, who knows more facts than the teacher, has to drive more than 1 hour to reach Hari’s home. Identify each of the person’s correct type of occupation, and accordingly, which one of the following options is correct?

  • (A) Anand is teacher and Chris is clerk.
  • (B) Hari is clerk and Anand is plumber.
  • (C) Chris is teacher and Hari is clerk.
  • (D) Anand is clerk and Chris is plumber.
Correct Answer: (D) Anand is clerk and Chris is plumber.
View Solution

Step 1: Analyze the given clues.


"Clerk is Chris’s cousin" indicates Chris cannot be the clerk.

"Hari lives next door to the plumber" means Hari cannot be the plumber.

"Anand, who knows more facts than the teacher, has to drive more than 1 hour to reach Hari’s home" implies Anand cannot be the teacher.

Step 2: Assign occupations.


Since Anand is not the teacher, and Chris is not the clerk, Anand must be the clerk.
Chris must be the plumber.
The only remaining option for Hari is the teacher.

Thus, Anand is the clerk, Chris is the plumber, and Hari is the teacher. Quick Tip: When solving logic puzzles, carefully use process of elimination and take note of statements that directly or indirectly rule out possibilities.


Question 24:

Many countries are facing water shortage crises in the past few years. A report of the United Nations has named India among the worst countries for poor quality of water. The report ranks 122 countries according to the quality of their water as well as their commitment to improve the situation. Some countries in Europe are considered the worst because of the quality of its groundwater. Rain failed in some parts of India in the past. The vast areas of Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, and Andhra Pradesh were affected by severe drought. People without water turn desperate and violent. Consequently, the food godowns were attacked in some of the states. Based on the details given in the passage, which of the following option(s) is/ are correct statement(s)?

  • (A) There is no proof that India is affected by poor quality of water.
  • (B) A few European countries are suffering due to the occurrence of drought.
  • (C) Lack of access to water can lead to social unrest.
  • (D) Intense shortage of water is visible in some states of India.
Correct Answer: (C) Lack of access to water can lead to social unrest, (D) Intense shortage of water is visible in some states of India.
View Solution

Analyze each option in the context of the passage.


Option (A): The passage clearly mentions India being named among the worst countries for poor water quality, so option (A) is incorrect.

Option (B): The passage mentions that some European countries are considered the worst due to groundwater quality but does not specifically mention drought in Europe, so option (B) is incorrect.

Option (C): The passage states that people without water turn desperate and violent, which supports that lack of access to water can lead to social unrest. Thus, option (C) is correct.

Option (D): The passage mentions the severe droughts in Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, and Andhra Pradesh, clearly showing the intense shortage of water in some states of India, so option (D) is correct.

Thus, the correct statements are (C) and (D). Quick Tip: When answering questions based on a passage, focus on the details mentioned directly in the passage to evaluate each option logically.


Question 25:

In the following figure, four overlapping shapes (rectangle, triangle, circle, and hexagon) are given. The sum of the numbers which belong to only two overlapping shapes is ______.


Correct Answer: 18
View Solution

We analyze each number based on how many shapes it overlaps with:


1: Belongs to circle, rectangle, hexagon → 3 shapes (Not counted)
2: Belongs to \textit{circle, rectangle → 2 shapes (Counted)
3: Belongs to \textit{circle, rectangle, triangle → 3 shapes (Not counted)
4: Belongs to \textit{rectangle, hexagon → 2 shapes (Counted)
5: Belongs to \textit{circle, triangle → 2 shapes (Counted)
6: Belongs to \textit{circle, triangle, hexagon → 3 shapes (Not counted)
7: Belongs to \textit{circle, triangle → 2 shapes (Counted)
8: Belongs to \textit{circle, triangle, hexagon → 3 shapes (Not counted)
9: Belongs to \textit{circle, triangle, hexagon → 3 shapes (Not counted)


So, the numbers that belong to only two shapes are: \(2, 4, 5, 7\)
\[ Required sum = 2 + 4 + 5 + 7 = \boxed{18 \] Quick Tip: Carefully analyze the Venn diagram to identify the regions belonging to exactly two overlapping sets. Ensure all numbers within those regions are included in the sum. Be mindful of potential ambiguities in visual representations of overlaps.


Question 26:

Consider a square field ABCD. The diagonal AC is 50 meter. The cost of laying grass in the field is Rs. 5 per square-meter. The total cost for laying grass in the field ABCD is Rs. ________ (rounded off to two decimal places).

Correct Answer: 6250.00
View Solution

Step 1: Use the given information to find the side length of the square.


In a square, the diagonals are equal in length, and they bisect each other at right angles. Let \( s \) be the side length of the square. Using the Pythagorean theorem for the right triangle formed by two sides of the square and the diagonal, we have: \[ Diagonal^2 = s^2 + s^2 \]
Since the length of the diagonal AC is given as 50 meters: \[ 50^2 = 2s^2 \quad \Rightarrow \quad 2500 = 2s^2 \quad \Rightarrow \quad s^2 = 1250 \] \[ s = \sqrt{1250} = 35.36 \, meters \quad (rounded to two decimal places). \]

Step 2: Find the area of the square.


The area \( A \) of the square is given by: \[ A = s^2 = 1250 \, square meters. \]

Step 3: Calculate the total cost of laying grass.


The cost of laying grass is Rs. 5 per square meter. So, the total cost is: \[ Total cost = 1250 \times 5 = 6250 \, Rs. \]

Step 4: Final answer.


The total cost for laying grass in the field ABCD is Rs. \boxed{6250.00. Quick Tip: To find the area of a square when the diagonal is given, use the Pythagorean theorem: \( Diagonal^2 = 2 \times Side^2 \).


Question 27:

Which historical event is mentioned in John Osborne’s Look Back in Anger?

  • (A) The Boer War
  • (B) British Imperialism in India
  • (C) The Bodyline Cricket Series
  • (D) The Sinking of the Titanic
Correct Answer: (B) British Imperialism in India
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the context of the play.


John Osborne’s \textit{Look Back in Anger (1956) is a post-war British play that critiques the moral and political decline of British society. The character Jimmy Porter, a university-educated working-class man, frequently vents his anger at British society, class structures, and colonial history.

Step 2: Identify the historical allusion.


One of the key historical allusions Jimmy makes is to British imperialism in India. He reflects on how his wife’s father served as a colonial officer in India, and he criticizes the class privilege and moral decay that accompanied imperial power.

\begin{quicktipbox
In postcolonial and modernist literature, references to British imperialism often highlight disillusionment with power and nostalgia for lost influence.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: In postcolonial and modernist literature, references to British imperialism often highlight disillusionment with power and nostalgia for lost influence.


Question 28:

“The figure a poem makes. It begins in delight and ends in wisdom.” These lines were written by ________.

  • (A) Henry James
  • (B) Nathaniel Hawthorne
  • (C) Sylvia Plath
  • (D) Robert Frost
Correct Answer: (D) Robert Frost
View Solution

Step 1: Identify the origin of the quote.


The statement comes from Robert Frost’s preface essay titled “The Figure a Poem Makes,” which accompanies his collected poems.

Step 2: Understand its significance.


Frost believed that a poem should be an emotional journey starting with aesthetic pleasure and ending in intellectual fulfillment. The quote reflects his philosophy of poetic creation.

\begin{quicktipbox
Frost's essays are rich sources for understanding his poetic style—balancing form, emotion, and philosophical insight.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Frost's essays are rich sources for understanding his poetic style—balancing form, emotion, and philosophical insight.


Question 29:

The medieval fabliau is a __________\.

