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Nidhi Bamnawat

| Updated On - Mar 20, 2026

GATE 2026 Geomatics Engineering (GE) question paper is available for download here. IIT Guwahati conducted GATE 2026 GE exam on February 7, 2026 from 2:30 to 5:30 PM. GATE 2026 GE exam was reported to be Moderate to Tough. Candidates had to answer 65 questions in GATE 2026 GE Question Paper carrying a total weightage of 100 marks. 10 questions are from the General Aptitude section and 55 questions are from Engineering Mathematics and Core Discipline.

Download GATE 2026 GE Question Paper with Answer Key and Solution PDF from the links provided below.

GATE 2026 GE Question Paper with Solution PDF

GATE 2026 GE Question Paper Download PDF Check Solutions
GATE 2026 GE Question Paper

Question 1:

“He often _____ the numbers. False claims are not going to help. Honesty _____ trust”, said the manager.

Choose the option with the correct order of words to fill the blanks.

  • (A) exaggerates; engenders
  • (B) excels; encourages
  • (C) aggravates; alleviates
  • (D) diminishes; eliminates
Correct Answer: (A) exaggerates; engenders
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question evaluates vocabulary and contextual usage of verbs within a professional setting.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

The approach is to identify the logical link between "False claims" and the first blank, and the causal link between "Honesty" and "trust" in the second blank.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. The manager mentions that "False claims are not going to help," which implies that the person is making the numbers appear larger or more significant than they actually are.

2. "Exaggerates" means to represent something as being better or greater than it really is. This fits the context of "false claims."

3. In the second sentence, "Honesty _____ trust," we need a word that describes how honesty creates trust.

4. "Engenders" means to cause or give rise to a feeling or situation. "Honesty engenders trust" is a logically sound statement.

5. Other options: "Excels" (to be exceptionally good) doesn't fit numbers in a negative context. "Aggravates" (to make worse) doesn't fit numbers in the context of claims. "Diminishes" (to make smaller) would not usually be associated with "false claims" intended to "help" (misguidedly).


Step 4: Final Answer:

The correct option is (A) as both words fit the negative and positive contexts of the respective sentences.
Quick Tip: In dual-blank questions, if you are unsure of the first word, check the second one. "Honesty engenders trust" is a common collocation in English, which immediately points toward option A.


Question 2:

In the sequence of tiles shown below, the missing tile indicated by the question mark should be

  • (A)
  • (B)
  • (C)
  • (D)
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The problem is a visual pattern sequence involving the number and arrangement of dots on tiles.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

The approach is to identify the numerical progression of the dots and the geometric logic of their placement.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. Count the dots in the given tiles:

- Tile 1: 2 dots.

- Tile 2: 3 dots.

- Tile 3: ?

- Tile 4: 6 dots.

- Tile 5: 9 dots.

2. Observe the numerical sequence: \(2, 3, x, 6, 9\).

3. Looking at the differences: \(3 - 2 = 1\). \(9 - 6 = 3\).

4. If \(x=4\), the differences are \(1, 1, 2, 3\), which follows the Fibonacci increment pattern.

5. Geometrically: Tile 1 and 2 are linear/diagonal. Tile 4 is a \(2 \times 3\) grid. Tile 5 is a \(3 \times 3\) grid.

6. A 4-dot \(2 \times 2\) square (Option A) provides a logical transition from linear points to a rectangular grid.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The missing tile must have 4 dots in a \(2 \times 2\) square pattern.
Quick Tip: When dot patterns involve grids, check if the number of dots follows a sequence of squares (\(1^2, 2^2, 3^2\)) or a simple arithmetic/Fibonacci progression in the total count.


Question 3:

A school has 100 students distributed among 1st to 10th standards. Based on this, which one of the following statements is always correct?

  • (A) There are at least 10 students who belong to the same standard.
  • (B) There is at least one student in each standard.
  • (C) There are at most 10 students in 10th standard.
  • (D) The total number of students from 1st to 5th standards is at least 50.
Correct Answer: (A) There are at least 10 students who belong to the same standard.
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This problem utilizes the Generalized Pigeonhole Principle.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

If \(N\) items are put into \(k\) containers, then at least one container must contain at least \(\lceil N/k \rceil\) items.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. Here, the number of students (Pigeons), \(N = 100\).

2. The number of standards (Pigeonholes), \(k = 10\).

3. According to the principle, at least one standard must have:
\[ Minimum students = \left\lceil \frac{100}{10} \right\rceil = 10 \]

4. This means there is at least one standard with 10 or more students. Option (A) states exactly this.

5. Why other options are incorrect:

- (B) All 100 students could be in 1st standard, leaving others empty.

- (C) All 100 students could be in 10th standard.

- (D) All 100 students could be in 6th to 10th standards.


Step 4: Final Answer:

Statement (A) is the only one that is mathematically guaranteed to be true regardless of the distribution.
Quick Tip: To disprove "always correct" statements in aptitude, try to find a "counter-example" where the condition fails. The Pigeonhole Principle is the only way to find a condition that never fails.


Question 4:

How many 3-digit numbers can be formed using three distinct single digit prime numbers?

  • (A) 64
  • (B) 24
  • (C) 12
  • (D) 4
Correct Answer: (B) 24
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This is a permutation problem involving a specific subset of digits (prime numbers).


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

1. Identify the set of single-digit prime numbers.

2. Calculate the number of ways to select and arrange 3 distinct digits from that set (\(^nP_r\)).


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. Single-digit prime numbers are \(\{2, 3, 5, 7\}\). There are 4 such numbers.

2. We need to form a 3-digit number using three distinct numbers from this set.

3. The number of ways to pick 3 distinct digits out of 4 and arrange them is:
\[ ^4P_3 = \frac{4!}{(4-3)!} = \frac{4 \times 3 \times 2 \times 1}{1} = 24 \]

4. Alternatively:

- Ways to choose the 1st digit: 4

- Ways to choose the 2nd digit: 3 (distinct from the first)

- Ways to choose the 3rd digit: 2 (distinct from the first two)

- Total = \(4 \times 3 \times 2 = 24\).


Step 4: Final Answer:

Total numbers formed is 24.
Quick Tip: Prime numbers below 10 are 2, 3, 5, and 7. Remember that 1 is neither prime nor composite, and 9 is composite (\(3 \times 3\)). Misidentifying the primes is the most common error in such questions.


Question 5:

In a group of students, 10 students like Mathematics, 12 students like English, 4 students like both Mathematics and English, and 6 students like neither Mathematics nor English. The number of students in the group is ____

  • (A) 18
  • (B) 20
  • (C) 24
  • (D) 32
Correct Answer: (C) 24
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This is a set theory problem involving the union and intersection of two sets plus an external group.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

Total Students (\(T\)) = \(n(M \cup E) + n(Neither)\)
\(n(M \cup E) = n(M) + n(E) - n(M \cap E)\)


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. Given:

- \(n(M) = 10\) (likes Math)

- \(n(E) = 12\) (likes English)

- \(n(M \cap E) = 4\) (likes both)

- \(n(Neither) = 6\)

2. Calculate the number of students who like at least one subject:
\[ n(M \cup E) = 10 + 12 - 4 = 18 \]

3. The total number of students is the sum of those who like at least one subject and those who like neither:
\[ T = 18 + 6 = 24 \]


Step 4: Final Answer:

The total number of students in the group is 24.
Quick Tip: A Venn diagram is your best friend here.
(Math only: \(10-4=6\)) + (English only: \(12-4=8\)) + (Both: 4) + (Neither: 6) = 24.


Question 6:

Charity : P :: Retaliation : Q

Choose the appropriate pair of words P and Q that fit the analogy.

  • (A) P = Parsimonious; Q = Vengeful
  • (B) P = Altruistic; Q = Amicable
  • (C) P = Resentful; Q = Spiteful
  • (D) P = Magnanimous; Q = Vindictive
Correct Answer: (D) P = Magnanimous; Q = Vindictive
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Analogies identify a relationship between a concept (an action) and a related attribute (a personality trait).


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

The logic is: Action : Trait of a person performing that action.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. Charity is an act of giving. A person who is generous and forgiving is described as "Magnanimous."

2. Retaliation is the act of returning an injury or wrong. A person inclined to seek revenge is described as "Vindictive."

3. Let's check others:

- (A) Parsimonious means stingy (opposite of charity).

- (B) Altruistic fits charity, but amicable means friendly (opposite of retaliation).

- (C) Resentful is a feeling, not the trait defining the act of charity.


Step 4: Final Answer:

Option (D) provides the perfect semantic match for the traits corresponding to the actions.
Quick Tip: Try to put the words into a sentence: "A \textbf{magnanimous} person performs \textbf{charity}, just as a \textbf{vindictive} person performs \textbf{retaliation}."


Question 7:

A paper shown in Panel I is folded along the dashed lines (- - -) to construct a cube. The shaded regions shown in Panel I appear on the outer surface of the cube. Referring to cubes shown in Panel II, which one of the options is correct?

  • (A) Only (i) can correspond to the unfolded cube in Panel I.
  • (B) Only (ii) can correspond to the unfolded cube in Panel I.
  • (C) Both (i) and (ii) can correspond to the unfolded cube in Panel I.
  • (D) Neither (i) nor (ii) can correspond to the unfolded cube in Panel I.
Correct Answer: (C) Both (i) and (ii) can correspond to the unfolded cube in Panel I.
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This problem tests spatial visualization by folding a 2D net into a 3D cube.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

Identify opposite faces and adjacent patterns on the net to verify if the 3D representation is possible.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. In the net (Panel I), the diamond face is in the center.

2. The face with a small corner triangle is adjacent to the diamond face.

3. The face with the horizontal bar (half-shaded) is adjacent to the face with the corner triangle.

4. Cube (i) shows the diamond face, a side triangle, and a corner triangle meeting at a vertex. This configuration is possible based on the folding.

5. Cube (ii) shows the half-shaded bar face on top and a diagonal triangle on the side. When folded, the relative orientations and adjacencies match the net.


Step 4: Final Answer:

Both visual representations in Panel II are valid results of folding the net in Panel I.
Quick Tip: Use the "L-rule" for adjacency. Three faces meeting at a corner on a cube must form an L-shape on the net. If they do, they can be adjacent.


Question 8:

Consider the cube shown below with its 8 corners labelled a, b, c, d, e, f, g, and h. The figure is representative. All corners are to be colored such that any two corners that are connected by an edge must be of different colors. The minimum number of colors required to achieve this is ________


  • (A) 8
  • (B) 4
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 2
Correct Answer: (D) 2
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This is a graph theory problem involving vertex coloring of a graph (the cube's edges and corners).


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

Determine if the graph is bipartite. Bipartite graphs have a chromatic number \(\chi(G) = 2\).


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. A cube is a bipartite graph because it does not contain any odd-length cycles (triangles, pentagons, etc.). All cycles in a cube are even (length 4).

2. Let's assign colors:

- Assign color 1 to vertex 'a'.

- Vertices 'b', 'c', 'e' (connected to 'a') must be color 2.

- Vertices 'd', 'f', 'h' (connected to 'b', 'c', 'e' but not 'a') can be color 1.

- Vertex 'g' (connected to 'd', 'f', 'h') must be color 2.

3. We have colored all 8 vertices using only 2 colors such that no two adjacent vertices share the same color.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The minimum number of colors is 2.
Quick Tip: For any 3D shape, if you can divide the vertices into two groups where no vertices within a group are connected to each other, you only need 2 colors.


Question 9:

Four hills H1, H2, H3, and H4 are present in an area. The following observations are made about them:

i. Neither H2 nor H3 is the easternmost hill.

ii. Neither H2 nor H3 is the westernmost hill.

iii. Neither the easternmost hill nor the westernmost hill is the southernmost hill.

iv. Two hills are located to the west of H2.

v. The southernmost hill has at least two hills to its east.

The southernmost hill is ________.

  • (A) H1
  • (B) H2
  • (C) H3
  • (D) H4
Correct Answer: (C) H3
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This is a logical reasoning problem involving spatial constraints and ranking.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

Use a coordinate-like logic to map the hills in East-West order and North-South order.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. East-West Analysis:

- H2 and H3 are not E or W most (i, ii). So \(\{H1, H4\}\) must be \(\{Westernmost, Easternmost\}\).

- "Two hills are west of H2" (iv). This means H2 is in the 3rd position from the west.

- Order (West to East): [W-most] -- [H3] -- [H2] -- [E-most].

- Since H3 is the only one left, it must be the 2nd hill from the west.

2. Southernmost Analysis:

- Southernmost hill is not W-most or E-most (iii). So it's H2 or H3.

- "Southernmost hill has at least two hills to its east" (v).

- H2 has only 1 hill to its east (the E-most one).

- H3 has 2 hills to its east (H2 and the E-most one).

3. Therefore, H3 satisfies the condition of being the southernmost hill.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The southernmost hill is H3.
Quick Tip: Always draw a quick relative position line. Marking positions 1, 2, 3, 4 for West to East makes the "at least two hills east" constraint very easy to visualize.


Question 10:

As shown in the figure, circle \(C_1\) with center \(O_1\) and radius \(r_1\) touches the square \(VWXY\) at points \(P\) and \(Q\) while circle \(C_2\) with center \(O_2\) and radius \(r_2\) touches the square \(VWXY\) at points \(R\) and \(S\). The two circles touch each other at \(T\). Given \(r_1 = 1\) cm and \(\overline{VY} = \overline{VW} = 4\) cm, \(r_2 = \_\_\_\_\_\) cm.

  • (A) \(4 - 3\sqrt{2}\)
  • (B) \(1 + 2\sqrt{2}\)
  • (C) \(7 - 4\sqrt{2}\)
  • (D) \(5 + 3\sqrt{2}\)
Correct Answer: (C) \(7 - 4\sqrt{2}\)
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This problem involves circles tangent to the sides of a square and tangent to each other externally.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

Use the distance formula between centers \((x_1, y_1)\) and \((x_2, y_2)\) which is equal to \(r_1 + r_2\).


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. Let the bottom-left corner \(W\) be at \((0,0)\). The side of the square is \(L=4\).

2. \(C_1\) (radius \(r_1=1\)) touches bottom and left walls. Its center \(O_1\) is \((1, 1)\).

3. \(C_2\) (radius \(r_2\)) touches top and right walls. Its center \(O_2\) is \((4-r_2, 4-r_2)\).

