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Nidhi Bamnawat

| Updated On - Mar 24, 2026

GATE 2026 Humanities and Social Sciences – Sociology (XH-C6) question paper is available for download here. IIT Guwahati conducted GATE 2026 XH-C6 exam on February 7, 2026 from 2:30 to 5:30 PM. GATE 2026 XH-C6 exam was reported to be Moderate to Tough. Candidates had to answer 65 questions in GATE 2026 XH-C6 Question Paper carrying a total weightage of 100 marks. 10 questions are from the General Aptitude section and 55 questions are from Engineering Mathematics and Core Discipline.

Download GATE 2026 XH-C6 Question Paper with Answer Key and Solution PDF from the links provided below.

GATE 2026 XH-C6 Question Paper with Solution PDF 

GATE 2026 XH-C6 Question Paper Download PDF Check Solutions
GATE 2026 XH Question Paper

Question 1:

“He often ______ the numbers. False claims are not going to help. Honesty ______ trust”, said the manager.

Choose the option with the correct order of words to fill the blanks.

  • (A) exaggerates; engenders
  • (B) excels; encourages
  • (C) aggravates; alleviates
  • (D) diminishes; eliminates
Correct Answer: (A) exaggerates; engenders
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question tests the ability to select words that fit the logical context and semantic flow of a given sentence.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The first sentence mentions "False claims are not going to help," which implies the first blank should be a word related to falsifying or inflating information.

"Exaggerates" means to represent something as being larger, better, or worse than it really is, which fits the context of "false claims" and "numbers."

The second part of the statement discusses a positive trait (Honesty) and its result.

"Engenders" means to cause or give rise to a feeling, situation, or condition.

Thus, "Honesty engenders trust" is a logical conclusion.

Other options like "aggravates" (makes worse) or "diminishes" (reduces) create contradictory or nonsensical meanings.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct pair is "exaggerates" and "engenders."
Quick Tip: Look for keywords in the surrounding sentences. "False claims" suggests a negative action in the first blank, while "Honesty" suggests a positive outcome in the second.


Question 2:

In the sequence of tiles shown below, the missing tile indicated by the question mark should be


  • (A)
  • (B)
  • (C)
  • (D)
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The problem requires identifying the pattern of dots and their spatial arrangement in a series of tiles.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's analyze the number of dots in the tiles:

Tile 1: 2 dots (\(1 \times 2\) arrangement)

Tile 2: 3 dots (diagonal arrangement)

Tile 3: ?

Tile 4: 6 dots (\(2 \times 3\) arrangement)

Tile 5: 12 dots (\(3 \times 4\) arrangement)

Looking at the growth of the grid/arrangement:
\(1 \times 2 = 2\)
\(1 \times 3 = 3\) (or diagonal)
\(2 \times 2 = 4\)
\(2 \times 3 = 6\)
\(3 \times 4 = 12\)

The pattern alternates between increasing the number of rows and columns. Following \(1 \times 3\), the next logical progression is a \(2 \times 2\) square arrangement, resulting in 4 dots.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Option (A) shows a \(2 \times 2\) pattern with 4 dots, which fits the sequence perfectly.
Quick Tip: In dot-pattern sequences, always count the items and observe if the arrangement follows a specific grid (Rows \(\times\) Columns).


Question 3:

A school has 100 students distributed among \(1^{st}\) to \(10^{th}\) standards. Based on this, which one of the following statements is always correct?

  • (A) There are at least 10 students who belong to the same standard.
  • (B) There is at least one student in each standard.
  • (C) There are at most 10 students in \(10^{th}\) standard.
  • (D) The total number of students from \(1^{st}\) to \(5^{th}\) standards is at least 50.
Correct Answer: (A) There are at least 10 students who belong to the same standard.
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This question involves the Pigeonhole Principle, which states that if \(n\) items are put into \(m\) containers, then at least one container must contain at least \(\lceil n/m \rceil\) items.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

Number of students (\(n\)) = 100

Number of standards (\(m\)) = 10

Minimum students in at least one standard = \(\lceil \frac{100}{10} \rceil = 10\).