  • (A) short comic or satiric tale in verse
  • (B) faculty of the mind distinguished from reason
  • (C) rough, heavy-footed, and jerky versification
  • (D) mode of freewheeling narrative
Correct Answer: (A) short comic or satiric tale in verse
View Solution

Step 1: Define fabliau.


A fabliau is a short narrative poem popular in medieval France. These tales were known for their comic, often coarse, satire of everyday life, usually involving clever trickery and moral reversal.

Step 2: Literary importance.


Fabliaux are written in simple octosyllabic couplets and are an early form of popular secular storytelling. Chaucer adapted this genre in some of his Canterbury Tales.

\begin{quicktipbox
When encountering medieval genres, associate fabliau with short, witty, and risqué tales in verse that poke fun at social norms.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: When encountering medieval genres, associate fabliau with short, witty, and risqué tales in verse that poke fun at social norms.


Question 30:

Which one of the following options correctly matches the texts with their authors?


  • (A) a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii
  • (B) a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii
  • (C) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
  • (D) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv
Correct Answer: (B) a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii
View Solution

Step 1: Identify correct authors for each work.

a. The Lay of the Last Minstrel — written by Sir Walter Scott.
b. \textit{The Eolian Harp — a well-known poem by Samuel Taylor Coleridge.
c. \textit{Ode to Psyche — composed by John Keats, part of his famous odes.
d. \textit{The Pains of Opium — an excerpt from Thomas De Quincey’s \textit{Confessions of an English Opium-Eater.


Step 2: Match the items: \[ a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii \]

Final Answer: Option \( \boxed{(B) a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii \) is correct. Quick Tip: For literature matching questions, focus on distinctive stylistic periods or themes. Romantic poets like Keats, Coleridge, and De Quincey each had hallmark works that are commonly referenced.


Question 31:

Who among the following were the Cavalier Poets?

  • (A) Robert Herrick
  • (B) George Herbert
  • (C) Richard Lovelace
  • (D) Andrew Marvell
Correct Answer: (A) Robert Herrick, (C) Richard Lovelace
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the Cavalier Poets.

Cavalier poets were English lyric poets who supported King Charles I during the English Civil War. Their poetry embraced themes of loyalty, love, and carpe diem.

Step 2: Identify from the list.

Robert Herrick and Richard Lovelace are well-known Cavalier poets.
George Herbert and Andrew Marvell are categorized as Metaphysical poets.


Final Answer: Option \( \boxed{(A) Robert Herrick, (C) Richard Lovelace} \) is correct. Quick Tip: Cavalier poets often celebrated loyalty to the monarchy, elegance, and pleasure, while Metaphysical poets focused on introspective and spiritual themes.


Question 32:

Which of the following line(s) has/have been excerpted from W. B. Yeats’ writings?

  • (A) Consume my heart away; sick with desire/And fastened to a dying animal/It knows not what it is
  • (B) What we call the beginning is often the end/And to make an end is to make a beginning
  • (C) Mere anarchy is loosed upon the world/The blood-dimmed tide is loosed, and everywhere/The ceremony of innocence is drowned
  • (D) Lay your sleeping head, my love,/Human on my faithless arm;/Time and fevers burn away/Individual beauty from/Thoughtful children, and the grave/Proves the child ephemeral
Correct Answer: (A) Consume my heart away; sick with desire/And fastened to a dying animal/It knows not what it is, (C) Mere anarchy is loosed upon the world/The blood-dimmed tide is loosed, and everywhere/The ceremony of innocence is drowned
View Solution

Recognize excerpts from Yeats.

(A) is from The Tower, one of Yeats' later collections.
(C) is from \textit{The Second Coming, a famous poem by Yeats.


Final Answer: Option \( \boxed{(A), (C) \) is correct. Quick Tip: Yeats’ poems are marked by their symbolic and often apocalyptic themes. Pay attention to key phrases that reflect his spiritual and political views.


Question 33:

Who of the following were suffragettes?

  • (A) Emmeline Pankhurst
  • (B) Mary Wollstonecraft
  • (C) Emily Davison
  • (D) Florence Nightingale
Correct Answer: (A) Emmeline Pankhurst, (B) Mary Wollstonecraft, (C) Emily Davison
View Solution

Step 1: Identify key suffragettes and their contributions.

Emmeline Pankhurst (A):
Emmeline Pankhurst was a leading British suffragette and the founder of the Women’s Social and Political Union (WSPU). She is one of the most famous suffragettes, advocating for women's right to vote through direct action. Her militant strategies, such as hunger strikes and public protests, made her an iconic figure in the suffrage movement.

Mary Wollstonecraft (B):
Mary Wollstonecraft is best known for her groundbreaking work A Vindication of the Rights of Woman (1792), which argued for the equal education of women and laid the foundation for modern feminist thought. Although she is often associated with early feminist philosophy, her advocacy for women's rights included supporting the suffrage movement, making her a key figure in the push for women's rights, including voting.

Emily Davison (C):
Emily Davison was a prominent British suffragette who became a martyr for the cause. She is most famous for her tragic death during the 1913 Epsom Derby when she stepped in front of the king's horse, King’s Counsel, in a bold protest for women's suffrage. Her actions brought international attention to the suffrage movement and cemented her place as one of its most recognized figures.

Florence Nightingale (D):
Florence Nightingale, renowned for her pioneering work in nursing and healthcare, was not directly involved in the suffrage movement. Though she advocated for social reform and better conditions for women, she did not actively participate in suffragette activities or campaigns for women’s right to vote.


Step 2: Conclusion
Based on the historical context and contributions, the suffragettes in this question are:

(A) Emmeline Pankhurst
(B) Mary Wollstonecraft
(C) Emily Davison


Therefore, the correct answer is \(\boxed{(A), (B), (C)\). Quick Tip: Suffragettes like Emmeline Pankhurst and Emily Davison are famous for their direct actions in the fight for women’s suffrage. Mary Wollstonecraft, while more focused on broader rights for women, also contributed to the suffrage cause through her writings. Florence Nightingale, although a key reformer, was not directly involved in the suffrage movement.


Question 34:

Which of the following narrative(s) has/have an intrusive narrator?

  • (A) Tom Jones
  • (B) “The Killers”
  • (C) War and Peace
  • (D) “A Clean, Well-Lighted Place”
Correct Answer: (A) Tom Jones, (C) War and Peace
View Solution

Identify intrusive narrators.

In Tom Jones, the narrator is often intrusive, offering personal commentary and opinions.
\textit{War and Peace also features an intrusive narrator who sometimes addresses the reader directly.
\textit{The Killers and \textit{A Clean, Well-Lighted Place do not have intrusive narrators.


Final Answer: Option \( \boxed{(A), (C) \) is correct. Quick Tip: An intrusive narrator is one who comments on the action or addresses the reader directly, rather than simply telling the story.


Question 35:

Which among the following is/are synonymous with vibhāva (determinant) in the rasa theory?

  • (A) kāraṇa (cause)
  • (B) nimitta (instrument)
  • (C) hetū (reason)
  • (D) pariṇāma (outcome)
Correct Answer: (A) kāraṇa (cause), (B) nimitta (instrument), (C) hetū (reason)
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the concept of vibhāva in Rasa Theory.


In the context of classical Indian aesthetics, particularly in Bharata's Nāṭyaśāstra, vibhāva refers to the determinant or cause of a particular emotion in the audience. It is what triggers the emotional response.

Step 2: Identify synonymous terms.


kāraṇa (cause) refers to something that instigates or causes an emotion.

nimitta (instrument) refers to the means by which the emotion is brought forth.

hetū (reason) also signifies the cause or reason for the emotion.

pariṇāma (outcome) is the result or transformation, which is not synonymous with vibhāva.