4. Since they touch externally, the distance \(d(O_1, O_2) = r_1 + r_2 = 1 + r_2\).

5. Calculate distance:
\[ (1 + r_2)^2 = ((4-r_2) - 1)^2 + ((4-r_2) - 1)^2 \]
\[ (1 + r_2)^2 = 2(3 - r_2)^2 \]

6. Take square root:
\[ 1 + r_2 = \sqrt{2}(3 - r_2) \implies 1 + r_2 = 3\sqrt{2} - r_2\sqrt{2} \]
\[ r_2(1 + \sqrt{2}) = 3\sqrt{2} - 1 \]

7. Rationalize:
\[ r_2 = \frac{3\sqrt{2} - 1}{\sqrt{2} + 1} \times \frac{\sqrt{2} - 1}{\sqrt{2} - 1} = \frac{6 - 3\sqrt{2} - \sqrt{2} + 1}{2-1} = 7 - 4\sqrt{2} \]


Step 4: Final Answer:

The radius \(r_2\) is \(7 - 4\sqrt{2}\) cm.
Quick Tip: In competitive exams, if you see \(O_1 = (r, r)\) and \(O_2 = (L-r_2, L-r_2)\), the centers always lie on the main diagonal of the square.


Question 11:

Which one of the following options influences the pixel size of an image obtained from a whiskbroom optical remote sensing sensor?

  • (A) Sampling interval of the sensor (\(\Delta T\))
  • (B) Ground Projected Instantaneous Field of View (GIFOV)
  • (C) Ground Projected Field of View (GFOV)
  • (D) Both \(\Delta T\) and GIFOV
Correct Answer: (D) Both \(\Delta T\) and GIFOV
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

In whiskbroom scanning, the pixel is formed by scanning a single detector across a swath.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

The pixel dimensions depend on the geometry of the detector (spatial resolution) and the timing of data sampling.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. GIFOV: This represents the area on the ground "seen" by the detector at a single instant. It defines the base spatial resolution.

2. Sampling Interval (\(\Delta T\)): The sensor samples the continuous signal at discrete intervals. If the scan rate and sampling interval are not matched to the GIFOV, the pixels can overlap or have gaps.

3. Therefore, both the physical aperture (GIFOV) and the digital processing timing (\(\Delta T\)) determine the final effective pixel size in the recorded image.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The pixel size is influenced by both \(\Delta T\) and GIFOV.
Quick Tip: Remember: GIFOV is the spatial resolution limit, while \(\Delta T\) determines how frequently we record that signal. Both define the digital pixel.


Question 12:

In the following options, the spectral bands of a remote sensing image are mapped to the colours of the display system. Which one of the following combinations indicates a standard False Colour Composite (FCC)?

  • (A) Green to Blue; Red to Green; Near Infrared to Red
  • (B) Near Infrared to Green; Red to Blue; Green to Red
  • (C) Blue to Green; Green to Red; Red to Blue
  • (D) Green to Red; Red to Green; Near Infrared to Blue
Correct Answer: (A) Green to Blue; Red to Green; Near Infrared to Red
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

A False Colour Composite (FCC) displays spectral bands using non-natural colors to highlight specific features like vegetation.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

The "standard" FCC (specifically for sensors like Landsat TM/ETM+ or IRS) uses the NIR, Red, and Green bands.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. To create a standard FCC where vegetation appears red:

- The Near Infrared (NIR) band is assigned to the Red color gun.

- The Red band is assigned to the Green color gun.

- The Green band is assigned to the Blue color gun.

2. This arrangement (NIR \(\to\) R, Red \(\to\) G, Green \(\to\) B) makes vegetation (high NIR reflectance) look bright red.


Step 4: Final Answer:

Option (A) accurately describes the standard band-to-gun mapping for FCC.
Quick Tip: Always remember: Vegetation is high in NIR. If the FCC shows red vegetation, NIR must be mapped to the Red gun.


Question 13:

Which one of the following spectral ranges is the most suitable for distinguishing snow from cloud?

  • (A) \(1.55 \mu m – 1.75 \mu m\)
  • (B) \(0.45 \mu m – 0.52 \mu m\)
  • (C) \(0.52 \mu m – 0.60 \mu m\)
  • (D) \(0.76 \mu m – 0.85 \mu m\)
Correct Answer: (A) \(1.55 \mu m – 1.75 \mu m\)
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Both snow and clouds appear very bright (high albedo) in the visible spectrum, making them hard to distinguish.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

Use the Short-Wave Infrared (SWIR) properties where ice/snow absorbs radiation.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. In the visible spectrum (\(0.4 – 0.7 \mu m\)), both are white/bright.

2. In the SWIR region (\(1.55 – 1.75 \mu m\)), snow/ice has very low reflectance (it appears dark), while water-droplet clouds remain relatively reflective (bright).

3. This significant difference in the SWIR range allows for easy automated classification of snow vs cloud.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The \(1.55 – 1.75 \mu m\) (SWIR) range is the best for this distinction.
Quick Tip: Landsat Band 5 (\(1.55-1.75 \mu m\)) is famous for the "snow-cloud" separation. Remember: SWIR = snow is black, cloud is white.


Question 14:

The length of a highway was measured in 10 equal sections. If the precision of the individual section measurements is \(\sigma\), then what is the precision of the measured length of the highway?

  • (A) \(\sigma\sqrt{10}\)
  • (B) \(\sigma/\sqrt{10}\)
  • (C) \(10\sigma\)
  • (D) \(\sigma/10\)
Correct Answer: (A) \(\sigma\sqrt{10}\)
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This problem deals with the propagation of random errors (precision) in independent measurements.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

For a sum \(L = l_1 + l_2 + ... + l_n\), the total error \(\sigma_L\) is given by:
\[ \sigma_L = \sqrt{\sigma_1^2 + \sigma_2^2 + ... + \sigma_n^2} \]


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. Let the highway be divided into 10 sections (\(n=10\)).

2. The length of each section has a precision (standard deviation) of \(\sigma\).

3. Total Length \(L = \sum_{i=1}^{10} l_i\).

4. Since measurements are independent, errors add in quadrature:
\[ \sigma_{Total} = \sqrt{\sigma^2 + \sigma^2 + ... (10 times)} \]
\[ \sigma_{Total} = \sqrt{10\sigma^2} = \sigma\sqrt{10} \]


Step 4: Final Answer:

The precision of the measured length is \(\sigma\sqrt{10}\).
Quick Tip: Remember the Law of Propagation of Errors: Random errors increase with the square root of the number of observations (\(\sqrt{n}\)), not linearly.


Question 15:

In GNSS positioning, the dilution of precision is a good indicator of _________.

  • (A) Satellite geometry
  • (B) Clock error
  • (C) Number of available satellites
  • (D) Multipath error
Correct Answer: (A) Satellite geometry
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

DOP (Dilution of Precision) is a dimensionless quantity used in GNSS to describe positional accuracy.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

DOP relates the range error (\(\sigma_{UERE}\)) to the positional error (\(\sigma_P\)): \(\sigma_P = DOP \times \sigma_{UERE}\).


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. DOP is purely a function of the relative geometry between the user and the satellites.

2. If satellites are widely spread across the sky, the DOP is low (good geometry).

3. If satellites are bunched together, the DOP is high (poor geometry).

4. It does not directly measure individual errors like clock or multipath, but rather how much those errors are "amplified" by poor geometry.


Step 4: Final Answer:

DOP is an indicator of satellite geometry.
Quick Tip: GDOP = Geometric, PDOP = Positional, HDOP = Horizontal. All rely on the volume of the pyramid formed by the satellites and the receiver. High volume = Low DOP.


Question 16:

The carrier phase observation model in GNSS is given as
\(\phi_A^i = f \delta^i - \frac{\rho_A^i}{\lambda} - f \delta_A + N_A^i - f \delta_{iono} + f \delta_{tropo} + \epsilon\)

where \(\phi_A^i\) is the observed carrier phase in cycles, \(f\) is the frequency of the carrier in hertz, and \(\lambda\) is the wavelength of the carrier in meters.

What is the unit of the ionospheric (\(\delta_{iono}\)) and tropospheric (\(\delta_{tropo}\)) delay terms in the given equation?

  • (A) Second
  • (B) Meter
  • (C) Cycle
  • (D) Cycles/second
Correct Answer: (A) Second
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks for the units of delay terms in a carrier phase equation using dimensional analysis.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

Analyze the units of each term in the sum. Every term added to \(\phi\) (which is in cycles) must also have the unit "cycles."


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. The left side \(\phi_A^i\) is in cycles.

2. The term \(f \delta_{iono}\) must have units of cycles.

3. Frequency \(f\) is given in Hertz (\(Hz\)), which is \(1/second\) or \(cycles/second\).

4. Therefore, \([f] \times [\delta_{iono}] = [cycles]\).

5. \([cycles/second] \times [\delta_{iono}] = [cycles]\).

6. This implies the unit of \([\delta_{iono}]\) must be seconds. The same logic applies to \(\delta_{tropo}\).


Step 4: Final Answer:

The delay terms \(\delta_{iono}\) and \(\delta_{tropo}\) are in seconds.
Quick Tip: In GNSS equations, "delay" is often expressed in meters (\(d = c \cdot \delta t\)) or seconds. If it's multiplied by frequency (\(f\)), it's being converted from time to phase cycles.


Question 17:

In GNSS positioning, the cycle slips are the most detrimental for estimating _______.

  • (A) Integer ambiguity
  • (B) Receiver clock error
  • (C) Multipath error
  • (D) Atmospheric delay
Correct Answer: (A) Integer ambiguity
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Carrier phase measurements are highly precise but contain an unknown number of full wavelengths called integer ambiguity (\(N\)).


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

Carrier Phase = \(\phi + N \lambda\). A cycle slip is a sudden jump in \(\phi\) due to signal loss.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. GNSS receivers track the continuous change in phase. If the signal is blocked (e.g., by a tree or bridge), the receiver "loses count" of the cycles.

2. When the signal is reacquired, the integer ambiguity (\(N\)) changes abruptly. This is a cycle slip.

3. To achieve centimeter-level accuracy, \(N\) must be kept constant and solved. A slip forces the receiver to restart the ambiguity estimation process, which is detrimental to precision.


Step 4: Final Answer:

Cycle slips affect the estimation of Integer Ambiguity.
Quick Tip: Think of integer ambiguity as a odometer. If the car's engine stops and restarts, the odometer stays the same. But if the whole system resets, you lose your distance count. Cycle slips are that reset.


Question 18:

Which one of the coordinate pairs represents the satellite orbit in the skyplot of the GNSS constellations?

  • (A) Elevation, Azimuth
  • (B) Right ascension, Declination
  • (C) Altitude, Declination
  • (D) Zenith angle, Azimuth
Correct Answer: (A) Elevation, Azimuth
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

A skyplot is a 2D circular chart used to visualize the positions of satellites as seen by a local observer on Earth.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

Map the 3D local celestial coordinates to a polar plot.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. The position of a satellite relative to an observer is defined by two angles:

- Azimuth: The horizontal angle measured clockwise from North (\(0^{\circ}\) to \(360^{\circ}\)). This is the "theta" in polar coordinates.

- Elevation: The vertical angle from the horizon up to the satellite (\(0^{\circ}\) to \(90^{\circ}\)). This is represented by the distance from the outer edge to the center of the plot.

2. In a standard skyplot, the center is the Zenith (Elevation \(90^{\circ}\)), and the edge is the Horizon (Elevation \(0^{\circ}\)).


Step 4: Final Answer:

Skyplots use Elevation and Azimuth.
Quick Tip: Don't confuse local coordinates (Elevation/Azimuth) with global celestial coordinates (Right Ascension/Declination). Skyplots are for local observers.


Question 19:

Select the CORRECT option that shows the match between Geometry and Error Type in vector data digitization.

  • (A) P-1; Q-2; R-2; S-3
  • (B) P-2; Q-2; R-1; S-3
  • (C) P-2; Q-1; R-2; S-3
  • (D) P-1; Q-3; R-2; S-2
Correct Answer: (A) P-1; Q-2; R-2; S-3
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Digitization errors occur when converting paper maps or images into vector data (GIS).


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

Match the geometric description to the technical GIS terminology.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. (P) Tiny graphic polygons: These are often produced by overlapping boundaries that don't quite align. These are called Sliver polygons (1).

2. (Q) Open polygons: Polygons that don't close have a line ending in space. This is a Dangle (2).

3. (R) Overshoot/undershoot: Lines that go too far or stop short of an intersection. These also result in Dangles (2).

4. (S) Polygons with inadmissible loops: These are self-intersecting or topologically impossible shapes, colloquially called Weird polygons (3).


Step 4: Final Answer:

The matching is P-1, Q-2, R-2, S-3.
Quick Tip: "Dangles" are the most common error. Remember: any line that doesn't connect to another node is a dangle, whether it's part of an open polygon or an overshoot.


Question 20:

Buffering operation on a point or a line results in a ________.

  • (A) Polygon
  • (B) Point
  • (C) Line
  • (D) Polyline
Correct Answer: (A) Polygon
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Buffering is a proximity analysis tool in GIS that creates a zone around a feature.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

Identify the dimension of the resulting output. A buffer is an \textit{area defined by a specific distance.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. A buffer around a Point is a circle (an area).

2. A buffer around a Line is an elongated shape with rounded ends (an area).

3. In vector data models, any feature that represents an \textit{area is stored as a Polygon.

4. Therefore, regardless of whether the input is 0D (point) or 1D (line), the output buffer is 2D (polygon).


Step 4: Final Answer:

The result of a buffering operation is always a Polygon.
Quick Tip: Buffer = Proximity zone. Zones are always areas. Areas in GIS are always Polygons.


Question 21:

Which is/are the CORRECT option(s) that indicate(s) a multispectral sensor?

  • (A) A sensor with 10 non-contiguous spectral bands having a bandwidth of about 0.04 µm
  • (B) A sensor with 256 contiguous spectral bands with each having a bandwidth of 5 nm
  • (C) A sensor with a single spectral band having a bandwidth of 0.4 µm
  • (D) A sensor with 1000 contiguous spectral bands with each having a bandwidth of 1 nm
Correct Answer: (A) A sensor with 10 non-contiguous spectral bands having a bandwidth of about 0.04 µm
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Remote sensing sensors are classified based on the number and continuity of their spectral bands into multispectral, hyperspectral, and panchromatic.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

1. Multispectral (MS) sensors typically have a few (3 to 20) wide, non-contiguous bands.

2. Hyperspectral (HS) sensors have many (hundreds) narrow, contiguous bands.

3. Panchromatic sensors have a single very broad band.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

- Option (A): 10 bands that are non-contiguous fits the definition of a multispectral sensor (e.g., Landsat or Sentinel-2).