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

Statement (A): By the Pigeonhole Principle, at least one standard must have \(\frac{100}{10} = 10\) students. This is always true regardless of distribution.

Statement (B): Incorrect, as all 100 students could be in the \(1^{st}\) standard, leaving other standards empty.

Statement (C): Incorrect, as all 100 students could be in the \(10^{th}\) standard.

Statement (D): Incorrect, as all 100 students could be in the \(6^{th}\) to \(10^{th}\) standards, leaving the \(1^{st}\) to \(5^{th}\) standards with 0 students.


Step 4: Final Answer:

Only statement (A) is logically guaranteed in every possible scenario.
Quick Tip: For "always correct" questions involving distributions, use the Pigeonhole Principle to find the guaranteed minimum or maximum values.


Question 4:

How many 3-digit numbers can be formed using three distinct single digit prime numbers?

  • (A) 64
  • (B) 24
  • (C) 12
  • (D) 4
Correct Answer: (B) 24
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The task is to form a 3-digit number by selecting and arranging three distinct digits from the set of single-digit prime numbers.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

Permutation of \(n\) distinct items taken \(r\) at a time: \(P(n, r) = \frac{n!}{(n-r)!}\).


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

First, identify the single-digit prime numbers: \(\{2, 3, 5, 7\}\).

Total number of available digits (\(n\)) = 4.

We need to select and arrange 3 distinct digits (\(r = 3\)).

Number of ways = \(P(4, 3)\)
\[ P(4, 3) = \frac{4!}{(4-3)!} = \frac{4 \times 3 \times 2 \times 1}{1} = 24. \]


Step 4: Final Answer:

A total of 24 distinct 3-digit numbers can be formed.
Quick Tip: Remember that 1 is not a prime number. The list of single-digit primes is always \(\{2, 3, 5, 7\}\).


Question 5:

In a group of students, 10 students like Mathematics, 12 students like English, 4 students like both Mathematics and English, and 6 students like neither Mathematics nor English. The number of students in the group is ______

  • (A) 18
  • (B) 20
  • (C) 24
  • (D) 32
Correct Answer: (C) 24
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This problem can be solved using set theory, specifically the Principle of Inclusion-Exclusion for two sets.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

Total Students = \(n(M \cup E) + n(Neither)\)

Where \(n(M \cup E) = n(M) + n(E) - n(M \cap E)\).


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

Given:
\(n(M) = 10\) (Math)
\(n(E) = 12\) (English)
\(n(M \cap E) = 4\) (Both)
\(n(Neither) = 6\)

First, calculate students who like at least one subject (\(n(M \cup E)\)):
\[ n(M \cup E) = 10 + 12 - 4 = 18. \]

Now, add the students who like neither subject to find the total:
\[ Total = 18 + 6 = 24. \]


Step 4: Final Answer:

The total number of students in the group is 24.
Quick Tip: Draw a Venn diagram to visualize the regions. Only Math = \(10 - 4 = 6\), Only English = \(12 - 4 = 8\), Both = 4, Neither = 6. Total = \(6+8+4+6 = 24\).


Question 6:

Charity : P :: Retaliation : Q

Choose the appropriate pair of words P and Q that fit the analogy.

  • (A) P = Parsimonious; Q = Vengeful
  • (B) P = Altruistic; Q = Amicable
  • (C) P = Resentful; Q = Spiteful
  • (D) P = Magnanimous; Q = Vindictive
Correct Answer: (D) P = Magnanimous; Q = Vindictive
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The goal is to find adjectives (\(P\) and \(Q\)) that describe the nature of the nouns (Charity and Retaliation) provided in the analogy.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Charity is an act performed by a person who is generous or great-hearted. The adjective for this is Magnanimous.

Retaliation is an act of revenge performed by a person who is seeking to hurt someone in return. The adjective for this is Vindictive.

Evaluation of other options:

(A) Parsimonious (stingy) is the opposite of Charitable.

(B) Amicable (friendly) is the opposite of Retaliatory.

(C) Resentful is a feeling, but it does not specifically define the act of charity.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The pair (Magnanimous; Vindictive) perfectly fits the noun-adjective relationship.
Quick Tip: Establish a sentence for the first pair: "One who performs Charity is Magnanimous." Apply the same logic to find the second word.