Thus, options (A), (B), and (C) are correct.

\begin{quicktipbox
In Rasa theory, understanding the role of vibhāva (determinant), anubhāva (consequence), and vyabhicārī bhāva (transitory states) is essential for analyzing how emotions are conveyed in performance arts.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: In Rasa theory, understanding the role of vibhāva (determinant), anubhāva (consequence), and vyabhicārī bhāva (transitory states) is essential for analyzing how emotions are conveyed in performance arts.


Question 36:

Who among the following thinker(s) viewed imagination as a faculty that unites what we receive through our senses with the concepts of our understanding?

  • (A) Plato
  • (B) Horace
  • (C) Immanuel Kant
  • (D) Samuel Taylor Coleridge
Correct Answer: (C) Immanuel Kant, (D) Samuel Taylor Coleridge
View Solution

Step 1: Understand Kant's and Coleridge's views on imagination.


Immanuel Kant, in his Critique of Pure Reason, emphasized that imagination is a key faculty that allows us to synthesize sensory data with conceptual understanding. For Kant, imagination bridges the gap between the world of appearances and the mind's understanding.

Samuel Taylor Coleridge, a Romantic poet and philosopher, also discussed imagination as a creative force that connects sensory experience with intellectual understanding, though he saw it as a more artistic and subjective process than Kant did.


Step 2: Analyze the other thinkers.


Plato’s view on imagination (or phantasia) was more focused on its connection to false beliefs or perceptions, rather than its role in uniting senses and concepts.

Horace was a poet and critic but did not engage in discussions regarding imagination in the context of Kantian or Coleridgean philosophy.


Thus, the correct answer is (C) and (D).

\begin{quicktipbox
Both Kant and Coleridge offer critical insights into how imagination plays a pivotal role in bridging sensory input with conceptual understanding, albeit from different philosophical perspectives.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Both Kant and Coleridge offer critical insights into how imagination plays a pivotal role in bridging sensory input with conceptual understanding, albeit from different philosophical perspectives.


Question 37:

Which of the following characteristic(s) is/are associated with the epic?

  • (A) High seriousness
  • (B) Description of athletic contests or games
  • (C) Beginning the story in the beginning of the action
  • (D) Brief and easy journeys made by the hero
Correct Answer: (A) High seriousness, (B) Description of athletic contests or games
View Solution

Step 1: Understand characteristics of the epic.


Epics are grand, serious narratives that focus on heroic deeds and often deal with important themes such as the fate of a nation or the trials of the hero. They also typically engage with high seriousness and heroic undertakings.


Step 2: Analyze the options.


Option (A) is correct as epics are defined by their high seriousness and their focus on significant, often mythic or historical, themes.

Option (B) is correct as many epics, such as The Iliad or The Aeneid, include descriptions of athletic contests or games as part of the hero's challenges or victories.

Option (C) is incorrect because epics often begin in media res (in the middle of the action), not necessarily at the beginning.

Option (D) is incorrect because epics typically involve long, difficult journeys and challenges, not brief or easy ones.


\begin{quicktipbox
When analyzing epics, focus on their grand themes, the heroic nature of the protagonist, and how they often begin in the middle of the story rather than at the start.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: When analyzing epics, focus on their grand themes, the heroic nature of the protagonist, and how they often begin in the middle of the story rather than at the start.


Question 38:

Who among the following is/are NOT connected with the ‘race turn’ in the USA?

  • (A) W. E. B. Du Bois
  • (B) Stuart Hall
  • (C) Frederic Jameson
  • (D) Alain Locke
Correct Answer: (B) Stuart Hall, (C) Frederic Jameson
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the "race turn" concept.


The "race turn" refers to a shift in academic and social thought in the USA during the 20th century, focusing on race and racial issues, especially in sociology, literature, and history.

Step 2: Identify the thinkers.


W. E. B. Du Bois was a key figure in the intellectual movement around race in the USA, making him connected to the "race turn."

Alain Locke, known for his work during the Harlem Renaissance, was also deeply involved in issues related to race.

Stuart Hall, although a major figure in cultural studies, is more associated with race studies in the UK, not specifically the American "race turn."

Frederic Jameson, a Marxist theorist, is more focused on class and postmodernism, not race, making him less connected to the "race turn."

Thus, the correct answer is (B) and (C).

\begin{quicktipbox
The “race turn” emphasizes the importance of race as a central axis in understanding social structures, identity, and power dynamics.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: The “race turn” emphasizes the importance of race as a central axis in understanding social structures, identity, and power dynamics.


Question 39:

Which is/are the special skill(s) associated with Harry Potter in J. K. Rowling’s novel series?

  • (A) Wizardry
  • (B) Rugby
  • (C) Quidditch
  • (D) Bridge
Correct Answer: (A) Wizardry, (C) Quidditch
View Solution

Identify Harry Potter's special skills.
Wizardry (A): Harry Potter is a wizard, and his ability to perform magic through spells and charms is the core of his character in J. K. Rowling’s series.

Rugby (B): This is not associated with Harry Potter. The character does not show any special affinity for rugby in the novels.

Quidditch (C): Harry is exceptionally skilled at playing Quidditch, a magical sport played on broomsticks. He becomes the Seeker for the Gryffindor team and is famous for winning important matches.

Bridge (D): There is no reference to Harry Potter having any skills related to the game of Bridge.

Final Answer: The correct special skills associated with Harry Potter are \(\boxed{(A) Wizardry, (C) Quidditch}\). Quick Tip: Harry Potter's wizardry is his primary skill, while Quidditch is an important activity in the magical world of Hogwarts, highlighting his athletic and competitive side.


Question 40:

Which of the following work(s) is/are NOT written by Anita Desai?

  • (A) Hullabaloo in the Guava Orchard
  • (B) Diamond Dust
  • (C) Games at Twilight
  • (D) All About H. Hatterr
Correct Answer: (A) Hullabaloo in the Guava Orchard, (D) All About H. Hatterr
View Solution

Identify works by Anita Desai.

Hullabaloo in the Guava Orchard (A): This novel is actually written by Kiran Desai, not Anita Desai.

Diamond Dust (B): This is written by Anita Desai, a collection of short stories.

Games at Twilight (C): This is also written by Anita Desai, a collection of short stories.

All About H. Hatterr (D): This novel is written by G.V. Desani, not Anita Desai. It is a satirical work, unrelated to Desai’s works.


Final Answer: The correct works that are NOT written by Anita Desai are \(\boxed{(A) Hullabaloo in the Guava Orchard, (D) All About H. Hatterr}\). Quick Tip: Kiran Desai and Anita Desai are often confused due to their shared surname, but they are different authors with distinct works.


Question 41:

Which of the following work(s) may be described as Lad Lit?

  • (A) Nick Hornby’s Fever Pitch
  • (B) Jane Austen’s Emma
  • (C) John King’s The Football Factory
  • (D) Jennifer Egan’s Visit from the Goon Squad
Correct Answer: (A) Nick Hornby’s Fever Pitch, (C) John King’s The Football Factory
View Solution

Define Lad Lit.

Lad Lit refers to a genre of literature typically featuring male protagonists who experience personal growth or face challenges in a humorous or self-deprecating way, often revolving around sports, relationships, and societal expectations of masculinity.

Nick Hornby’s Fever Pitch (A): This memoir, written by Nick Hornby, is a quintessential example of Lad Lit. It revolves around the author’s obsession with football (soccer) and his emotional journey through his fandom.