- Option (B) and (D): Hundreds or thousands of contiguous narrow bands define hyperspectral sensors.

- Option (C): A single broad band describes a panchromatic sensor.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The correct option is (A).
Quick Tip: Remember: "Multi" = few/wide/separate; "Hyper" = many/narrow/continuous. Non-contiguous bands are the hallmark of multispectral systems.


Question 22:

Which of the following is/are topological relationship element(s) in GIS?

  • (A) Adjacency
  • (B) Connectivity
  • (C) Containment
  • (D) Intersection
Correct Answer: (A) Adjacency, (B) Connectivity, (C) Containment
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Topology in GIS defines the spatial relationships between vector features (points, lines, polygons) that do not change when the map is distorted.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

Identify the fundamental properties that define how spatial features are related to one another regardless of coordinates.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. Adjacency (Contiguity): Describes which polygons share a common boundary.

2. Connectivity: Describes how line features are connected at nodes.

3. Containment (Enclosure): Describes which features are located inside the boundary of another feature.

4. Intersection is a geometric operation or a spatial relationship, but it is often considered a derived result rather than a fundamental topological primitive in standard GIS data models like ArcInfo coverages. However, modern topology rules often include it. In classic text, A, B, and C are the primary elements.


Step 4: Final Answer:

(A), (B), and (C) are the core elements.
Quick Tip: Topological elements answer: "Who is next to me?" (Adjacency), "What is inside me?" (Containment), and "Where do these paths cross?" (Connectivity).


Question 23:

Which of the following is/are preserved in the Mercator projection?

  • (A) Shape
  • (B) True direction
  • (C) Equal area
  • (D) Shape only along the standard parallel
Correct Answer: (A) Shape, (B) True direction
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The Mercator projection is a cylindrical map projection that is conformal, meaning it preserves angles.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

A conformal projection preserves the shape of small areas and maintains the correct angular relationships.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. Shape: Because it is conformal, the shapes of small features are preserved locally.

2. True Direction: A straight line drawn on a Mercator projection represents a line of constant compass bearing (Rhumb line), thus preserving direction for navigation.

3. Equal Area: Mercator significantly distorts area, especially near the poles (e.g., Greenland appears larger than Africa), so it is NOT an equal-area projection.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The preserved properties are Shape (locally) and True direction.
Quick Tip: Conformal = Shape preservation. Mercator is the only projection where a straight line is a rhumb line, making it indispensable for marine navigation.


Question 24:

Which of the following options is/are CORRECT in the context of line-area spatial relationship?

  • (A) Line is contained in area
  • (B) Line crosses area
  • (C) Line is parallel to area
  • (D) Line is nearest to area
Correct Answer: (A) Line is contained in area, (B) Line crosses area, (D) Line is nearest to area
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Spatial relationships describe how two geometric objects interact in space based on topological or metric properties.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

Evaluate the possible configurations of a 1D line and a 2D area.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. Contained in: A line can lie entirely within the boundary of an area.

2. Crosses: A line can enter and exit an area, intersecting its interior.

3. Parallel to: Parallelism is usually defined between two lines or two planes. Between a line and an area in 2D space, it is not a standard topological relationship.

4. Nearest to: This is a proximity relationship that exists if the line is disjoint from the area.


Step 4: Final Answer:

Options (A), (B), and (D) represent valid spatial relationships.
Quick Tip: Topological relationships focus on Touch, Cross, Overlap, and Containment. Metric relationships focus on Distance (Nearest/Furthest).


Question 25:

In the triangulation network shown in the figure, \(b\) and \(g\) are the observed lengths of the baselines, while 1 to 18 are the observed interior angles. The number of redundant observations is __________ (Answer in integer).

Correct Answer: 7
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Redundancy in a survey network is the number of observations in excess of the minimum required to define the geometry and scale of the network.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
\[ Redundant Observations (R) = Total Observations (N) - Necessary Observations (L) \]

Necessary observations for a network of \(n\) points to fix their relative coordinates is \(2n - 3\). If scale is needed, \(+1\) baseline is required.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. Total Observations (N): 18 angles + 2 baselines (\(b, g\)) = 20.

2. Points in network: Counting nodes in the figure, there are 8 nodes.

3. Necessary Observations (L): To fix the coordinates of 8 points:

- 2 coordinates for the first point (fixed as origin).

- 1 coordinate for the second point (fixed orientation).

- 2 coordinates each for the remaining 6 points (\(2 \times 6 = 12\)).

- Total constraints needed = 15. However, since we only have internal angles and baselines (relative survey), we need \(2n - 3 = 13\) observations to fix shape and one baseline to fix scale. Total \(L = 13\).

4. Redundancy: \(R = 20 - 13 = 7\).

(Alternatively: 6 angle conditions based on geometry + 1 side condition for the second baseline = 7).


Step 4: Final Answer:

The number of redundant observations is 7.
Quick Tip: In triangulation, every triangle beyond the first one adds angle redundancy. An extra baseline always adds exactly 1 to the redundancy count (the side condition).


Question 26:

Consider a continuous random variable \(X\) which follows a normal distribution. A sample of size \(n = 25\) is drawn from the distribution of \(X\). Sample mean is 5. Sample standard deviation is 1.5. The probability of \(P[X = 5]\) is _____ (Rounded off to two decimal places).

Correct Answer: 0.00
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question involves calculating the probability of a continuous random variable taking an exact discrete value.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

For any continuous random variable \(X\):
\[ P[X = c] = \int_c^c f(x) dx = 0 \]


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. Normal distribution is a continuous probability distribution.

2. The area under the probability density function (PDF) curve represents probability.

3. The area under a curve at a single point (a line with zero width) is always zero.

4. While the \textit{density at \(X=5\) might be non-zero, the \textit{probability of \(X\) being exactly 5.000... is mathematically zero.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The probability is 0.00.
Quick Tip: Never get distracted by mean or standard deviation values in continuous distribution questions asking for \(P[X=k]\). For continuous variables, probability exists only over intervals, never at points.


Question 27:

Consider a random experiment of rolling a fair die. The probability of getting an odd number or a number less than 4 is ______ (Rounded off to two decimal places).

Correct Answer: 0.67
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This is a basic probability problem involving the union of two events.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
\[ P(A \cup B) = P(A) + P(B) - P(A \cap B) \]


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. Sample space \(S = \{1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6\}\). Total outcomes \(n(S) = 6\).

2. Event \(A\) (Odd numbers): \(\{1, 3, 5\}\). \(P(A) = 3/6\).

3. Event \(B\) (Less than 4): \(\{1, 2, 3\}\). \(P(B) = 3/6\).

4. Intersection \((A \cap B)\) (Odd AND less than 4): \(\{1, 3\}\). \(P(A \cap B) = 2/6\).

5. Using the formula:
\[ P(A \cup B) = \frac{3}{6} + \frac{3}{6} - \frac{2}{6} = \frac{4}{6} = \frac{2}{3} \approx 0.666... \]


Step 4: Final Answer:

Rounding off to two decimal places, the probability is 0.67.
Quick Tip: Alternatively, just list the successful outcomes: \(\{1, 2, 3, 5\}\). There are 4 outcomes out of 6. \(4/6 = 0.67\).


Question 28:

Using the Modified Rayleigh Criteria, for an incidence angle of 20°, select the Root Mean Square (RMS) height (in mm) that appears smooth to an L-band microwave sensor (23.5 cm wavelength) and rough to an X-band microwave sensor (3 cm wavelength).

  • (A) 8
  • (B) 11
  • (C) 1
  • (D) 3
Correct Answer: (A) 8
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The Rayleigh criterion defines whether a surface is "smooth" or "rough" based on surface height variations relative to the wavelength and incidence angle.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

Modified Rayleigh Criteria for smoothness: \(h < \frac{\lambda}{32 \cos \theta}\).

Standard Rayleigh Criteria for smoothness: \(h < \frac{\lambda}{8 \cos \theta}\).


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

Given: \(\theta = 20^\circ\), \(\lambda_L = 235\) mm, \(\lambda_X = 30\) mm.

1. Smooth for L-band:

Using \(h < \frac{\lambda}{8 \cos \theta}\): \(h < \frac{235}{8 \times \cos 20^\circ} \approx \frac{235}{8 \times 0.94} \approx 31.2\) mm.

2. Rough for X-band:

Using \(h > \frac{\lambda}{8 \cos \theta}\): \(h > \frac{30}{8 \times 0.94} \approx 4.0\) mm.

3. We need \(h\) such that \(4.0 < h < 31.2\). Options are 8, 11, 1, 3. Both 8 and 11 satisfy this range.

4. Using more stringent "Modified" criteria often used in SAR literature (\(h < \lambda / 25 \cos \theta\) for smooth):
\(h_{L, smooth} < \frac{235}{25 \times 0.94} \approx 10\) mm.
\(h_{X, smooth} < \frac{30}{25 \times 0.94} \approx 1.2\) mm.

The value \(h=8\) mm is \(< 10\) mm (smooth for L) and \(> 1.2\) mm (rough for X).


Step 4: Final Answer:

The value 8 mm fits the conditions best.
Quick Tip: Microwave sensors "see" the world differently based on wavelength. Longer wavelengths (L-band) penetrate more and see surfaces as smoother than shorter wavelengths (X-band).


Question 29:

A random variable \(X\) has the sample space \{0,1\. The probability \(P(X = 0) = 1/4\) and \(P(X = 1) = 3/4\).

What is the variance of the random variable?

Hint: \(Mean (\mu) = \sum_{i=1}^{n} x_i p(x_i)\); \(Variance (\sigma^2) = \sum_{i=1}^{n} (x_i - \mu)^2 p(x_i)\)

  • (A) 3/16
  • (B) 3/4
  • (C) 9/16
  • (D) 6/16
Correct Answer: (A) 3/16
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Variance measures the spread of a random variable around its expected value.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
\[ E[X] = \mu = \sum x_i p_i \]
\[ Var(X) = E[X^2] - (E[X])^2 \]


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. Calculate the Mean (\(\mu\)):
\[ \mu = (0 \times \frac{1}{4}) + (1 \times \frac{3}{4}) = \frac{3}{4} \]

2. Calculate \(E[X^2]\):
\[ E[X^2] = (0^2 \times \frac{1}{4}) + (1^2 \times \frac{3}{4}) = \frac{3}{4} \]

3. Calculate Variance:
\[ \sigma^2 = E[X^2] - \mu^2 = \frac{3}{4} - (\frac{3}{4})^2 \]
\[ \sigma^2 = \frac{3}{4} - \frac{9}{16} = \frac{12 - 9}{16} = \frac{3}{16} \]


Step 4: Final Answer:

The variance is 3/16.
Quick Tip: This is a Bernoulli distribution with \(p = 3/4\). For a Bernoulli variable, Variance is always \(p(1-p)\). Here, \(3/4 \times 1/4 = 3/16\).


Question 30:

Select the CORRECT option that shows the match between spectral bands and the factors affecting the spectral signature of vegetation at the leaf level.

  • (A) (P)-(iv), (Q)-(iii), (R)-(ii) and (S)-(i)
  • (B) (P)-(iii), (Q)-(iv), (R)-(ii) and (S)-(i)
  • (C) (P)-(iv), (Q)-(iii), (R)-(i) and (S)-(ii)
  • (D) (P)-(iii), (Q)-(iv), (R)-(i) and (S)-(ii)
Correct Answer: (A) (P)-(iv), (Q)-(iii), (R)-(ii) and (S)-(i)
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Vegetation interacts with electromagnetic radiation differently across spectral regions due to biological components.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

Match spectral reflectance peaks/dips to biological drivers (pigments, structure, moisture).


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. Green (P): Leaves reflect green light, giving them their color. This is due to reflectance from chlorophyll (iv).

2. Red (Q): Chlorophyll strongly absorbs red light for photosynthesis. This is absorption from chlorophyll (iii).

3. Near Infrared (R): Reflectance here is governed by the internal structure (mesophyll) of the leaf (ii).

4. Shortwave Infrared (S): Reflectance here is primarily controlled by the water content (absorption by water) (i).


Step 4: Final Answer:

The correct mapping is Option (A).
Quick Tip: Remember "C-S-W": Chlorophyll (Visible), Structure (NIR), Water (SWIR). This is the fundamental sequence for vegetation remote sensing.


Question 31:

In the variance-covariance matrix given below, which one of the following pairs of elements has the highest correlation?

  • (A) Q-S
  • (B) Q-R
  • (C) R-S
  • (D) P-R
Correct Answer: (C) R-S
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Correlation measures the linear strength between two variables, calculated from the variance-covariance matrix.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

Correlation Coefficient \(\rho_{xy} = \frac{Cov(x, y)}{\sqrt{Var(x) Var(y)}}\).


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

From the matrix (diagonal elements are variances, off-diagonal are covariances):

- \(Var(Q) = 3.73, Var(R) = 0.93, Var(S) = 2.79\).

1. Correlation Q-S: \(\rho_{QS} = \frac{3.23}{\sqrt{3.73 \times 2.79}} = \frac{3.23}{3.226} \approx 1.00\).

2. Correlation R-S: \(\rho_{RS} = \frac{1.61}{\sqrt{0.93 \times 2.79}} = \frac{1.61}{1.61} = 1.00\).

3. Correlation Q-R: \(\rho_{QR} = \frac{1.85}{\sqrt{3.73 \times 0.93}} = \frac{1.85}{1.862} \approx 0.993\).

4. \(P\) has zero variance, so its correlation is undefined (typically 0 in these contexts).

Pair R-S gives exactly 1.00 (perfect correlation).


Step 4: Final Answer:

The highest correlation is for R-S.
Quick Tip: Check for proportionality. If Cov(A,B)\(^2 \approx\) Var(A)Var(B), the correlation is high. Here \(1.61 \times 1.61 = 2.592\) and \(0.93 \times 2.79 = 2.594\). They are almost identical.