Question 7:

A paper shown in Panel I is folded along the dashed lines (- - -) to construct a cube. The shaded regions shown in Panel I appear on the outer surface of the cube. Referring to cubes shown in Panel II, which one of the options is correct?


  • (A) Only (i) can correspond to the unfolded cube in Panel I.
  • (B) Only (ii) can correspond to the unfolded cube in Panel I.
  • (C) Both (i) and (ii) can correspond to the unfolded cube in Panel I.
  • (D) Neither (i) nor (ii) can correspond to the unfolded cube in Panel I.
Correct Answer: (C) Both (i) and (ii) can correspond to the unfolded cube in Panel I.
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This is a spatial visualization task where a 2D net must be mentally folded into a 3D cube, checking the adjacency and orientation of shaded regions.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Analyzing Panel I (the net):

1. The face with the central diamond is adjacent to faces with specific shaded corners.

2. When folded, the diamond face and the face with two shaded triangles meet at an edge. This orientation is visible in cube (i).

3. Cube (ii) shows a corner view where the half-shaded top face meets two blank faces. Looking at the net, this connectivity is also possible depending on the rotation of the cube.

By checking the adjacency rules (opposite faces in a net cannot be adjacent in a cube), both visual representations in Panel II are valid orientations of the same folded cube.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Both (i) and (ii) are possible configurations.
Quick Tip: In cube-net problems, identify "opposite faces" (faces separated by one square in the net). These faces can never be adjacent in the 3D cube.


Question 8:

Consider the cube shown below with its 8 corners labelled a, b, c, d, e, f, g, and h. The figure is representative. All corners are to be colored such that any two corners that are connected by an edge must be of different colors. The minimum number of colors required to achieve this is ______


  • (A) 8
  • (B) 4
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 2
Correct Answer: (D) 2
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks for the chromatic number of a graph where the vertices are corners of a cube and edges are the cube's sides.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

A graph is 2-colorable if and only if it is bipartite.

A bipartite graph does not contain any cycles of odd length.

A cube consists of cycles of length 4 (each face is a square) and length 6 or 8. Since all cycles in a cube graph are of even length, the graph is bipartite.

We can assign colors as follows:

Color 1: \(\{a, d, f, h\}\)

Color 2: \(\{b, c, e, g\}\)

Every edge in a cube connects one vertex from the first set to one from the second set (e.g., edge \(a\)-\(b\), \(a\)-\(c\), \(a\)-\(e\)). Thus, 2 colors are sufficient.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The minimum number of colors required is 2.
Quick Tip: Any structure that can be split into two groups where no two members of the same group are connected is bipartite and needs only 2 colors.


Question 9:

Four hills H1, H2, H3, and H4 are present in an area. The following observations are made about them:

i. Neither H2 nor H3 is the easternmost hill.

ii. Neither H2 nor H3 is the westernmost hill.

iii. Neither the easternmost hill nor the westernmost hill is the southernmost hill.

iv. Two hills are located to the west of H2.

v. The southernmost hill has at least two hills to its east.

The southernmost hill is _______.

  • (A) H1
  • (B) H2
  • (C) H3
  • (D) H4
Correct Answer: (C) H3
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This is an arrangement problem using logical deductions based on cardinal directions (North, South, East, West).


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let the horizontal positions (West to East) be 1, 2, 3, 4.

From (i) and (ii), H2 and H3 are not at positions 1 or 4. Thus, H2 and H3 are at positions 2 and 3.

From (iv), H2 has two hills to its west. This means H2 is at position 3.

Consequently, H3 must be at position 2.

The hills at positions 1 and 4 are H1 and H4 (in some order).

From (iii), the southernmost hill cannot be at 1 or 4. So the southernmost hill must be H2 or H3.

From (v), the southernmost hill has at least two hills to its east.

If H2 was southernmost (at position 3), it would have only one hill (at position 4) to its east.

If H3 was southernmost (at position 2), it would have two hills (at positions 3 and 4) to its east. This fits the condition.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The southernmost hill is H3.
Quick Tip: Convert relative positions into a numerical sequence (1, 2, 3, 4) to visualize constraints clearly.