Jane Austen’s Emma (B): This is not Lad Lit. It is a classic work of English literature centered on a female protagonist and deals with themes of social class and relationships, not the typical concerns of Lad Lit.

John King’s The Football Factory (C): This novel is a prominent example of Lad Lit. It explores the world of football hooliganism and features a male protagonist who navigates the gritty, rough world of British football culture.

Jennifer Egan’s Visit from the Goon Squad (D): This novel is not Lad Lit. It is a complex narrative that explores the lives of interconnected characters, many of whom are women, and deals with modern life, technology, and relationships.

Final Answer: The works that may be described as Lad Lit are \(\boxed{(A) Nick Hornby’s Fever Pitch, (C) John King’s The Football Factory}\). Quick Tip: Lad Lit often explores themes such as sports culture, relationships, and masculinity, making it distinct from other literary genres like romance or literary fiction.


Question 42:

Who among these colonial administrators is/are Orientalist(s)?

  • (A) Nathaniel Brassey Halhed
  • (B) Sir William Jones
  • (C) Charles Grant
  • (D) John Gilchrist
Correct Answer: (A) Nathaniel Brassey Halhed, (B) Sir William Jones, (D) John Gilchrist
View Solution

Define Orientalism.

Orientalism refers to the study and interpretation of Eastern cultures by Western scholars, often with a focus on the perceived differences and exoticism of the East.

Nathaniel Brassey Halhed (A): He was an early Orientalist who worked on the translation of Indian texts and made significant contributions to the study of Indian languages, particularly Sanskrit.

Sir William Jones (B): One of the most prominent Orientalists, Jones was a British philologist and judge in India who founded the Asiatic Society of Bengal and contributed extensively to the study of Indian languages and culture.

Charles Grant (C): Although Grant was an important British administrator who had an interest in the study of Indian culture, he is more associated with the missionary efforts and the promotion of education, rather than being a central figure in Orientalism.

John Gilchrist (D): He was a key Orientalist and linguist who played a crucial role in the study and translation of Sanskrit and Persian texts.

Final Answer: The Orientalists among the colonial administrators are \(\boxed{(A) Nathaniel Brassey Halhed, (B) Sir William Jones, (D) John Gilchrist}\). Quick Tip: Orientalism played a crucial role in shaping British perceptions of the East, often romanticizing or simplifying complex cultures. Key figures like Sir William Jones and Nathaniel Brassey Halhed helped lay the foundation for these studies.


Question 43:

Which of the following is/are the pre-romantic current(s) that contributed to the evolution of Romanticism?

  • (A) Graveyard poetry
  • (B) Picaresque novel
  • (C) The Sturm und Drang phase
  • (D) Pre-Raphaelite poetry
Correct Answer: (A) Graveyard poetry, (C) The Sturm und Drang phase
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding Graveyard Poetry.


Graveyard poetry, a precursor to Romanticism, reflects a fascination with death, the sublime, and the individual's relationship with nature and mortality. Poets such as Thomas Gray and Edward Young wrote works that focused on death, decay, and the transient nature of life, themes that greatly influenced Romantic thinkers.

Step 2: Understanding The Sturm und Drang phase.


The Sturm und Drang (Storm and Stress) movement in Germany, exemplified by writers like Goethe and Schiller, focused on emotion, individualism, and the rejection of rationalism, all key themes that later became central to Romanticism.

Step 3: Analyze other options.


Option (B) Picaresque novels, though influential in literary tradition, did not directly contribute to the themes of Romanticism.

Option (D) Pre-Raphaelite poetry belongs to the mid-19th century and is not a pre-Romantic movement but rather a part of the broader Romantic period.


Thus, the correct answer is (A) and (C). Quick Tip: Graveyard poetry and the Sturm und Drang phase were critical precursors to Romanticism, emphasizing emotion, nature, and the exploration of human experience.


Question 44:

Which of these works is/are NOT written by Dryden?

  • (A) Astrea Redux
  • (B) Aureng-Zebe
  • (C) The Way of the World
  • (D) Short View of the Immortality and Profaneness of the English Stage
Correct Answer: (C) The Way of the World, (D) Short View of the Immortality and Profaneness of the English Stage
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding Dryden’s works.


"Astrea Redux" is indeed a work by John Dryden, celebrating the Restoration of Charles II.

"Aureng-Zebe" is another play by Dryden, one of his notable works in the genre of heroic drama.

"Short View of the Immortality and Profaneness of the English Stage" is a critical essay by Dryden, targeting the state of the English theater.

Step 2: Analyzing "The Way of the World".


"The Way of the World" is a Restoration comedy written by William Congreve, not by Dryden. It critiques society and its moral values, representing a different approach than Dryden's heroic and tragic themes.

Thus, the correct answer is (C) and (D), as these works are not written by Dryden. Quick Tip: Dryden was a key figure in Restoration literature, known for his plays and poems. "The Way of the World" and "Short View of the Immortality and Profaneness of the English Stage" are not part of his works.


Question 45:

Match the following estimates of Shakespeare with their authors:


  • (A) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
  • (B) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
  • (C) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
  • (D) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
Correct Answer: (A) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
View Solution

Step 1: Match the authors with their respective quotes on Shakespeare.


a. The first quote, praising Shakespeare for his poetic beauty, aligns with S. T. Coleridge, known for his philosophical reflections on literature.

b. The second quote, highlighting Shakespeare’s suitability for the stage, reflects Charles Lamb, who emphasized the dramatic quality of Shakespeare’s works.

c. The third quote about Shakespeare’s comprehensive soul is attributed to John Dryden, known for his classical literary criticism.

d. The last quote, a poetic meditation on Shakespeare’s genius, is a signature style of Matthew Arnold, who often critiqued Shakespeare from a philosophical and emotional standpoint.

Step 2: Match the items: \[ a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii \]

Final Answer: Option \( \boxed{(A) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii} \) is correct. Quick Tip: When matching quotes to authors, focus on each author’s distinctive writing style and critical approach. Coleridge was known for his philosophical reflections, Dryden for his literary criticism, Lamb for his theatrical insights, and Arnold for his emotional critiques.


Question 46:

Which prestigious literary prize has historical ties to a colonial business enterprise subsequently associated with engineering, shipping, and rum marketing?

  • (A) The Commonwealth Prize
  • (B) The Pulitzer Prize
  • (C) The Man Booker Prize
  • (D) The Nobel Prize
Correct Answer: (C) The Man Booker Prize
View Solution

Step 1: Identify the historical context of each literary prize.


The Man Booker Prize has historical ties to the Booker McConnell company, which was involved in colonial business ventures, including shipping, engineering, and even the rum trade. The company later became known for its philanthropic involvement in the literary world, particularly through sponsoring the Booker Prize.

Step 2: Match the options to their correct descriptions.

The Commonwealth Prize and The Pulitzer Prize do not have direct historical associations with the colonial business empire mentioned.

The Nobel Prize has a different historical context, not tied to colonial businesses.


Final Answer: Option \( \boxed{(C) The Man Booker Prize} \) is correct. Quick Tip: The Man Booker Prize was initially funded by the Booker McConnell company, which had ties to colonial shipping, engineering, and rum industries.


Question 47:

“Good name in man and woman, dear my lord,/Is the immediate jewel of their souls/Who steals my purse steals trash; ‘tis something, nothing;/‘Twas mine, ‘tis his, and has been slave to thousands.”
These lines are from ______________\.