Question 32:

For three circular regions, labeled as P, Q and R, shown in the figure, select the Boolean operator, which returns the shaded area.

  • (A) NOT (P OR Q)
  • (B) NOT (P AND Q)
  • (C) NOT (P OR Q OR R)
  • (D) NOT ((P OR Q) AND R)
Correct Answer: (A) NOT (P OR Q)
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Boolean operators (AND, OR, NOT) are used to combine spatial sets in GIS overlay analysis.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

The shaded area is the part of region R that does not overlap with P or Q.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. P OR Q represents the area covered by both P and Q together.

2. NOT (P OR Q) represents everything outside the union of P and Q.

3. In the context of the circle diagram where we are selecting from the available regions, "NOT (P OR Q)" leaves only the part of R that is unique to R.

4. Note: If the universe is the set of all circles, this returns the crescent of R. If the background is included, it is background + crescent R. In standard GIS questions, it refers to the operation performed on the set \(\{P, Q, R\\).


Step 4: Final Answer:

The correct operator is NOT (P OR Q).
Quick Tip: Think of "NOT" as an "excluding" operator. To isolate a part of R away from P and Q, you must exclude (NOT) the union of P and Q.


Question 33:

In the context of GIS, select the CORRECT option that shows the match between attribute and data scale.

  • (A) (P)-(2); (Q)-(1); (R)-(4); (S)-(3)
  • (B) (P)-(2); (Q)-(1); (R)-(3); (S)-(4)
  • (C) (P)-(1); (Q)-(2); (R)-(4); (S)-(3)
  • (D) (P)-(1); (Q)-(3); (R)-(2); (S)-(4)
Correct Answer: (A) (P)-(2); (Q)-(1); (R)-(4); (S)-(3)
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Attributes in GIS are classified into four measurement levels: Nominal, Ordinal, Interval, and Ratio (NOIR).


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

1. Nominal: Qualitative categories (names).

2. Ordinal: Ranked categories.

3. Interval: Quantitative, no absolute zero (e.g., Temperature in °C).

4. Ratio: Quantitative, has absolute zero (e.g., Weight).


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. (P) 23 °C: Temperature in Celsius has a relative zero (0°C is not "no heat"). It is Interval (2).

2. (Q) Woodland: This is a land cover type name. It is Nominal (1).

3. (R) Kilogram: Mass has an absolute zero (0 kg is "no mass"). It is Ratio (4).

4. (S) Small: This implies a relative rank (Small < Medium < Large). It is Ordinal (3).


Step 4: Final Answer:

The correct match is P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3. Option (A).
Quick Tip: The "Zero Test": Can you say something is "twice as much" as another? (20 kg is twice 10 kg \(\to\) Ratio). You can't say 20°C is twice as hot as 10°C in scientific terms \(\to\) Interval.


Question 34:

Consider 62 pair of observations (\(x_i, y_i\)), \(i = 1, …., 62\), obtained from the distribution of (\(X, Y\)). The Pearson correlation coefficient (\(R\)) of these observations is 0.27.

Which one of the following statements is CORRECT for a significance level \(\alpha = 0.05\) and \(t_{0.025,60} = 2.0\)?

Hint: Test statistic \(t = \frac{R\sqrt{n-2}}{\sqrt{1-R^2}}\)

  • (A) X and Y are significantly linearly correlated
  • (B) X and Y are statistically independent
  • (C) X and Y are not significantly linearly correlated
  • (D) X and Y are physically related
Correct Answer: (A) X and Y are significantly linearly correlated
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Significance testing of correlation determines if the observed relationship in a sample is strong enough to exist in the entire population.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

Calculate the \(t\)-statistic and compare it with the critical \(t\)-value. If \(|t_{calc}| > t_{crit}\), the correlation is significant.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

Given: \(n = 62, R = 0.27, t_{crit} = 2.0\).

1. Calculate the test statistic:
\[ t = \frac{0.27\sqrt{62-2}}{\sqrt{1-0.27^2}} = \frac{0.27\sqrt{60}}{\sqrt{1-0.0729}} \]
\[ t = \frac{0.27 \times 7.746}{\sqrt{0.9271}} \approx \frac{2.091}{0.963} \approx 2.17 \]

2. Comparison: Since \(|2.17| > 2.0\), we reject the null hypothesis (\(R=0\)).

3. Conclusion: The correlation is statistically significant.


Step 4: Final Answer:
\(X\) and \(Y\) are significantly linearly correlated.
Quick Tip: For large samples (\(n > 50\)), even a small correlation coefficient like 0.27 can be statistically significant. Don't assume a "low" \(R\) means "not significant."


Question 35:

A typical conditional function has the form: Output = CON (test, out if true, out if false)

What will be the reclassified output if the following conditional reclassification function Output = CON (Layer P < 3, Layer Q, Layer R) is applied on the three input raster layers P, Q, and R?

  • (A)
  • (B)
  • (C)
  • (D)
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Conditional raster functions perform cell-by-cell logical operations on input layers.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

Check Layer P for each cell. If value \(< 3\), pick the value from the same cell in Layer Q. Else, pick from Layer R.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

Let's check the \(3 \times 3\) grid:

- Cell(1,1): P=1. \(1 < 3\) (True). Output = Q(1,1) = x.

- Cell(1,2): P=3. \(3 < 3\) (False). Output = R(1,2) = b.

- Cell(1,3): P=1. \(1 < 3\) (True). Output = Q(1,3) = y.

- Row 1: x, b, y.

- Cell(2,1): P=0. \(0 < 3\) (True). Output = Q(2,1) = x.

- Cell(2,2): P=5. \(5 < 3\) (False). Output = R(2,2) = b.

- Cell(2,3): P=2. \(2 < 3\) (True). Output = Q(2,3) = x.

- Row 2: x, b, x.

- Cell(3,1): P=4. \(4 < 3\) (False). Output = R(3,1) = a.

- Cell(3,2): P=2. \(2 < 3\) (True). Output = Q(3,2) = x.

- Cell(3,3): P=5. \(5 < 3\) (False). Output = R(3,3) = b.

- Row 3: a, x, b.

Final grid matches Option (A).


Step 4: Final Answer:

Grid (A) is the correct reclassified output.
Quick Tip: Process the grid row by row. If you find one cell that doesn't match an option, you can immediately eliminate that option.


Question 36:

In general, trilateration is considered to be the principle of GNSS positioning. Which other surveying principle describes GNSS positioning?

  • (A) Resection
  • (B) Intersection
  • (C) Triangulateration
  • (D) Reduction
Correct Answer: (A) Resection
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Resection is a method in surveying to determine the coordinates of an unknown point by measuring its relationship to multiple known points.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

Identify the process of determining a point's location using ranges (distances) to known satellite positions.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. Trilateration uses distances from three or more points.

2. In surveying terms, if we stand at an unknown point and measure "back" to known points (satellites), the process is called Resection.

3. GNSS is specifically Space Resection because the "control points" (satellites) are in space.


Step 4: Final Answer:

Resection is the correct term.
Quick Tip: Intersection = Stand at known points and measure to an unknown point. Resection = Stand at an unknown point and measure to known points.


Question 37:

Let \(X = \cos \theta\) and \(Y = \sin \theta\), where \(\theta\) is a random variable uniformly distributed over (0, 2π). Which of the following options is/are CORRECT?

Hint: cov(X, Y) = E[(X – E(X)) (Y – E(Y))]

  • (A) X and Y are dependent and uncorrelated
  • (B) X and Y are independent and uncorrelated
  • (C) X and Y are dependent and correlated
  • (D) X and Y are independent and correlated
Correct Answer: (A) X and Y are dependent and uncorrelated
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Independence implies zero correlation, but zero correlation does not necessarily imply independence, especially for non-linear relationships.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

Check for dependency (\(X^2 + Y^2 = 1\)) and calculate Covariance.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. Dependency: Since \(X^2 + Y^2 = \cos^2\theta + \sin^2\theta = 1\), the value of \(Y\) is completely determined if \(|X|\) and the quadrant of \(\theta\) are known. They are dependent.

2. Correlation:

- \(E[X] = \frac{1}{2\pi} \int_0^{2\pi} \cos\theta d\theta = 0\)

- \(E[Y] = \frac{1}{2\pi} \int_0^{2\pi} \sin\theta d\theta = 0\)

- \(E[XY] = E[\cos\theta \sin\theta] = \frac{1}{2\pi} \int_0^{2\pi} \frac{\sin(2\theta)}{2} d\theta = 0\)

- \(Cov(X, Y) = E[XY] - E[X]E[Y] = 0 - 0 = 0\).

3. Since Cov is 0, they are uncorrelated.


Step 4: Final Answer:
\(X\) and \(Y\) are dependent but uncorrelated.
Quick Tip: Circular distributions (\(X^2+Y^2=1\)) are classic examples of variables that have zero linear correlation but are functionally dependent.


Question 38:

In the context of GNSS positioning, which of the following statements is/are INCORRECT?

  • (A) Centering and levelling are inconsequential for GNSS positioning as the GNSS antenna can receive signal from any direction
  • (B) Carrier phase measurements and code phase measurements can provide comparable positioning accuracy
  • (C) The satellite positions of the GNSS satellites are provided in terms of Kepler elements so that the orbit can be propagated in time
  • (D) An elevation mask is used in GNSS satellite data acquisition to avoid measurements from low elevation angles as they are affected by high atmospheric refraction and are susceptible to multipath effects
Correct Answer: (A), (B)
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

GNSS precision depends on high-quality measurements and rigorous observation procedures.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

Examine the physics of GNSS measurement types and site setup requirements.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. Statement A is Incorrect: Centering and levelling are critical because the coordinates of the surveyed point are derived from the Phase Center of the antenna. Incorrect leveling leads to offset errors.

2. Statement B is Incorrect: Carrier phase measurements provide millimeter to centimeter level accuracy, while code phase (pseudorange) measurements typically provide meter level accuracy. They are not comparable.

3. Statement C is Correct: Broadcast ephemeris uses Keplerian parameters to allow receivers to calculate satellite positions.

4. Statement D is Correct: Low elevation signals travel through more atmosphere (delay) and are often reflected by ground objects (multipath).


Step 4: Final Answer:

(A) and (B) are incorrect.
Quick Tip: Always remember: Carrier phase = High precision (phase cycles are short); Code phase = Lower precision (code bits are long).


Question 39:

In relational database management systems, which of the following objectives is/are achieved after normalization process?

  • (A) No redundant data in the table
  • (B) A distributed database
  • (C) Attribute data in separate tables are maintained and updated separately
  • (D) Aggregation of the table
Correct Answer: (A), (C)
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Database normalization is the process of organizing data to minimize redundancy and dependency.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

Identify the benefits of standard normalization forms (1NF, 2NF, 3NF).


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. Redundancy (A): Normalization reduces duplication of data, saving storage and preventing inconsistencies.

2. Maintenance (C): By breaking tables into smaller, logical entities, updates are performed in one place without affecting unrelated data.

3. Distributed Database (B): This is a hardware/network architectural choice, not an objective of logical normalization.

4. Aggregation (D): Normalization \textit{decomposes tables; aggregation (summarizing data) is the opposite process performed during queries.


Step 4: Final Answer:

(A) and (C) are the primary objectives.
Quick Tip: Normalization = "Split and Clean." Its goal is to ensure each piece of information is stored only once.


Question 40:

Power of a statistical test is the probability of rejecting the null hypothesis when the alternate hypothesis is true.

Which of the following statements is/are CORRECT?

  • (A) Power is computed as 1 − β , where β is the probability of Type II error
  • (B) Power is interpreted as the probability of correctly rejecting a false null hypothesis
  • (C) Power is computed as 1 − α , where α is the probability of Type I error
  • (D) Power is interpreted as the probability of falsely rejecting a correct null hypothesis
Correct Answer: (A), (B)
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Statistical power measures the ability of a test to detect an effect when one actually exists.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

Relate Power to Type I (\(\alpha\)) and Type II (\(\beta\)) errors.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. Type II Error (\(\beta\)): Failing to reject the null hypothesis when the alternate is true (False Negative).

2. Power (\(1 - \beta\)): The probability of rejecting the null hypothesis when the alternate is true.

3. Statement (A) is correct: Power \(= 1 - \beta\).

4. Statement (B) is correct: This is the definition of power (rejecting a null that is false).

5. Statement (C) is incorrect: \(1 - \alpha\) is the confidence level.

6. Statement (D) is incorrect: That is the definition of a Type I error (\(\alpha\)).


Step 4: Final Answer:

(A) and (B) are correct.
Quick Tip: Power = Success! It means your experiment worked: the null was wrong, and you correctly said it was wrong.


Question 41:

A trapezoidal land parcel for a residential plot measures 10.335 m in the south, 13.971 m in the north, 5.047 m in the west and 6.302 m in the east directions. The north and south sides are perpendicular to the western side of the plot, making the eastern side skewed. Given the lengths of the sides are measured with a precision of 1 mm, the precision of the area of the plot calculated from these measurements is __________ m\(^2\) (Rounded off to two decimal places).

Hint: Area of a trapezium \(= (\frac{sum of parallel sides}{2}) \times height\)

Correct Answer: 0.01
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks for the propagation of error (precision) from linear measurements to the calculated area of a trapezoidal plot.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

The area \(A\) of a trapezium with parallel sides \(a, b\) and height \(h\) is \(A = \frac{a+b}{2}h\).

The precision \(\sigma_A\) is calculated using the general law of error propagation:
\[ \sigma_A = \sqrt{\left(\frac{\partial A}{\partial a}\right)^2 \sigma_a^2 + \left(\frac{\partial A}{\partial b}\right)^2 \sigma_b^2 + \left(\frac{\partial A}{\partial h}\right)^2 \sigma_h^2} \]


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. Given: \(a = 10.335\) m, \(b = 13.971\) m, \(h = 5.047\) m. Precision of each \(\sigma_a = \sigma_b = \sigma_h = 0.001\) m (1 mm).