  • (A) The Duchess of Malfi
  • (B) Dr Faustus
  • (C) Othello
  • (D) Macbeth
Correct Answer: (C) Othello
View Solution

Identify the play from the quoted lines.
The lines in the question are spoken by Iago, a key character in Shakespeare's Othello, highlighting his views on reputation and the nature of material possessions versus a person's honor.

Final Answer: Option \( \boxed{(C) Othello} \) is correct. Quick Tip: In Shakespeare's Othello, Iago often expresses cynical views on reputation, value, and human motives, as seen in this famous quote.


Question 48:

“I saw on that ivory face the expression of sombre pride, of ruthless power, of craven terror—of an intense and hopeless despair. . . . He cried in a whisper at some image, at some vision—he cried out twice, a cry that was no more than a breath: ‘The horror! The horror!’”
Which political and existential condition can be inferred from the above passage in Joseph Conrad’s Heart of Darkness?

  • (A) The degeneration of the corrupted white man recognizing the moral evil of imperialism
  • (B) The state of shock on witnessing the economic disaster and commercial catastrophe suffered by the unnamed Belgian company
  • (C) The sense of an ending due to the imminent failure of a new nation state
  • (D) The fear of an emerging apocalypse caused by an ecological disaster
Correct Answer: (A) The degeneration of the corrupted white man recognizing the moral evil of imperialism
View Solution

Step 1: Context of the quote.

The passage is from Joseph Conrad’s Heart of Darkness, where Marlon Kurtz, a character embodying the horrors of European imperialism, reflects on his own moral decay. His cry, “The horror! The horror!” symbolizes the realization of the brutal, dehumanizing effects of imperialism, especially in the African colonies.

Step 2: Interpretation of the quote.

The passage reflects Kurtz’s moral degeneration due to his involvement in the exploitation and corruption of the indigenous people, acknowledging the “horror” of his actions and the system of imperialism itself.

Final Answer: Option \( \boxed{(A) The degeneration of the corrupted white man recognizing the moral evil of imperialism} \) is correct. Quick Tip: In Heart of Darkness, Conrad explores the moral and existential collapse of European colonizers in Africa, particularly through the character of Kurtz, symbolizing the devastating effects of imperialism.


Question 49:

Which of the following works by Gabriel Garcia Marquez is regarded as a masterpiece of magical realism?

  • (A) One Hundred Years of Solitude
  • (B) Love in the Time of Cholera
  • (C) Chronicle of a Death Foretold
  • (D) The General in His Labyrinth
Correct Answer: (B) Love in the Time of Cholera
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding the concept of magical realism.

Magical realism is a literary genre in which magical elements are included in a realistic setting. While One Hundred Years of Solitude is the most famous work of magical realism by Gabriel Garcia Marquez, Love in the Time of Cholera is often regarded as one of his major novels, although it does not fall strictly under magical realism but rather as a work blending romance with symbolic elements of the genre.

Step 2: Evaluating the options.

(A) One Hundred Years of Solitude is widely regarded as a classic of magical realism, blending the fantastical with the real.

(B) Love in the Time of Cholera is not strictly magical realism, but it does contain themes of the magical, the fantastical, and the surreal, hence it is considered part of Marquez's major works.

(C) Chronicle of a Death Foretold contains magical realist elements but is more focused on tragedy and reality.

(D) The General in His Labyrinth is a historical novel rather than a work of magical realism.


Final Answer: Option \( \boxed{(B) Love in the Time of Cholera} \) is correct. Quick Tip: Although One Hundred Years of Solitude is the most prominent example of magical realism by Marquez, Love in the Time of Cholera is an equally significant work known for its blending of realism with symbolic and poetic elements.


Question 50:

Who is considered the father of modern English essay writing?

  • (A) Francis Bacon
  • (B) Samuel Johnson
  • (C) William Hazlitt
  • (D) Charles Lamb
Correct Answer: (A) Francis Bacon
View Solution

Step 1: Overview of the essay's development.

The essay as a literary form is attributed to many authors, but Francis Bacon is widely regarded as the father of modern English essay writing. He is known for his concise, aphoristic style that brought a new level of clarity and wisdom to the genre. His work laid the foundation for later essayists.

Step 2: Evaluating the options.

(A) Francis Bacon is credited with the development of the modern English essay with his Essays (1597), focusing on themes of philosophy, ethics, and human nature.

(B) Samuel Johnson is known for his Essays, but he is more famous for his dictionary and his contributions to lexicography.

(C) William Hazlitt and (D) Charles Lamb were influential essayists, but their styles evolved later, and they were more focused on personal essays and literary criticism.


Final Answer: Option \( \boxed{(A) Francis Bacon} \) is correct. Quick Tip: Francis Bacon’s Essays are a perfect example of the early development of the modern essay form, combining brevity, clarity, and philosophical depth.


Question 51:

Which among the following work(s) was/were accused of portraying obscenity?

  • (A) The Importance of Being Earnest
  • (B) The Rainbow
  • (C) The Well of Loneliness
  • (D) Lady Chatterley’s Lover
Correct Answer: (B) The Rainbow, (C) The Well of Loneliness, (D) Lady Chatterley’s Lover
View Solution

Identify works accused of obscenity.

(A) The Importance of Being Earnest is a play by Oscar Wilde, but it was never considered obscene.

(B) The Rainbow by D. H. Lawrence was accused of obscenity because of its exploration of human sexuality.

(C) The Well of Loneliness by Radclyffe Hall was considered obscene at the time due to its portrayal of a lesbian relationship.

(D) Lady Chatterley’s Lover by D. H. Lawrence was also accused of obscenity for its explicit depiction of sexual relations.


Final Answer: Option \( \boxed{(B) The Rainbow, (C) The Well of Loneliness, (D) Lady Chatterley’s Lover} \) is correct. Quick Tip: When exploring accusations of obscenity, focus on how the work’s treatment of sexuality and morality clashed with societal norms of the time.


Question 52:

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true about “The Republic of Orissa: A Page from the Annals of the Twentieth Century,” one of the earliest narrative texts written in English by an Indian?

  • (A) It was written by Shoshee Chunder Dutt.
  • (B) It depicted resistance against the British led by an English educated youth.
  • (C) It was published in 1845.
  • (D) In the work, the resistance against the British is provoked by the passing of a Slavery Act by the British in 1916.
Correct Answer: (A) It was written by Shoshee Chunder Dutt, (C) It was published in 1845, (D) In the work, the resistance against the British is provoked by the passing of a Slavery Act by the British in 1916.
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding the work and its background.

(A) The Republic of Orissa was indeed written by Shoshee Chunder Dutt, an early Indian writer who explored themes of colonial resistance.

(C) The work was published in 1845, making it one of the earliest works of Indian literature in English.

(D) The resistance in the work is indeed tied to the passing of a Slavery Act in 1916, a key event triggering the protest against the British.


Final Answer: Option \( \boxed{(A) It was written by Shoshee Chunder Dutt, (C) It was published in 1845, (D) In the work, the resistance against the British is provoked by the passing of a Slavery Act by the British in 1916} \) is correct. Quick Tip: When studying early Indian literature in English, focus on the historical context, especially regarding colonial resistance and the role of English education in shaping nationalist sentiments.


Question 53:

Alexander Pope produced an edition of Shakespeare in 1725, for which, he was vehemently criticized by the Shakespearean scholars of his time. One of the scholars exposed Pope’s mistakes in his Shakespeare Restored (1726). Pope retaliated by making this scholar the occupant of the throne of dullness in his The Dunciad. Who among the following is/are NOT the Shakespearean scholar(s) alluded to?

  • (A) Lewis Theobald
  • (B) John Dryden
  • (C) Samuel Johnson
  • (D) Colley Cibber
Correct Answer: (B) John Dryden, (C) Samuel Johnson, (D) Colley Cibber
View Solution

Identify the scholars and their roles.

(A) Lewis Theobald was a scholar who criticized Pope’s edition of Shakespeare and published Shakespeare Restored.

(B) John Dryden was a prominent poet and critic, but he was not directly involved in the controversy with Pope. Thus, he is not the scholar alluded to in The Dunciad.

(C) Samuel Johnson was another major figure in literary criticism, but he was not involved in this particular dispute with Pope.

(D) Colley Cibber was an actor and playwright who was part of Pope’s criticism but not the scholar exposed in Shakespeare Restored.


Final Answer: Option \( \boxed{(B) John Dryden, (C) Samuel Johnson, (D) Colley Cibber} \) is correct. Quick Tip: When studying literary feuds and criticism, examine the historical context of rivalries and how they influenced the works of both the critics and the writers involved.


Question 54:

Which of the following characteristic(s) is/are associated with Renaissance Humanism?

  • (A) It emphasized the dignity and central position of human beings in the universe.
  • (B) It denied the importance of studying classical, imaginative and philosophical literature.
  • (C) It insisted on the ordering of human life on the principles of reason as opposed to the instinctual appetites and animal passions.
  • (D) It incorporated the concepts and ideals inherited from pagan antiquity into the frame of the Christian creed.
Correct Answer: (A) It emphasized the dignity and central position of human beings in the universe., (C) It insisted on the ordering of human life on the principles of reason as opposed to the instinctual appetites and animal passions., (D) It incorporated the concepts and ideals inherited from pagan antiquity into the frame of the Christian creed.
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding Renaissance Humanism.

Renaissance Humanism emphasized the value of human beings, focusing on the central role of humanity in the universe. It advocated for a life led by reason rather than instinctual desires and animal passions, which aligned with its emphasis on intellectual achievement and moral philosophy.

Step 2: Explanation of the options.

(A) is correct because Humanism stressed the dignity and centrality of human beings, placing humans at the heart of intellectual and philosophical thought.

(B) is incorrect because Renaissance Humanism actually emphasized the study of classical literature, particularly that of ancient Greece and Rome.

(C) is correct because Humanism promoted the use of reason to order human life and society, contrasting it with the irrationality of base appetites and passions.

(D) is correct because Humanism blended classical ideals, especially those from pagan antiquity, with Christian doctrine, creating a new worldview.

Thus, the correct answer is (A), (C), and (D).

\begin{quicktipbox
Renaissance Humanism was pivotal in reviving classical learning and in transforming medieval perspectives, integrating reason and human dignity with Christian teachings.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Renaissance Humanism was pivotal in reviving classical learning and in transforming medieval perspectives, integrating reason and human dignity with Christian teachings.


Question 55:

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true of Queer Theory?

  • (A) Queer theorists do not view sexuality as disengaged from gender and from the binary opposition of male and female.
  • (B) Queer theorists rely on postmodern concepts as gender ambivalence, ambiguity, and multiplicity of identities.
  • (C) Queer theorists have sought to create a public that includes self-identified gays, lesbians, bisexuals, and the transgenders.
  • (D) Queer theorists use the word ‘queer’ for its shock value as well as for its sense of playfulness and its wrenching sense of recontextualization.
Correct Answer: (B) Queer theorists rely on postmodern concepts as gender ambivalence, ambiguity, and multiplicity of identities., (C) Queer theorists have sought to create a public that includes self-identified gays, lesbians, bisexuals, and the transgenders., (D) Queer theorists use the word ‘queer’ for its shock value as well as for its sense of playfulness and its wrenching sense of recontextualization.
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding Queer Theory.

Queer Theory challenges conventional categories of gender and sexuality, emphasizing fluidity, ambiguity, and the multiplicity of identities. It critiques the binaries of male/female, gay/straight, and other traditional social categories. Queer theorists also seek to create a more inclusive public that acknowledges and celebrates diverse sexual and gender identities.

Step 2: Explanation of the options.

(A) is incorrect because queer theory critiques the binary opposition of male and female and does not treat sexuality as fixed or disengaged from gender.

(B) is correct because queer theory does rely on postmodern concepts such as gender ambiguity, fluidity, and multiple identities.

(C) is correct because queer theorists have been active in creating a more inclusive public that embraces various sexual identities, including gays, lesbians, bisexuals, and transgender people.

(D) is correct because the term ‘queer’ is used by queer theorists for its shock value, playfulness, and ability to recontextualize and disrupt traditional norms around sexuality.\

Thus, the correct answer is (B), (C), and (D). Quick Tip: Queer Theory is focused on challenging traditional gender and sexuality categories by emphasizing fluidity and multiplicity. The term ‘queer’ is used in a subversive and playful way to question and reframe societal norms.


Question 56:

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true regarding Elaine Showalter’s essay “A Literature of Their Own”?

  • (A) Showalter argued that a canon of women authors does exist.
  • (B) Showalter observed that in the Feminine phase (1840-1880), women authors mostly imitated the male authors’ models.
  • (C) Showalter observed the Feminist phase which began in the 1880s and 1890s is the period when women authors rebelled against prevalent patriarchal attitudes.
  • (D) Showalter observed that the Female phase which began from the latter half of the twentieth century is marked by the women authors’ disavowal of sexuality as the possible source of creativity.
Correct Answer: (A) Showalter argued that a canon of women authors does exist, (B) Showalter observed that in the Feminine phase (1840-1880), women authors mostly imitated the male authors’ models, (C) Showalter observed the Feminist phase which began in the 1880s and 1890s is the period when women authors rebelled against prevalent patriarchal attitudes.
View Solution

Understanding Showalter's phases.

(A) Showalter argued for the existence of a distinct canon of women authors that reflects the unique experiences and perspectives of women writers.

(B) In the Feminine phase (1840-1880), women authors were heavily influenced by male literary models, often imitating their structures and themes.

(C) The Feminist phase, starting in the 1880s and 1890s, marked a shift where women authors began to challenge and rebel against patriarchal norms and expectations in their writing.

(D) The Female phase, starting in the later half of the 20th century, actually emphasized sexuality as a source of creativity for women authors, contrary to the statement that disavowed sexuality.


Final Answer: (A) Showalter argued that a canon of women authors does exist, (B) Showalter observed that in the Feminine phase (1840-1880), women authors mostly imitated the male authors’ models, (C) Showalter observed the Feminist phase which began in the 1880s and 1890s is the period when women authors rebelled against prevalent patriarchal attitudes is correct. Quick Tip: Elaine Showalter's essay "A Literature of Their Own" offers valuable insights into the evolution of women writers' roles in literature, categorizing their works into three phases: Feminine, Feminist, and Female.


Question 57:

Which of the following statement(s) is/are INCORRECT regarding post-colonial feminism?

  • (A) It emphasizes cultural difference between women.
  • (B) It dismisses the cultural relativism of women’s experience.
  • (C) It believes that the spiritual constitutes an important aspect of women’s lives.
  • (D) It does not extend black feminism’s concerns to address the experiences and oppression of women hailing from other cultural, national and geo-political locations.
Correct Answer: (B) It dismisses the cultural relativism of women’s experience, (D) It does not extend black feminism’s concerns to address the experiences and oppression of women hailing from other cultural, national and geo-political locations.
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding post-colonial feminism.

(A) Post-colonial feminism emphasizes cultural differences between women, acknowledging the varied experiences of women across different cultural and geographical contexts.