2. Calculate partial derivatives:

- \(\frac{\partial A}{\partial a} = \frac{h}{2} = \frac{5.047}{2} = 2.5235\)

- \(\frac{\partial A}{\partial b} = \frac{h}{2} = \frac{5.047}{2} = 2.5235\)

- \(\frac{\partial A}{\partial h} = \frac{a+b}{2} = \frac{10.335 + 13.971}{2} = 12.153\)

3. Substitute into the error propagation formula:

\[ \sigma_A = \sqrt{(2.5235)^2(0.001)^2 + (2.5235)^2(0.001)^2 + (12.153)^2(0.001)^2} \]

\[ \sigma_A = 0.001 \times \sqrt{2 \times (2.5235)^2 + (12.153)^2} \]

\[ \sigma_A = 0.001 \times \sqrt{12.7358 + 147.6954} = 0.001 \times \sqrt{160.4312} \approx 0.0126 m^2 \]


Step 4: Final Answer:

Rounding off to two decimal places, the precision is 0.01 m\(^2\).
Quick Tip: The eastern side length is redundant for area calculation if the height (western side) is given. Always use the partial derivatives of the variables actually used in the formula.


Question 42:

The total irradiance on a Lambertian surface is 540 W m\(^{-2}\). The reflectance of the surface is 20%. The path radiance from the atmosphere towards the sensor is 2.5 W m\(^{-2}\) sr\(^{-1}\). The transmissivity of the atmosphere is 80%. The radiance reaching the sensor is ________ W m\(^{-2}\) sr\(^{-1}\) (Rounded off to the nearest integer).

Correct Answer: 30
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This problem deals with the basic radiative transfer model in remote sensing, where the total radiance at the sensor includes reflected target radiance attenuated by the atmosphere plus path radiance.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

Radiance at sensor \(L = \left(\frac{E \cdot \rho}{\pi}\right) \cdot \tau + L_p\)

Where \(E\) is irradiance, \(\rho\) is reflectance, \(\tau\) is transmissivity, and \(L_p\) is path radiance.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. Radiance at the surface (\(L_s\)) for a Lambertian reflector: \(L_s = \frac{\rho \cdot E}{\pi}\).

\(L_s = \frac{0.20 \times 540}{\pi} = \frac{108}{\pi} \approx 34.377\) W m\(^{-2}\) sr\(^{-1}\).

2. Radiance reaching the sensor after atmospheric attenuation and adding path radiance:

\(L = L_s \cdot \tau + L_p\)

\(L = 34.377 \times 0.80 + 2.5\)

\(L = 27.502 + 2.5 = 30.002\) W m\(^{-2}\) sr\(^{-1}\).


Step 4: Final Answer:

The radiance reaching the sensor is 30 W m\(^{-2}\) sr\(^{-1}\) when rounded to the nearest integer.
Quick Tip: For Lambertian surfaces, remember the relationship between Exitane (\(M\)) and Radiance (\(L\)) is \(M = \pi L\). If irradiance \(E\) is given, \(M = \rho E\), so \(L = \rho E / \pi\).


Question 43:

Sunlight travels from medium A (refractive index = 1.5) to medium B (refractive index = 1.033). The angle of incidence beyond which the refracted ray will be in medium A without travelling to medium B is ________ ° (Answer in decimal degrees and rounded off to two decimal places).

Correct Answer: 43.53
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The phenomenon where a ray is reflected back into the denser medium at the interface is called Total Internal Reflection (TIR), occurring at angles greater than the critical angle.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

The critical angle \(\theta_c\) is given by Snell's Law when the angle of refraction is 90°:
\[ \theta_c = \sin^{-1}\left(\frac{n_2}{n_1}\right) \]

where \(n_1 > n_2\).


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. Given \(n_1 = 1.5\) (medium A) and \(n_2 = 1.033\) (medium B).

2. Calculate the critical angle:

\[ \theta_c = \sin^{-1}\left(\frac{1.033}{1.5}\right) = \sin^{-1}(0.68866...) \]

3. \(\theta_c \approx 43.5255°\).


Step 4: Final Answer:

The angle is 43.53° rounded off to two decimal places.
Quick Tip: Total internal reflection only occurs when light travels from a denser medium (higher \(n\)) to a rarer medium (lower \(n\)). Always ensure \(n_2 < n_1\) in the formula.


Question 44:

Assuming Sun’s temperature to be 5727 °C and Earth’s temperature to be 27 °C, the ratio between the total radiant exitance of Sun and that of Earth is ________ (Rounded off to the nearest integer).

Correct Answer: 160000
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Radiant exitance of a blackbody is determined by its absolute temperature according to the Stefan-Boltzmann Law.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

Stefan-Boltzmann Law: \(M = \sigma T^4\).

Ratio \(R = \frac{M_{sun}}{M_{earth}} = \left(\frac{T_{sun}}{T_{earth}}\right)^4\).

Note: Temperatures must be in Kelvin (\(K = °C + 273.15\)).


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. Convert to Kelvin:

- \(T_{sun} = 5727 + 273 = 6000\) K.

- \(T_{earth} = 27 + 273 = 300\) K.

2. Calculate the ratio:

\[ Ratio = \left(\frac{6000}{300}\right)^4 = (20)^4 \]

\[ Ratio = 20 \times 20 \times 20 \times 20 = 160,000 \]


Step 4: Final Answer:

The ratio is 160000.
Quick Tip: The most common mistake is using Celsius instead of Kelvin. Always add 273 to the temperature in °C before doing any calculations involving power laws.


Question 45:

Satellites A and B are in circular orbits at a height of 900 km and 300 km, respectively, above the Earth’s surface. The velocity of satellite B will be ________ times the velocity of satellite A (Rounded off to three decimal places).

Assume radius of Earth to be 6378 km, acceleration due to gravity to be 9.81 m s\(^{–2}\), the product of universal gravitational constant and mass of Earth is \(3.98601 \times 10^{14}\) m\(^3\) s\(^{–2}\).

Hint: For a satellite to remain in circular orbit around the Earth, the Earth’s gravitational force must be balanced by the centrifugal force of the orbiting satellite.

Correct Answer: 1.044
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The orbital velocity of a satellite in a circular orbit depends on its distance from the center of the Earth.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

Orbital velocity \(v = \sqrt{\frac{GM}{r}}\), where \(r = R + h\).

Ratio \(\frac{v_B}{v_A} = \sqrt{\frac{R+h_A}{R+h_B}}\).


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. Given \(R = 6378\) km, \(h_A = 900\) km, \(h_B = 300\) km.

2. Orbital radii:

- \(r_A = 6378 + 900 = 7278\) km.

- \(r_B = 6378 + 300 = 6678\) km.

3. Calculate the ratio:

\[ \frac{v_B}{v_A} = \sqrt{\frac{7278}{6678}} = \sqrt{1.08984...} \approx 1.04395... \]


Step 4: Final Answer:

The factor is 1.044 rounded off to three decimal places.
Quick Tip: In satellite orbits, velocity is inversely proportional to the square root of the distance from the center of the planet. Therefore, a lower satellite (smaller \(r\)) must travel faster to maintain its orbit.


Question 46:

According to the first order ionospheric delay term, the time delay experienced by the GNSS signal is directly proportional to the Total Electron Content (TEC) in the ionosphere, and inversely proportional to the square of the frequency of the carrier wave. Based on this, the GPS L2 (1227.60 MHz) carrier is slower than the GPS L1 (1575.42 MHz) carrier by a factor of ________ for a given TEC (Rounded off to the nearest integer).

Correct Answer: 2
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The ionosphere is a dispersive medium for GNSS signals, meaning the delay is frequency-dependent.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

Delay \(\Delta t \propto \frac{1}{f^2}\).

Factor \(= \frac{\Delta t_{L2}}{\Delta t_{L1}} = \left(\frac{f_{L1}}{f_{L2}}\right)^2\).


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. Given \(f_{L1} = 1575.42\) MHz and \(f_{L2} = 1227.60\) MHz.

2. Calculate the ratio:

\[ Factor = \left(\frac{1575.42}{1227.60}\right)^2 \approx (1.2833)^2 \approx 1.6469 \]

3. Rounding to the nearest integer: 2.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The L2 carrier is slower by a factor of 2.
Quick Tip: Low-frequency signals are delayed more by the ionosphere. Since \(L2\) has a lower frequency than \(L1\), its delay factor must be greater than 1.


Question 47:

A parallax bar can be used to measure ___________ while viewing the two photos stereoscopically.

  • (A) parallax
  • (B) flying height
  • (C) scale of the photo
  • (D) focal length of the camera
Correct Answer: (A) parallax
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Stereoscopic vision allow the measurement of depth based on the relative shift of objects between two overlapping photographs.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

The parallax bar (or micrometer bar) is designed to measure the difference in absolute parallax of points in a stereopair.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. Parallax is the apparent displacement of an object as seen from two different points.

2. In photogrammetry, x-parallax is used to determine heights. The parallax bar measures small differences in distance between corresponding points on a stereopair, which directly relates to the parallax value \(p\).


Step 4: Final Answer:

A parallax bar is used to measure parallax.
Quick Tip: The measured parallax (\(p\)) is used in the parallax formula \(h = H - \frac{B \cdot f}{p}\) to calculate the elevation of points.


Question 48:

Which one of the following is the purpose of taking a backsight observation in levelling?

  • (A) To ascertain the elevation of line of sight
  • (B) To find out the collimation error of the instrument
  • (C) To find the elevation of the benchmark
  • (D) To find the elevation of the point over which the staff is held during the backsight
Correct Answer: (A) To ascertain the elevation of line of sight
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Levelling involves finding differences in elevation by using a horizontal line of sight created by a level instrument.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

Height of Instrument (HI) \(=\) Known Elevation \(+\) Backsight (BS).


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. A backsight is the first reading taken after the instrument is set up, typically on a point of known elevation (like a Benchmark).

2. The purpose of this reading is to establish the elevation of the instrument's line of sight (Height of Instrument) relative to the datum.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The purpose is to ascertain the elevation of the line of sight.
Quick Tip: Always remember the sequence: Backsight \(\to\) Height of Instrument \(\to\) Foresight \(\to\) New Elevation. You "look back" at a known point to find where the instrument is.


Question 49:

A Digital Elevation Model (DEM) with a vertical Root Mean Square Error (RMSE) of 2 m means that __________.

  • (A) the average magnitude of vertical error in the DEM is 2 m
  • (B) the DEM has a horizontal accuracy of ±2 m
  • (C) the slope values more than 2° cannot be derived from the DEM
  • (D) only low relief can be analyzed using the DEM
Correct Answer: (A) the average magnitude of vertical error in the DEM is 2 m
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

RMSE is a statistical measure of the differences between values predicted by a model and the values observed from a reference.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

RMSE \(= \sqrt{\frac{\sum (z_{obs} - z_{ref})^2}{n}}\).


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. For vertical accuracy in a DEM, RMSE characterizes the dispersion of errors about the mean.

2. While not exactly the arithmetic average, it represents the "quadratic mean" of the errors, which serves as a proxy for the typical magnitude of vertical error.


Step 4: Final Answer:

Option (A) is the standard interpretation in map accuracy reporting.
Quick Tip: In many standards, if errors follow a normal distribution, about 68% of all errors will be less than or equal to the RMSE value.


Question 50:

For a proper stereoscopic viewing, the stereopair should be oriented in such a way that the flight line of each photo lies __________.

  • (A) along a common straight line
  • (B) on two mutually perpendicular planes
  • (C) on two parallel straight lines with a horizontal gap equal to half of the size of the photo
  • (D) on two mutually perpendicular lines
Correct Answer: (A) along a common straight line
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Stereo vision requires the eyes to fuse two images that represent different viewpoints of the same scene.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

For comfortable fusion, the eye's inter-pupillary line must be parallel to the air base (flight line) of the photograph.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. To avoid eye strain and eliminate vertical parallax, the principal point and its corresponding point on the adjacent photo (transfer point) must be aligned.

2. This line, connecting the principal points of the two images, represents the flight line. Aligning these flight lines on a single common straight line ensures proper orientation under a stereoscope.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The photos must be along a common straight line.
Quick Tip: This process is often called "baselining." If you see double images or have a headache while using a stereoscope, your photos are likely not aligned along the flight line.


Question 51:

Which one of the following is NOT a geometric method of map projection?

  • (A) Polyconic
  • (B) Gnomonic
  • (C) Stereographic
  • (D) Orthographic
Correct Answer: (A) Polyconic
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Map projections are classified as geometric (perspective) if they can be projected from a light source onto a developable surface, or mathematical if they are derived purely through equations.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

Geometric projections include azimuthal projections like Gnomonic, Stereographic, and Orthographic.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. Perspective Projections: Gnomonic (source at center), Stereographic (source at opposite pole), and Orthographic (source at infinity) are all geometric.

2. Polyconic: This is a non-perspective, mathematical projection that uses many cones tangent to different parallels. It cannot be constructed by projecting onto a single cone from a single point.


Step 4: Final Answer:

Polyconic is not a geometric method.
Quick Tip: Perspective projections are a subset of geometric projections. If you can't point to where the "light source" is, it's likely a mathematical projection.


Question 52:

Which one of the following is NOT a geodetic reference frame?

  • (A) EGM96
  • (B) WGS84
  • (C) ITRF14
  • (D) NAD83
Correct Answer: (A) EGM96
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

A geodetic reference frame defines the coordinate system for locating points on Earth.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

Differentiate between ellipsoidal/coordinate reference frames and geoidal/gravity models.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. WGS84, ITRF14, NAD83: These are all spatial reference frames or datums used to define 3D coordinates (\(x, y, z\) or latitude, longitude, height).

2. EGM96: The Earth Gravitational Model 1996 is a model of the geoid. It describes the gravity field and is used for orthometric height calculations, not as a primary coordinate reference frame.


Step 4: Final Answer:

EGM96 is the correct choice.
Quick Tip: Look for the acronym: "EGM" stands for Earth Gravitational Model. Geoid models relate to gravity and physical height, not the coordinate frame itself.


Question 53:

The forebearing of four sides of a closed quadrilateral ABCDA are AB = 60°, BC = 149.87°, CD = 269.5°, DA = 20.17°.

The calculated value of interior angle D is _____° (Answer in decimal degrees and rounded off to two decimal places).

  • (A) N/A
  • (B) N/A
  • (C) N/A
  • (D) N/A
Correct Answer: 69.33
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Interior angles in a traverse are calculated from the bearings of the lines meeting at a station.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

Interior Angle at a station \(= Back Bearing of the previous line - Fore Bearing of the next line\).

Note: If the result is negative, add 360°. If it's an exterior angle, subtract from 360°.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. At station D, the previous line is CD and the next line is DA.