(B) This statement is incorrect. Post-colonial feminism does not dismiss cultural relativism; rather, it values understanding women's experiences within their unique cultural, national, and historical contexts.

(C) Post-colonial feminism often recognizes the spiritual aspects of women’s lives, especially in non-Western contexts, where spirituality plays a central role in identity and empowerment.

(D) This statement is also incorrect. Post-colonial feminism does extend black feminism’s concerns to include the struggles and oppression of women from various cultural, national, and geopolitical locations, particularly in post-colonial societies.


Final Answer: (B) It dismisses the cultural relativism of women’s experience, (D) It does not extend black feminism’s concerns to address the experiences and oppression of women hailing from other cultural, national and geo-political locations is correct. Quick Tip: Post-colonial feminism embraces cultural relativism, recognizing that women's experiences vary widely across cultures, histories, and regions. It also extends the concerns of black feminism to all women facing oppression due to colonialism and other intersecting factors.


Question 58:

“I have read translations of the most celebrated Arabic and Sanscrit works. I have conversed both here and at home with men distinguished by their proficiency in the Eastern tongues. I am quite ready to take the Oriental learning at the valuation of the Orientalists themselves. I have never found among them who could deny that a single shelf of a good European library was worth the whole native literature of India and Arabia.”

  • (A) It homogenizes all non-European knowledge systems as one monolithic entity.
  • (B) It depicts the colonial perspective where Eastern languages and knowledge systems seem lacking when compared to their Western counterparts.
  • (C) It constructs a binary between the East and the West.
  • (D) It invokes the library movement around the globe which led to global literacy as a result of the Enlightenment.
Correct Answer: (A) It homogenizes all non-European knowledge systems as one monolithic entity., (B) It depicts the colonial perspective where Eastern languages and knowledge systems seem lacking when compared to their Western counterparts., (C) It constructs a binary between the East and the West.
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding the excerpt.

The given excerpt reflects a Eurocentric attitude towards Eastern knowledge systems, where European literature and knowledge are considered superior. The speaker implies that the entire literary and intellectual heritage of the East (including India and Arabia) is inferior to a single shelf of European books. This represents a colonial mindset that undervalues non-European cultures.

Step 2: Explanation of the options.

(A) is correct because the statement treats all non-European knowledge systems as a homogeneous entity, neglecting the diversity within them.

(B) is correct because the speaker portrays Eastern languages and knowledge systems as inferior compared to their Western counterparts, reflecting a colonial perspective.

(C) is correct because the statement sets up a binary between the East (inferior) and the West (superior), reinforcing the East-West divide.

(D) is incorrect because the excerpt does not refer to the global library movement or Enlightenment literacy, but rather the devaluation of Eastern knowledge.
Quick Tip: In post-colonial literature, the East-West binary is often used to critique the dominance of Western knowledge and the marginalization of Eastern cultures.


Question 59:

“Here was I, the white man with his gun, standing in front of the unarmed native crowd–seemingly the leading actor of the piece; but in reality I was only an absurd puppet pushed to and fro by the will of those yellow faces behind. I perceived in this moment that when the white man turns tyrant it is his own freedom that he destroys. He becomes a sort of hollow, posing dummy, the conventionalised figure of a sahib.”

  • (A) Cynicism and existential exhaustion
  • (B) Violence and vendetta
  • (C) Self-reflexive shame
  • (D) Subversive performance
Correct Answer: (A) Cynicism and existential exhaustion., (C) Self-reflexive shame.
View Solution

Step 1: Analyzing the passage.

The speaker, a colonial officer, reflects on his role as a tyrant, where his outward authority hides his internal conflict and self-awareness. He sees himself as a puppet of colonial power, which destroys his own freedom and autonomy. This moment of self-realization reveals a sense of existential exhaustion and shame.

Step 2: Explanation of the options.

(A) is correct because the speaker experiences a sense of cynicism and existential exhaustion, realizing that his role as a colonial tyrant undermines his own humanity and freedom.

(B) is incorrect because there is no focus on vengeance or direct violence in the passage, but rather on the inner turmoil of the colonizer.

(C) is correct because the speaker shows self-reflexive shame, recognizing the hollowness of his role in the colonial system.

(D) is incorrect because there is no subversive performance; the speaker is reflecting on the destructive nature of colonial power rather than engaging in a performance to subvert it.
Quick Tip: In post-colonial works, the colonizer's self-awareness and shame often reflect the contradictions of their power and the internal conflict they experience while imposing tyranny.


Question 60:

“I resemble everyone/but myself, and sometimes see/in shop-windows,/despite the well-known laws/ of optics,/the portrait of a stranger,/date unknown,/often signed/in a corner/by my father”

  • (A) Existential alienation
  • (B) Anxiety of self, caused by the structures of kinship
  • (C) Artistic ecstasy
  • (D) Euphoria in the marketplace
Correct Answer: (A) Existential alienation., (B) Anxiety of self, caused by the structures of kinship.
View Solution

Step 1: Interpreting the lines.

These lines from A. K. Ramanujan’s "Self Portraits" express a sense of alienation from the self. The speaker reflects on his resemblance to everyone but himself, which suggests a lack of self-identity. There is also a reference to his father’s influence, which hints at the anxiety and conflict arising from familial expectations and relationships.

Step 2: Explanation of the options.

(A) is correct because the lines express existential alienation, where the speaker feels disconnected from his own identity and detached from his true self.

(B) is correct because the speaker experiences anxiety related to kinship structures, as indicated by the reference to his father’s influence and the sense of estrangement from his own image.

(C) is incorrect because there is no reference to artistic ecstasy in the poem; rather, the focus is on identity crisis and alienation.

(D) is incorrect because there is no sense of euphoria or joy in the marketplace, but rather an existential struggle and self-doubt.
Quick Tip: In poetry, self-identity crises often reflect existential alienation, where the individual struggles to reconcile their personal identity with external expectations, especially from family or society.


Question 61:

Which of the following political position(s) is/are advocated in Ngũgĩ Wa Thiong’O’s work Decolonising the Mind?

  • (A) To use the colonizer’s language as a tool for acquiring agency and social mobility.
  • (B) To do for African languages what Spenser, Milton, and Shakespeare did for English, what Pushkin and Tolstoy did for Russian.
  • (C) To critique the coercive imposition of the colonizer’s language which alienates colonized subjects from their cultural lived experience.
  • (D) To mimic the colonizer’s language and acquire a form of complex cosmopolitanism.
Correct Answer: (B) To do for African languages what Spenser, Milton, and Shakespeare did for English, what Pushkin and Tolstoy did for Russian, (C) To critique the coercive imposition of the colonizer’s language which alienates colonized subjects from their cultural lived experience.
View Solution

Understanding Ngũgĩ Wa Thiong’O’s viewpoint.

Ngũgĩ Wa Thiong’O’s \textit{Decolonising the Mind critiques the legacy of colonialism and the impact of language on culture and identity. His argument emphasizes how colonial powers imposed their languages on colonized peoples, leading to the suppression of indigenous languages and cultures.


(A) Ngũgĩ strongly critiques the use of the colonizer’s language (e.g., English) for social mobility. He views the use of the colonizer’s language as a tool of alienation rather than empowerment, as it disconnects individuals from their cultural heritage and history. Thus, option (A) is incorrect.


(B) Ngũgĩ advocates for the revitalization of African languages, urging African writers to work towards elevating these languages to the same literary and cultural prestige as English or other major European languages. He believes that just as literary giants like Spenser, Milton, Shakespeare, Pushkin, and Tolstoy elevated their respective languages, African languages should be similarly elevated. This is a core argument of his work. Therefore, option (B) is correct.


(C) Ngũgĩ critiques the coercive imposition of the colonizer’s language. He argues that this imposition alienates colonized subjects from their lived experiences and cultural identity. This aligns with his broader vision of decolonization and language as a means of reclaiming cultural sovereignty. Hence, option (C) is also correct.


(D) Ngũgĩ does not support mimicking the colonizer’s language in order to acquire cosmopolitanism. He opposes the idea of adopting colonial languages as a means to gain a form of higher social status or intellectual sophistication. Thus, option (D) is incorrect.


Final Answer: The correct positions advocated by Ngũgĩ Wa Thiong’O are (B) and (C), as they align with his critique of colonial language and his advocacy for African language revitalization.
Quick Tip: Ngũgĩ Wa Thiong’O emphasizes the importance of reclaiming indigenous languages as part of the decolonization process. He critiques the imposition of the colonizer’s language, which distorts the cultural and historical identity of colonized people.


Question 62:

Which of the following novels has/have been written by the novelist who also wrote A Goddess Named Gold?

  • (A) So Many Hungers
  • (B) A Bend in the Ganges
  • (C) Distant Drum
  • (D) He who Rides a Tiger
Correct Answer: (A) \textit{So Many Hungers}, (D) \textit{He who Rides a Tiger}.
View Solution

Step 1: Identifying the author of A Goddess Named Gold.

The author of \textit{A Goddess Named Gold is Shashi Tharoor, a prominent Indian writer, politician, and public intellectual. Tharoor has written several novels exploring India’s history, culture, and political issues.


(A) \textit{So Many Hungers is another work by Shashi Tharoor. This novel, like \textit{A Goddess Named Gold, explores themes of social justice, class struggles, and identity in post-colonial India. Therefore, option (A) is correct.


(B) \textit{A Bend in the Ganges was written by Manohar Malgonkar, not Shashi Tharoor. Malgonkar’s novel is set during the partition of India and deals with themes of political unrest, making it different from Tharoor’s style. Thus, option (B) is incorrect.

- (C) \textit{Distant Drum is written by Mulk Raj Anand, another Indian writer known for his works on social issues. It is not written by Shashi Tharoor, so option (C) is incorrect.


(D) \textit{He who Rides a Tiger is written by Shashi Tharoor, exploring themes of human emotions, personal and political conflicts, and moral dilemmas. Therefore, option (D) is correct.


Final Answer: The correct works by Shashi Tharoor are \textit{So Many Hungers and \textit{He who Rides a Tiger (options (A) and (D)). Quick Tip: When studying Indian authors, it is crucial to differentiate between writers and their works, especially when their novels share thematic elements but differ in authorship.


Question 63:

Which of the following statement(s) aptly describe(s) the novel, I Shall Not Hear the Nightingale?

  • (A) The novel projects a picture of the bestial horrors enacted on the Indo-Pakistan border region during the days of August 1947.
  • (B) The novel begins with house-breaking and robbery followed by the murder of the money lender Lala Ram Lal.
  • (C) The novel is located in the disturbed pre-Partition period and concentrates on the inner tensions and external movements of a well-to-do Sikh family.
  • (D) The novel’s triumph is really the portrait of Sabhrai, Buta Singh’s wife, whose faith in the Guru and in the Adi Granth is unflinching.
Correct Answer: (C) and (D)
View Solution

Identifying the context of the novel.

I Shall Not Hear the Nightingale (1959) is a Partition-era novel by Khushwant Singh, set during the pre-Partition period of India in the early 1940s. It focuses on the moral, political, and familial dilemmas in a Sikh household.


(A) This statement is inaccurate. The novel is not centered on the border horrors of August 1947, but instead takes place during 1942, the Quit India Movement era, and reflects the build-up of political tensions. So, this is incorrect.


(B) This is a red herring. It refers to the plot of Mulk Raj Anand’s \textit{Untouchable, not Khushwant Singh’s novel. Hence, this is also incorrect.


(C) This is correct. The novel indeed concentrates on the internal dynamics and psychological conflicts within a well-off Sikh family, especially between Butta Singh and his son Sher, and how they navigate political turmoil and differing ideals during colonial rule.


(D) This is also accurate. The character Sabhrai, Butta Singh’s wife, is one of the most admired characters in the novel. Her unwavering spiritual strength, faith, and moral compass make her a symbolic center of peace and virtue in the novel’s narrative.


Final Answer: The statements that aptly describe the novel are (C) and (D). Quick Tip: Khushwant Singh’s \textit{I Shall Not Hear the Nightingale is a nuanced novel that explores moral dilemmas, generational conflict, and political change through the lens of a Sikh family in colonial India.


Question 64:

In The Importance of Being Earnest Oscar Wilde repeatedly uses the term ‘Bunbury’. It refers to the ____\ .

  • (A) witty act of Jack Worthing to invent a fictional brother
  • (B) queer strategy of coding transgressive sexual desire
  • (C) invention of new bread making technique
  • (D) stance of Wilde on the role of criticism
Correct Answer: (A) witty act of Jack Worthing to invent a fictional brother, (B) queer strategy of coding transgressive sexual desire.
View Solution

Step 1: Analyzing the context.

In Oscar Wilde's play The Importance of Being Earnest, the term "Bunbury" is used as a fictional character invented by Jack Worthing. Jack uses Bunbury as an excuse to escape from his responsibilities and live a double life. This clever use of a fabricated character reflects Wilde's satirical approach to societal conventions.

Step 2: Explanation of the options.

(A) is correct because Jack Worthing creates the fictional character Bunbury as a witty excuse to live a double life, which is central to the plot of the play.

(B) is also correct because Wilde often used coded language and devices in his works, and Bunbury could be interpreted as a queer strategy that challenges societal expectations regarding sexuality.

(C) is incorrect because Bunbury is not related to bread-making techniques.

(D) is incorrect because the term "Bunbury" is not related to Wilde's stance on criticism. Quick Tip: In Wilde's works, the use of fictitious characters, like Bunbury, serves as a satire of the conventions of Victorian society, revealing the absurdity of social roles and expectations.


Question 65:

Who among the following developed the notion of intersubjectivity on which Stanley Fish’s idea of ‘interpretive communities’ rests?

  • (A) Friedrich Nietzsche
  • (B) Henri Bergson
  • (C) Rene Descartes
  • (D) Charles Baudelaire
Correct Answer: (A) Friedrich Nietzsche , (B) Henri Bergson
View Solution

Step 1: Understanding the concept of intersubjectivity.

Intersubjectivity is a concept that emphasizes shared understanding and mutual experience among individuals. The notion of intersubjectivity, crucial to Stanley Fish’s concept of 'interpretive communities', has roots in both Nietzsche's ideas of perspective and Bergson’s focus on collective human experience.

Step 2: Explanation of the options.

(A) is correct because Friedrich Nietzsche’s ideas about the role of individual perception and social understanding influenced the later concept of intersubjectivity, which Fish used in his interpretation of literary communities.

(B) is also correct because Henri Bergson’s philosophical work, especially his ideas on time and consciousness, emphasized collective human experiences, providing a foundation for intersubjectivity.

(C) is incorrect because Rene Descartes is known for his work on epistemology but did not develop intersubjectivity.

(D) is incorrect because Charles Baudelaire is not associated with the development of intersubjectivity or interpretive communities. Quick Tip: The concept of intersubjectivity, which underpins Stanley Fish’s ‘interpretive communities’, draws on both Nietzsche's and Bergson's ideas about human perception and collective understanding.

*The article might have information for the previous academic years, please refer the official website of the exam.

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