2. FB of CD \(= 269.5°\).

3. Back Bearing (BB) of CD \(= 269.5° - 180° = 89.5°\).

4. FB of DA \(= 20.17°\).

5. Interior angle D \(= BB of CD - FB of DA = 89.5° - 20.17° = 69.33°\).


Step 4: Final Answer:

The interior angle D is 69.33°.
Quick Tip: Always draw a quick sketch to see if the subtraction order gives you the interior or exterior angle. Sum of interior angles for a quad should be 360°.


Question 54:

The flying height of an aircraft above the base of a building is 500 m. In the nominally vertical aerial photograph, the radial distance from the principal point to the top of the building is 90 mm. The photo size is 230 mm × 230 mm. The relief displacement of the building is 6 mm.

The estimated height of the building is _______ m (Rounded off to the nearest integer).

Correct Answer: 33
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Relief displacement is the shift in the photographic position of an object due to its elevation above the datum.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

Relief displacement formula: \(d = \frac{h \cdot r}{H}\), where \(h\) is building height, \(d\) is displacement, \(r\) is radial distance to the top, and \(H\) is flying height.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. Given \(H = 500\) m, \(r = 90\) mm, and \(d = 6\) mm.

2. Rearrange the formula to solve for \(h\):

\[ h = \frac{d \cdot H}{r} \]

\[ h = \frac{6 mm \times 500 m}{90 mm} = \frac{3000}{90} = 33.33... m \]


Step 4: Final Answer:

The estimated height of the building is 33 m when rounded to the nearest integer.
Quick Tip: Relief displacement occurs radially from the principal point. If you know the displacement and the distance to the top image, you can find the height regardless of the camera's focal length.


Question 55:

For a camera with focal length 150 mm and a 30 cm × 30 cm format size, what height above ground (in meters) is necessary for a vertical photograph to cover an area of 9 km\(^2\)?

  • (A) 1500
  • (B) 150
  • (C) 15
  • (D) 15000
Correct Answer: (A) 1500
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The scale of a vertical photograph relates the photo dimensions to ground dimensions based on focal length and flying height.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

Scale \(S = \frac{f}{H} = \frac{photo side (s)}{ground side (G)}\).


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. Ground area \(A = 9\) km\(^2\). Assuming a square photo, ground side length \(G = \sqrt{9 km^2} = 3\) km \(= 3000\) m.

2. Given photo side \(s = 30\) cm \(= 0.3\) m.

3. Given focal length \(f = 150\) mm \(= 0.15\) m.

4. Set up the scale ratio:

\[ \frac{0.15}{H} = \frac{0.3}{3000} \]

\[ H = \frac{0.15 \times 3000}{0.3} = \frac{450}{0.3} = 1500 m \]


Step 4: Final Answer:

The required height is 1500 m.
Quick Tip: Always ensure all units are consistent (convert mm and cm to meters) before performing the multiplication and division in scale problems.


Question 56:

An oblique aerial photograph of a cricket stadium is taken which includes two linear practice pitches (p and q). The length of both the pitches measured on ground is 15 m. The dimension of the image is 230 mm × 230 mm, while the photo lengths of p and q are 5 mm and 15 mm, respectively.

What are the photo scales for p and q, respectively?

  • (A) 1/3000 and 1/1000
  • (B) 1/1000 and 1/3000
  • (C) 1/300 and 1/100
  • (D) 1/100 and 1/300
Correct Answer: (A) 1/3000 and 1/1000
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

In an oblique photograph, the scale varies across the image. The scale at any point is the ratio of image length to ground length for a small feature at that point.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

Scale \(= \frac{photo length}{ground length}\).


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. For pitch p:

- Photo length \(= 5\) mm \(= 0.005\) m.

- Ground length \(= 15\) m.

- Scale \(= \frac{0.005}{15} = \frac{1}{3000}\).

2. For pitch q:

- Photo length \(= 15\) mm \(= 0.015\) m.

- Ground length \(= 15\) m.

- Scale \(= \frac{0.015}{15} = \frac{1}{1000}\).


Step 4: Final Answer:

The scales are 1/3000 and 1/1000.
Quick Tip: Scale is a dimensionless ratio. \(1/3000\) means 1 unit on the photo equals 3000 units on the ground. In oblique photos, features closer to the camera appear larger (larger scale, like \(1/1000\)).


Question 57:

Which one of the following statements is CORRECT?

  • (A) The mean sea level is not the same as the geoid, but an approximation to the geoid
  • (B) At least two tide gauges are required for estimating the mean sea level
  • (C) The reference ellipsoid is always below the geoid
  • (D) A geoid is realized by taking the mean of the tide gauge measurements at a point over a long period of time (≥ 1 year)
Correct Answer: (A) The mean sea level is not the same as the geoid, but an approximation to the geoid
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Geodesy deals with surfaces representing the Earth: the physical surface, the geoid (gravity), and the ellipsoid (math).


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

Evaluate the standard definitions of MSL, Geoid, and Ellipsoid.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. Statement A: MSL deviates from the geoid due to sea surface topography (currents, salinity, temp). Thus, MSL is an approximation. Correct.

2. Statement B: One tide gauge is sufficient to establish a local MSL. Incorrect.

3. Statement C: The geoid can be above or below the ellipsoid (geoid undulation can be positive or negative). Incorrect.

4. Statement D: 1 year is too short; a standard MSL determination (Metonic cycle) takes about 18.6 years. Incorrect.


Step 4: Final Answer:

Option (A) is correct.
Quick Tip: Think of the geoid as the theoretical sea level if the oceans were still. MSL is the actual average level affected by weather and dynamics.


Question 58:

The vector [5, 3] in a right-handed planar coordinate system was transformed to a different coordinate system resulting in the vector [6.66, 12.20] using a four-parameter similarity transformation.

Select the CORRECT set of transformation parameters from the choices given below. The transformation parameters are given in the following order: scale, rotation angle, translation vector.

Hint: For a right-handed system, the rotation matrix \(R(\theta)\) in two dimensions is given as
\(R(\theta) = \begin{bmatrix} \cos \theta & -\sin \theta
\sin \theta & \cos \theta \end{bmatrix}\).

  • (A) \(2, 30°, [1, 2]\)
  • (B) \(1/2, -30°, [2, 1]\)
  • (C) \(\sqrt{2}, -30°, [1, 2]\)
  • (D) \(1/\sqrt{2}, 30°, [2, 1]\)
Correct Answer: (A) \(2, 30°, [1, 2]\)
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

A similarity transformation preserves shape but changes scale, rotation, and translation.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

The 2D similarity transformation is:
\[ \begin{bmatrix} x'
y' \end{bmatrix} = s \begin{bmatrix} \cos \theta & -\sin \theta
\sin \theta & \cos \theta \end{bmatrix} \begin{bmatrix} x
y \end{bmatrix} + \begin{bmatrix} t_x
t_y \end{bmatrix} \]


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

Test Option (A): \(s=2, \theta=30°, t=[1,2]\).

1. Rotation part:

\[ 2 \begin{bmatrix} \cos 30° & -\sin 30°
\sin 30° & \cos 30° \end{bmatrix} \begin{bmatrix} 5
3 \end{bmatrix} = 2 \begin{bmatrix} 0.866 & -0.5
0.5 & 0.866 \end{bmatrix} \begin{bmatrix} 5
3 \end{bmatrix} \]

\[ = 2 \begin{bmatrix} 4.33 - 1.5
2.5 + 2.598 \end{bmatrix} = 2 \begin{bmatrix} 2.83
5.098 \end{bmatrix} = \begin{bmatrix} 5.66
10.196 \end{bmatrix} \]

2. Add translation \([1, 2]\):

\[ \begin{bmatrix} 5.66 + 1
10.196 + 2 \end{bmatrix} = \begin{bmatrix} 6.66
12.196 \approx 12.20 \end{bmatrix} \]

Matches the given vector.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The parameters are \(2, 30°, [1, 2]\).
Quick Tip: To save time, check the first coordinate (\(x'\)) only. If multiple options match, check the second. Use \(\cos 30 \approx 0.866\) and \(\sin 30 = 0.5\).


Question 59:

Identify the category of the map scales given below.

P) 1:1000

Q) 1:5000

R) 1:50000

S) 1:100000

  • (A) [P, Q] – large scale; [R, S] – small scale
  • (B) [P, Q] – small scale; [R, S] – large scale
  • (C) [P] – large scale; [Q, R, S] – small scale
  • (D) [P] – small scale; [Q, R, S] – large scale
Correct Answer: (A) [P, Q] – large scale; [R, S] – small scale
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Map scale is the ratio of distance on a map to distance on the ground. A "large scale" map shows a small area with high detail.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

The numerical value of the fraction determines the size. \(1/1000 > 1/100000\). Larger fraction = Large scale.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. Large Scale: Typically ratios larger than 1:10,000 (e.g., 1:1000, 1:5000).

2. Small Scale: Typically ratios smaller than 1:50,000 (e.g., 1:50,000, 1:100,000, 1:1,000,000).


Step 4: Final Answer:

P and Q are large scale; R and S are small scale.
Quick Tip: To avoid confusion, look at the denominator. \textbf{Small Denominator = Large Scale}. \textbf{Large Denominator = Small Scale}.


Question 60:

Which of the following errors is/are eliminated by taking both left and right face observations in a theodolite?

  • (A) Error due to line of collimation not being perpendicular to the horizontal axis
  • (B) Error due to the horizontal axis not being perpendicular to the vertical axis
  • (C) Error due to eccentricity of the verniers
  • (D) Error due to imperfect graduations
Correct Answer: (A), (B), (C)
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Double-face observations (Face Left and Face Right) are a fundamental procedure to eliminate systematic instrumental errors in angular measurements.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

Evaluate if the error reverses its sign when the telescope is inverted and rotated 180°.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. Collimation Error (A): Reverses sign when transit-ing, thus eliminated by averaging.

2. Horizontal Axis Error (B): Also known as trunnion axis error, it reverses sign and is eliminated by averaging.

3. Eccentricity of Verniers (C): Errors due to the center of the vernier plate not coinciding with the vertical axis are eliminated by reading both verniers (which are 180° apart) and taking FL/FR.

4. Imperfect Graduations (D): This is an inherent manufacturing error in the circle itself and is minimized by reading at different parts of the circle, not just FL/FR.


Step 4: Final Answer:

(A), (B), and (C) are correct.
Quick Tip: Face Left and Face Right observations "cancel out" instrumental offsets because the instrument rotates 180° relative to the axes.


Question 61:

Which of the following statements in the context of aerial photography is/are CORRECT?

  • (A) Oblique photographs are obtained when the camera axis is not normal to the datum plane
  • (B) Tilted photographs are obtained when the camera axis is tilted from the nadir line
  • (C) Vertical photographs are obtained when the camera axis is parallel to the datum plane
  • (D) Vertical photographs are obtained when the photo plane is normal to the datum plane
Correct Answer: (A), (B)
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Aerial photographs are classified based on the orientation of the camera axis during exposure.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

Vertical = Axis is coincident with Nadir (gravity). Oblique = Axis is intentionally tilted. Tilted = Unintentional tilt.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. Oblique (A): Correct. The camera axis is intentionally angled away from the vertical.

2. Tilted (B): Correct. This usually refers to unintentional deviations (\(< 3°\)) from the vertical (nadir).

3. Vertical (C): Incorrect. The axis must be perpendicular to the datum plane (pointing down), not parallel.

4. Vertical (D): Incorrect. If the photo plane is normal (perpendicular) to the datum plane, the camera is pointing sideways (horizontal), which is not vertical.


Step 4: Final Answer:

(A) and (B) are correct.
Quick Tip: Nadir is the point directly below the camera. A perfectly vertical photo has its principal point at the nadir.


Question 62:

The angular misclosure of the closed-loop traverse shown in the figure is _____________ ° (Answer in decimal degrees and rounded off to three decimal places).

Correct Answer: 0.050
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

In a closed polygon traverse, the sum of internal angles must follow a geometric constraint.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

Theoretical sum of internal angles \(= (n-2) \times 180°\).


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. Count sides/angles: There are 6 internal angles shown. \(n = 6\).

2. Theoretical sum \(= (6 - 2) \times 180° = 720°\).

3. Measured sum:

- Convert DMS to Decimal:

66°40'30" \(= 66.675°\)

132°45'30" \(= 132.7583°\)

227°26'15" \(= 227.4375°\)

64°00'00" \(= 64.0°\)

97°35'45" \(= 97.5958°\)

131°35'00" \(= 131.5833°\)

4. Measured sum \(= 66.675 + 132.7583 + 227.4375 + 64.0 + 97.5958 + 131.5833 = 720.050°\).

5. Misclosure \(= |720.050 - 720.000| = 0.050°\).


Step 4: Final Answer:

The angular misclosure is 0.050°.
Quick Tip: To convert DMS to decimal quickly: \(D + \frac{M}{60} + \frac{S}{3600}\). Angular misclosure is a measure of the precision of the angle measurements in a traverse.


Question 63:

The observations of a reciprocal levelling operation carried out from two stations A and B are given in table. It is known that the instrument has collimation error. The correct staff reading over station B when the instrument is set very near to station A is ________ m (Rounded off to three decimal places).


Correct Answer: 1.950
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Reciprocal levelling is used to eliminate combined curvature, refraction, and collimation errors between two points.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

True difference in elevation \(h = \frac{(b_1 - a_1) + (b_2 - a_2)}{2}\).

Correct reading at B (from A) \(= a_1 + h\).


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. Given readings:

- Set near A: \(a_1 = 1.275\) m, \(b_1 = 2.005\) m.

- Set near B: \(a_2 = 1.040\) m, \(b_2 = 1.660\) m.

2. Calculate true difference \(h\):

\[ h = \frac{(2.005 - 1.275) + (1.660 - 1.040)}{2} = \frac{0.730 + 0.620}{2} = 0.675 m \]

3. The reading at A (\(a_1\)) is correct because the instrument is very near to it.

4. The correct reading at B should be:

Reading \(= a_1 + h = 1.275 + 0.675 = 1.950 m\).


Step 4: Final Answer:

The correct staff reading is 1.950 m.
Quick Tip: Note that the reading \(b_1 = 2.005\) is incorrect because of collimation error. By averaging the differences from both ends, the error (which stays constant in magnitude) cancels out.


Question 64:

It is needed to establish the coordinates of a station A. Two stations B and C are available whose coordinates are given in the table.

Length of line CA = 1212.38 m; ∠BCA = 64°.

The Easting of station A is _______ m (Rounded off to two decimal places).

Assume station A lies to the west of the traverse line BC.

Correct Answer: 9982.84
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This problem involves determining coordinates of a third point in a triangle using known coordinates of two points and distances/angles.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

Bearing of \(CA = Bearing of CB \pm Interior Angle\).
\(E_A = E_C + L_{CA} \sin(Bearing of CA)\).


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. Coordinates: B(11054.09, 9484.37), C(10827.62, 10112.15).

2. Calculate bearing of line CB:

\(\Delta E = 11054.09 - 10827.62 = 226.47\) m.

\(\Delta N = 9484.37 - 10112.15 = -627.78\) m.

Bearing \(CB = atan2(226.47, -627.78) \approx 160.173°\).

3. To find A West of BC, we add \(64°\) to the bearing from C to B.

Bearing \(CA = 160.173° + 64° = 224.173°\).

4. Calculate Easting of A:

\(E_A = 10827.62 + 1212.38 \sin(224.173°) = 10827.62 + 1212.38 \times (-0.6968...)\)

\(E_A = 10827.62 - 844.78 = 9982.84\) m.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The Easting of station A is 9982.84 m.
Quick Tip: Always visualize the orientation. C is North of B. Line CB points South-East (\(160°\)). If A is West of this line, its bearing from C should be more toward the South-West (increase the angle).


Question 65:

In a triangulation exercise, the horizontal distance between two points P and Q was found to be 12380.56 m. The average elevation along the line PQ was 748.82 m above the reference ellipsoid. The reduced horizontal distance between P and Q over the reference ellipsoid is _______ m (Rounded off to two decimal places).

Consider the radius of Earth to be 6378 km.

Correct Answer: 12379.11
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Surveyed distances measured at high elevations must be reduced to a standard datum (sea level or reference ellipsoid) due to the convergence of radii.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

Reduction to Datum: \(D_0 = D \cdot \frac{R}{R + h}\), where \(D\) is measured distance, \(R\) is Earth's radius, and \(h\) is average elevation.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. Given \(D = 12380.56\) m, \(h = 748.82\) m, \(R = 6378000\) m.

2. Calculate reduced distance:

\[ D_0 = 12380.56 \times \left(\frac{6378000}{6378000 + 748.82}\right) \]

\[ D_0 = 12380.56 \times 0.9998826... = 12379.106... m \]


Step 4: Final Answer:

The reduced distance is 12379.11 m rounded off to two decimal places.
Quick Tip: The "Elevation Correction" factor is always slightly less than 1. Distances measured high above the ellipsoid are longer than their equivalent lengths at the ellipsoidal surface.


Question 66:

Which one of the following is NOT a linear raster operation?

  • (A) Histogram equalization
  • (B) Averaging filter
  • (C) Convolution with a Gaussian kernel
  • (D) Laplacian edge detection
Correct Answer: (A) Histogram equalization
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Linear operations in image processing are those that satisfy the principles of superposition and homogeneity. Typically, these involve convolving an image with a kernel where the output is a weighted sum of inputs.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

Identify which operation involves a non-linear mapping of intensity values based on global image statistics.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. Averaging filter, Gaussian kernel, and Laplacian edge detection are all implemented via convolution. In convolution, the output pixel value is a linear combination of its neighbors. Thus, they are linear operations.

2. Histogram equalization is a method that improves contrast by stretching the range of intensity values. It uses a cumulative distribution function (CDF) to map input levels to output levels. Because this mapping function is dependent on the image's specific histogram and is generally a non-linear transformation, it is a non-linear operation.


Step 4: Final Answer:

Histogram equalization is a non-linear raster operation.
Quick Tip: Any operation that can be represented as a fixed matrix multiplication (kernel convolution) is linear. If the processing depends on the pixel's rank or frequency (like median filters or histogram equalization), it is non-linear.


Question 67:

Which one of the following is responsible for attenuation of the incoming solar radiation in the atmosphere?

  • (A) Absorption
  • (B) Refraction
  • (C) Transmission
  • (D) Diffraction
Correct Answer: (A) Absorption
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Attenuation refers to the gradual loss of intensity of radiation as it passes through a medium. In the atmosphere, this is primarily caused by two mechanisms: absorption and scattering.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

Differentiate between processes that reduce energy (attenuation) and those that simply change its path or state.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. Absorption: Atmospheric gases (like \(O_3\), \(CO_2\), and \(H_2O\)) absorb energy at specific wavelengths, converting it into heat. This directly reduces the intensity of incoming radiation.

2. Refraction: This is the bending of light as it passes between layers of different density. It changes the path but does not necessarily reduce the total energy.

3. Transmission: This is the process of radiation passing through the atmosphere to the surface without interacting. It is the opposite of attenuation.

4. Diffraction: This is the bending of light around the edges of particles or obstacles, which is a form of scattering but usually minor for overall solar attenuation.


Step 4: Final Answer:

Absorption is a primary cause of atmospheric attenuation.
Quick Tip: Attenuation = Absorption + Scattering. In remote sensing, "Atmospheric Windows" are spectral regions where absorption is minimal, allowing for clear transmission to the sensor.


Question 68:

Consider the following arrangement of pixels P, P\(_1\), P\(_2\), P\(_3\) and P\(_4\) as shown in the figure. Assume that P, P\(_2\) and P\(_4\) have a value of 1, and P\(_1\) and P\(_3\) have a value of 0. If we consider adjacency of pixels as \(V = \{1\}\), what is the length of the shortest \(m\)-path between P and P\(_4\)?

Correct Answer: (A) 2
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

A mixed path (\(m\)-path) is a path between two pixels used to eliminate the ambiguities that often arise when using 8-adjacency.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

Two pixels \(p\) and \(q\) with values in \(V\) are \(m\)-adjacent if:

1. \(q \in N_4(p)\) (4-neighbors) OR

2. \(q \in N_D(p)\) (diagonal neighbors) AND \(N_4(p) \cap N_4(q) \cap V = \emptyset\).


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. Arrangement from figure: P at bottom-left, P\(_2\) at mid-right, P\(_4\) at top-right. P\(_1\) and P\(_3\) are at mid-left and top-left respectively.

2. Coordinates: \(P=(2,0)\), \(P_1=(1,0)\), \(P_2=(1,1)\), \(P_4=(0,1)\). Values: \(P=1, P_2=1, P_4=1, P_1=0\).

3. Check \(P\) to \(P_2\): \(P_2\) is a diagonal neighbor (\(N_D\)) of \(P\). Their common 4-neighbors are \(P_1\) and a pixel to the right of \(P\). Here, \(P_1\) has a value of 0, which is not in \(V\). Thus, \(P\) and \(P_2\) are \(m\)-adjacent. Length = 1.

4. Check \(P_2\) to \(P_4\): \(P_4\) is a 4-neighbor of \(P_2\) (directly above). Thus, they are \(m\)-adjacent. Length = 1.

5. The shortest \(m\)-path is \(P \to P_2 \to P_4\). The total number of edges is 2.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The length of the shortest \(m\)-path is 2.
Quick Tip: An \(m\)-path is used to solve the connectivity ambiguity in 8-adjacency. If there's a 4-neighbor connection available between two diagonal pixels, you cannot use the diagonal "shortcut" in an \(m\)-path.


Question 69:

A square digital image of size 128 \(\times\) 128 pixels requires 65536 bits of storage. What is the number of grey levels?

  • (A) 16
  • (B) 4
  • (C) 8
  • (D) 32
Correct Answer: (A) 16
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The total storage of an uncompressed digital image is the product of the number of pixels and the number of bits used to represent each pixel (bit depth).


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

1. Total pixels \(= Width \times Height\).

2. Bits per pixel (n) \(= \frac{Total storage}{Total pixels}\).

3. Grey levels \(= 2^n\).


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. Calculate total pixels: \(128 \times 128 = 16,384\) pixels.

2. Calculate bits per pixel: \(n = \frac{65,536 bits}{16,384 pixels} = 4\) bits/pixel.

3. Calculate grey levels: Number of levels \(= 2^4 = 16\).


Step 4: Final Answer:

The image has 16 grey levels.
Quick Tip: Remember that \(128 = 2^7\). So \(128 \times 128 = 2^{14}\). \(65536 = 2^{16}\). Using powers of 2 makes the division much faster: \(2^{16} / 2^{14} = 2^2 = 4\) bits.


Question 70:

Convolution of two digital images in the spatial domain corresponds to _________ in the frequency domain.

  • (A) multiplication
  • (B) convolution
  • (C) addition
  • (D) cross-correlation
Correct Answer: (A) multiplication
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The convolution theorem is a fundamental property of Fourier Transforms that links filtering in the spatial domain to simple operations in the frequency domain.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

If \(g(x,y) = f(x,y) * h(x,y)\), then \(G(u,v) = F(u,v) \cdot H(u,v)\).


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. Spatial convolution is computationally intensive as it involves sliding a mask over an entire image.

2. The convolution theorem states that convolving two signals in the spatial domain is mathematically equivalent to multiplying their respective Fourier transforms in the frequency domain.

3. This is why many image filters are applied by taking the FFT, multiplying by a transfer function, and taking the Inverse FFT.


Step 4: Final Answer:

Convolution in spatial domain corresponds to multiplication in the frequency domain.
Quick Tip: Duality Rule: Convolution in one domain is always Multiplication in the other. This applies both ways (Spatial \(\to\) Frequency and Frequency \(\to\) Spatial).


Question 71:

Select the CORRECT option(s). Aerial images are prone to external geometric errors due to random movements of the aircraft, which involve changes in ______.

  • (A) altitude
  • (B) attitude
  • (C) terrain relief
  • (D) focal length
Correct Answer: (A) altitude, (B) attitude
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Geometric errors in aerial photography are categorized as internal (sensor-related) or external (platform/environment-related).


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

Identify which parameters are directly related to the random movements of the aircraft during flight.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. Altitude (A): Variations in flight height lead to changes in scale across different photographs. This is an external factor based on aircraft movement.

2. Attitude (B): This refers to the angular orientation of the aircraft (Roll, Pitch, and Yaw). Fluctuations in these angles cause image tilting and distortion. This is an external factor.

3. Terrain Relief (C): This is a characteristic of the ground surface being imaged, not the movement of the aircraft. It causes internal geometric displacement.

4. Focal Length (D): This is a constant internal parameter of the camera lens, not affected by aircraft movement.


Step 4: Final Answer:

External geometric errors arise from changes in altitude and attitude.
Quick Tip: External errors come from the platform (altitude, attitude, velocity) and the environment (earth curvature, refraction). Internal errors come from the sensor itself (lens distortion, focal length errors).


Question 72:

Which of the following statements in the context of image-to-image registration is/are CORRECT?

  • (A) The images may belong to different dates
  • (B) The images have significant overlapping geographic area
  • (C) The images must have the same spatial resolution
  • (D) The images must belong to the same dates
Correct Answer: (A), (B)
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Image-to-image registration is the process of aligning two images of the same scene so that corresponding pixels represent the same geographic location.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

Evaluate the prerequisites and common use cases for spatial registration.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. Statement A: Correct. A major application of registration is change detection, which requires registering images of the same area taken at different times.

2. Statement B: Correct. You cannot register two images if they do not share common geographic features. Overlap is a strict requirement.

3. Statement C: Incorrect. Images from different sensors (e.g., Landsat at 30 m and Sentinel-2 at 10 m) are frequently registered together by resampling.

4. Statement D: Incorrect. If they were the same date, they might already be aligned; different dates are the most common scenario for registration.


Step 4: Final Answer:

Statements (A) and (B) are correct.
Quick Tip: Registration is essentially "aligning a new image to a master image." The only absolute requirement is that they must "see" some of the same features.


Question 73:

Applying a 3 \(\times\) 3 mean filter centered on the grey shaded pixel in the input image, shown in the figure, will result in an output value of ________ (Answer in integer).


Correct Answer: 3
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

A mean filter is a smoothing operation where the center pixel of a window is replaced by the average of all pixel values within that window.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

Output Value \(= \frac{\sum Pixel values in 3 \times 3 window}{9}\).


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. The shaded pixel is '5' at row 2, col 2. The \(3 \times 3\) window around it is:

\[ \begin{matrix} 0 & 1 & 3
2 & 5 & 4
8 & 3 & 1 \end{matrix} \]

2. Sum the values: \(0 + 1 + 3 + 2 + 5 + 4 + 8 + 3 + 1 = 27\).

3. Calculate the mean: \(27 / 9 = 3\).


Step 4: Final Answer:

The output value is 3.
Quick Tip: A mean filter is very sensitive to outliers. In this example, notice how the value '8' pulls the average up, but the value '0' balances it.


Question 74:

What is the norm of the vector \(f(x) = \cos(x)\) in the inner product space \(C([0, 2\pi])\)?

The inner product is defined by \(\langle f(x), g(x) \rangle = \int_0^{2\pi} f(x) \cdot g(x) dx\)

  • (A) \(\sqrt{\pi}\)
  • (B) \(\sqrt{2\pi}\)
  • (C) 0
  • (D) \(\sqrt{\pi/2}\)
Correct Answer: (A) \(\sqrt{\pi}\)
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

In an inner product space, the norm of a function (or vector) is the square root of the inner product of the function with itself.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
\(\|f(x)\| = \sqrt{\langle f(x), f(x) \rangle} = \sqrt{\int_0^{2\pi} [f(x)]^2 dx}\).


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. Given \(f(x) = \cos(x)\) over the interval \([0, 2\pi]\).

2. Calculate the squared norm:

\[ \|f\|^2 = \int_0^{2\pi} \cos^2(x) dx \]

3. Use the trigonometric identity \(\cos^2(x) = \frac{1 + \cos(2x)}{2}\):

\[ \|f\|^2 = \int_0^{2\pi} \frac{1}{2} dx + \int_0^{2\pi} \frac{\cos(2x)}{2} dx \]

\[ \|f\|^2 = \left[ \frac{x}{2} \right]_0^{2\pi} + \left[ \frac{\sin(2x)}{4} \right]_0^{2\pi} \]

\[ \|f\|^2 = (\pi - 0) + (0 - 0) = \pi \]

4. Therefore, the norm \(\|f\| = \sqrt{\pi}\).


Step 4: Final Answer:

The norm is \(\sqrt{\pi}\).
Quick Tip: Integration of \(\sin^2 x\) or \(\cos^2 x\) over any full period (like \(2\pi\) or \(\pi\)) always equals half the interval length. Here, \(\frac{1}{2} \times 2\pi = \pi\).


Question 75:

Let \(f(x, y)\) be an image with the histogram as shown in the figure. X-axis denotes grey levels (r) and Y-axis denotes the probability (p) of occurrence of the grey levels.

What is the variance of the equalized image?

  • (A) 2/27
  • (B) 3/27
  • (C) 2/3
  • (D) 1/27
Correct Answer: (A) 2/27
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Histogram equalization aims to produce an image with a uniform probability distribution of intensity levels.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

For a discrete image with \(L\) levels, the equalized levels ideally follow a uniform PMF \(1/L\). Variance of a discrete variable is \(\sum (x_i - \mu)^2 P(x_i)\).


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. From the figure, there are 3 distinct bars, each with probability \(p = 1/3\).

2. After equalization, these levels will be mapped to equally spaced values on the normalized range \([0, 1]\). For 3 levels, the mapped values are typically \(\{1/6, 1/2, 5/6\}\).

3. Mean (\(\mu\)): \(\frac{1}{3}(1/6 + 1/2 + 5/6) = 1/2\).

4. Variance (\(\sigma^2\)):

\[ \sigma^2 = \frac{1}{3} \left[ (1/6 - 1/2)^2 + (1/2 - 1/2)^2 + (5/6 - 1/2)^2 \right] \]

\[ \sigma^2 = \frac{1}{3} \left[ (-1/3)^2 + 0^2 + (1/3)^2 \right] = \frac{1}{3} \left[ 1/9 + 1/9 \right] = 2/27. \]


Step 4: Final Answer:

The variance is 2/27.
Quick Tip: For an equalized image with \(n\) discrete levels, the variance is \(\frac{n^2 - 1}{12n^2}\) if mapped perfectly on \([0,1]\). For \(n=3\), \(\frac{8}{12 \times 9} = \frac{8}{108} = 2/27\).


Question 76:

Which one of the following is the CORRECT outcome of convolution with zero padding of the two images given below?


  • (A)
  • (B)
  • (C)
  • (D)
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

2D convolution involves sliding a kernel over an image and summing the products of overlapping elements. Zero padding ensures the output covers all areas where any part of the kernel overlaps the image.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

Output size for \(M \times M\) image and \(N \times N\) kernel is \((M+N-1) \times (M+N-1)\).


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. Both inputs are \(2 \times 2\) matrices of ones. Output size is \(3 \times 3\).

2. Top-left corner: One pixel overlap. Sum \(= 1 \times 1 = 1\).

3. Top-center: Two pixel overlap. Sum \(= 1 \times 1 + 1 \times 1 = 2\).

4. Center: All four pixels overlap. Sum \(= 1+1+1+1 = 4\).

5. The full matrix results in:

\[ \begin{bmatrix} 1 & 2 & 1
2 & 4 & 2
1 & 2 & 1 \end{bmatrix} \]


Step 4: Final Answer:

The result matches Option (A).
Quick Tip: When convolving two rectangular blocks of ones, the result is always a pyramid-like shape. For \(2 \times 2\), the sequence of coefficients along any row or column is \(1, 2, 1\).


Question 77:

Which of the following is/are CORRECT when using the Discrete Fourier Transform to compute convolution without zero padding?

  • (A) Aliasing occurs
  • (B) Wraparound error occurs
  • (C) Convolution is linear
  • (D) Aliasing can be avoided
Correct Answer: (A), (B)
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The Discrete Fourier Transform (DFT) assumes the spatial signals are periodic. Multiplying DFTs corresponds to circular convolution in the spatial domain.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

To perform linear convolution using DFT, images must be padded with zeros to at least \((M+N-1)\) to prevent overlapping of periodic repetitions.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. Wraparound Error (B): Without zero padding, the "tail" of the linear convolution for one period overlaps with the beginning of the next period. This is known as wraparound error.

2. Aliasing (A): In the context of spatial frequencies, this overlap is essentially a form of spectral aliasing where higher-order terms fold back into lower ones.

3. Linearity (C): Without padding, the result is circular, not linear.


Step 4: Final Answer:

(A) and (B) are the correct consequences.
Quick Tip: To get a linear convolution of \(128 \times 128\) and \(3 \times 3\) via FFT, you must pad both to at least \(130 \times 130\). Failure to do so causes the edges of the image to "wrap" into the opposite side.


Question 78:

Which of the following vegetation indices is/are designed to jointly address the issues of atmospheric effect, background soil effect, and vegetation saturation effect?

  • (A) EVI
  • (B) NDVI
  • (C) SAVI
  • (D) LAI
Correct Answer: (A) EVI
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Standard indices like NDVI have limitations such as sensitivity to the atmosphere and soil background, and saturation in high-biomass areas.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

Review the components of the Enhanced Vegetation Index (EVI).


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. EVI (Enhanced Vegetation Index): It includes a "soil-adjustment" factor (\(L\)) to reduce soil background effects and a "blue band" to correct for atmospheric aerosols. Its formula also reduces saturation in high-LAI regions.

2. NDVI: Suffer from all three issues (atmos, soil, saturation).

3. SAVI: Addresses soil background but not atmosphere or saturation as effectively as EVI.

4. LAI: This is a physical parameter (Leaf Area Index), not a spectral index designed for correction.


Step 4: Final Answer:

EVI is designed to address all three issues.
Quick Tip: EVI is the successor to NDVI for global monitoring (MODIS). Remember: EVI = NDVI + Atmospheric Correction (Blue Band) + Soil Correction (L factor).


Question 79:

An 8-bit remote sensing image has brightness values ranging from 24 to 120. While applying the minimum-maximum contrast stretch, which of the following statements is/are CORRECT?

  • (A) The original brightness values between 24 and 120 would be linearly distributed between 0 and 255
  • (B) An original brightness value of 48 would become approximately 64
  • (C) The original brightness values between 24 and 120 would be linearly distributed between 24 and 255
  • (D) An original brightness value of 36 would become approximately 46
Correct Answer: (A), (B)
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

A min-max contrast stretch is a linear transformation that maps the existing range of data to the full range allowed by the bit depth (e.g., 0-255 for 8-bit).


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
\(BV_{out} = \frac{BV_{in} - min}{max - min} \times 255\).


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. Given \(min = 24, max = 120\). Full range is \(0\) to \(255\).

2. Statement A: Correct. The purpose of the stretch is to map \(24 \to 0\) and \(120 \to 255\).

3. Statement B: Test \(BV_{in} = 48\):

\(BV_{out} = \frac{48 - 24}{120 - 24} \times 255 = \frac{24}{96} \times 255 = 0.25 \times 255 \approx 63.75 \approx 64\). Correct.

4. Statement D: Test \(BV_{in} = 36\):

\(BV_{out} = \frac{36 - 24}{96} \times 255 = \frac{12}{96} \times 255 = 0.125 \times 255 \approx 31.8\). Incorrect.


Step 4: Final Answer:

(A) and (B) are correct.
Quick Tip: Linear stretch doesn't create new information; it just makes existing features easier to see by using the full dynamic range of the display.


Question 80:

A geometrically distorted image is corrected and the pixel values are assigned using resampling techniques as shown in the figure. In this context, which of the following options is/are CORRECT?


  • (A) Bilinear interpolation technique assigns the output pixel value based on a distance-weighted average of DN values of four (\(2 \times 2\)) nearest pixels
  • (B) Cubic interpolation technique assigns the output pixel value based on a distance-weighted average of DN values of sixteen (\(4 \times 4\)) nearest pixels
  • (C) Bilinear interpolation technique assigns the output pixel value based on a distance-weighted average of DN values of nine (\(3 \times 3\)) nearest pixels
  • (D) Cubic interpolation technique assigns the output pixel value based on a distance-weighted average of DN values of nine (\(3 \times 3\)) nearest pixels
Correct Answer: (A), (B)
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Resampling is the process of calculating the Digital Number (DN) for a new pixel location during geometric correction.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

Identify the window size used by each interpolation standard.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. Nearest Neighbor: Uses the single nearest pixel. Fast but blocky.

2. Bilinear Interpolation (A): Uses a \(2 \times 2\) (4 pixels) window. It performs linear interpolation in two directions. Correct.

3. Cubic Convolution (B): Uses a \(4 \times 4\) (16 pixels) window. It uses a cubic polynomial to calculate the weighted average. Correct.

4. Options C and D: No standard resampling technique uses a \(3 \times 3\) neighborhood for basic interpolation.


Step 4: Final Answer:

(A) and (B) are correct descriptions.
Quick Tip: Bilinear = \(2 \times 2 = 4\) pixels. Cubic = \(4 \times 4 = 16\) pixels. Nearest Neighbor = 1 pixel. This is a common pattern in exam questions.


Question 81:

Which of the following options is/are INCORRECT?

  • (A) Negative images are formed by a non-linear transformation of digital images
  • (B) A thresholding function is used to produce a two-level binary digital image
  • (C) Logarithmic transformation of an image is used to expand the values of dark pixels in a digital image
  • (D) Power law transformation with fractional exponent is used to map dark input values of an image into a wider range of output values
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Basic point transformations change the intensity values of individual pixels according to a mathematical function.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

Differentiate between linear and non-linear intensity mappings.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. Negative Images (A): The transformation is \(y = (L - 1) - x\), where \(L\) is the number of levels. This is a linear equation (\(y = -x + c\)). Thus, calling it non-linear is INCORRECT.

2. Thresholding (B): This is correct. It maps values below a threshold to 0 and above to 1.

3. Log Transform (C): Correct. \(y = c \cdot \log(1+x)\) stretches low values (dark) and compresses high values (bright).

4. Power Law (D): Correct. If \(\gamma < 1\), the transformation maps a narrow range of dark input to a wider range of output.


Step 4: Final Answer:

Only Statement (A) is incorrect.
Quick Tip: Linear transformations follow \(y = mx + c\). Inversion (negative) is simply a linear flip of the brightness range.


Question 82:

While implementing the digital Laplacian filter mask, which of the following is/are the possible value(s) of the center pixel?

  • (A) –4
  • (B) –8
  • (C) –2
  • (D) –6
Correct Answer: (A), (B)
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The Laplacian is a second-order derivative operator used for edge detection. It must sum to zero in a discrete mask to ensure constant areas result in zero output.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

Examine the standard discrete approximation masks for the Laplacian.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. 4-Neighbor Mask:

\[ \begin{bmatrix} 0 & 1 & 0
1 & -4 & 1
0 & 1 & 0 \end{bmatrix} \]

The center pixel value is –4.

2. 8-Neighbor Mask:

\[ \begin{bmatrix} 1 & 1 & 1
1 & -8 & 1
1 & 1 & 1 \end{bmatrix} \]

The center pixel value is –8.


Step 4: Final Answer:

Both –4 and –8 are standard possible values for the center pixel.
Quick Tip: In some implementations, the signs are flipped (e.g., center is 4 and neighbors are -1). However, the absolute sum must always be zero for any high-pass filter.


Question 83:

An image analyst classifies an image into three classes, namely, water, vegetation and urban, using a simple classification technique. Using the reference data (ground truth) and classified data, the analyst prepares an error matrix. Which of the following options is/are CORRECT? (Calculation based on diagonal values 48, 16, 84 and total sum 220).


  • (A) Overall accuracy is 67%
  • (B) Producer’s and User’s accuracy values in case of water class are equal
  • (C) In case of urban class, Producer’s accuracy is 20% and User’s accuracy is 13%
  • (D) In case of vegetation class, Producer’s accuracy is 20% and User’s accuracy is 11%
Correct Answer: (A), (B)
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Accuracy assessment in image classification uses an error matrix (contingency table) to calculate various metrics.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

1. Overall Accuracy \(= \frac{\sum Diagonal Elements}{Total Pixels}\).

2. User's Accuracy (UA) \(= \frac{Diagonal Value}{Row Sum}\).

3. Producer's Accuracy (PA) \(= \frac{Diagonal Value}{Column Sum}\).


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. Overall Accuracy (A): \(\frac{48 + 16 + 84}{220} = \frac{148}{220} = 0.6727 \approx 67%\). Correct.

2. Water Class (B):

Row Sum (Classified) \(= 48 + 12 + 10 = 70\).

Col Sum (Reference) \(= 48 + 8 + 14 = 70\).

\(UA = 48/70\), \(PA = 48/70\). Correct.

3. Vegetation Class (D):

Col Sum \(= 12 + 16 + 12 = 40\). \(PA = 16/40 = 40%\). Incorrect.


Step 4: Final Answer:

(A) and (B) are the correct statements.
Quick Tip: "Producer's" accuracy measures errors of omission (how well did the map represent the ground?). "User's" accuracy measures errors of commission (if I go to this pixel on the map, will I find it on the ground?).


Question 84:

Principal Component Analysis (PCA) is applied on reflectance values obtained from seven bands. The following are the resultant eigenvalues: 0.39, 3.76, 13.10, 0.67, 101.00, 0.21, 0.12.

The minimum number of principal components required to achieve at least 99% of total variance explained by seven bands is _____ (Answer in integer).

Correct Answer: 4
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

PCA transforms correlated bands into uncorrelated principal components. Eigenvalues represent the amount of variance captured by each component.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

Cumulative Percentage Variance \(= \frac{\sum_{i=1}^k \lambda_i}{\sum_{i=1}^n \lambda_i} \times 100\).


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

1. Total Variance \(= \sum eigenvalues = 101.00 + 13.10 + 3.76 + 0.67 + 0.39 + 0.21 + 0.12 = 119.25\).

2. Threshold (99%) \(= 0.99 \times 119.25 = 118.0575\).

3. Cumulative sums of eigenvalues (ordered high to low):

- PC1: 101.00

- PC1+PC2: \(101.00 + 13.10 = 114.10\)

- PC1+PC2+PC3: \(114.10 + 3.76 = 117.86\)

- PC1+PC2+PC3+PC4: \(117.86 + 0.67 = 118.53\)

4. Since \(118.53 > 118.06\), 4 components are required.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The minimum number of principal components is 4.
Quick Tip: In remote sensing, the first few principal components often capture nearly all the variance because bands in the visible and IR spectrum are highly correlated. This allows for significant data compression.

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