Question 10:

As shown in the figure, circle \(C_1\) with center \(O_1\) and radius \(r_1\) touches the square \(VWXY\) at points \(P\) and \(Q\) while circle \(C_2\) with center \(O_2\) and radius \(r_2\) touches the square \(VWXY\) at points \(R\) and \(S\). The two circles touch each other at \(T\). Given \(r_1 = 1 cm\) and \(\overline{VY} = \overline{VW} = 4 cm\), \(r_2 = \_\_\_\_\_\_ cm\).


  • (A) \(4 - 3\sqrt{2}\)
  • (B) \(1 + 2\sqrt{2}\)
  • (C) \(7 - 4\sqrt{2}\)
  • (D) \(5 + 3\sqrt{2}\)
Correct Answer: (C) \(7 - 4\sqrt{2}\)
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

We can solve this using coordinate geometry by placing the square on a Cartesian plane.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let vertex \(W\) be \((0,0)\). Then \(V=(0,4)\), \(X=(4,0)\), and \(Y=(4,4)\).

Circle \(C_1\) touches \(x=0\) and \(y=0\) with radius \(r_1 = 1\). Center \(O_1 = (1, 1)\).

Circle \(C_2\) touches \(x=4\) and \(y=4\) with radius \(r_2\). Center \(O_2 = (4-r_2, 4-r_2)\).

Since the circles touch each other externally, the distance \(O_1O_2 = r_1 + r_2\).
\[ \sqrt{(4-r_2-1)^2 + (4-r_2-1)^2} = 1 + r_2 \]
\[ \sqrt{2(3-r_2)^2} = 1 + r_2 \]
\[ \sqrt{2}(3-r_2) = 1 + r_2 \]
\[ 3\sqrt{2} - \sqrt{2}r_2 = 1 + r_2 \]
\[ 3\sqrt{2} - 1 = r_2(1 + \sqrt{2}) \]
\[ r_2 = \frac{3\sqrt{2} - 1}{\sqrt{2} + 1} \]

Rationalizing the denominator:
\[ r_2 = \frac{(3\sqrt{2} - 1)(\sqrt{2} - 1)}{(\sqrt{2} + 1)(\sqrt{2} - 1)} \]
\[ r_2 = \frac{3(2) - 3\sqrt{2} - \sqrt{2} + 1}{2 - 1} = 7 - 4\sqrt{2} \]


Step 3: Final Answer:

The value of \(r_2\) is \(7 - 4\sqrt{2}\) cm.
Quick Tip: For circles touching two sides of a square corner, the center is always \((r, r)\) or \((side-r, side-r)\) relative to that corner.


Question 11:

Aman, Beena, Chiranjeevi and Dhiman are four siblings. Each of them is an expert in one of the performing arts, namely, dance, theatre, guitar and percussion, not necessarily in that order.

The dancer is taller than the theatre expert. Aman is taller than Chiranjeevi. The percussionist is taller than Beena but shorter than Aman. Beena is shorter than the dancer. The guitarist is not the tallest. Dhiman is shorter than both, guitarist and Chiranjeevi.

What is the expertise of Aman?

  • (A) Dance
  • (B) Theatre
  • (C) Guitar
  • (D) Percussion
Correct Answer: (A) Dance
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This is a ranking and matching puzzle where siblings must be ordered by height to determine their expertise.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's analyze height clues:

1. Aman \(>\) Chiranjeevi

2. Aman \(>\) Percussionist \(>\) Beena

3. Chiranjeevi \(>\) Dhiman

4. Guitarist \(>\) Dhiman

5. Dancer \(>\) Theatre Expert

From (1) and (2), Aman is taller than Chiranjeevi, Beena, and the Percussionist.

From (3), Chiranjeevi is taller than Dhiman.

Thus, Aman is the tallest person among the four siblings.

Now, check expertise for the tallest person (Aman):

- Aman cannot be the Guitarist because "The guitarist is not the tallest."

- Aman cannot be the Percussionist because "The percussionist is shorter than Aman."

- Between Dance and Theatre: "The dancer is taller than the theatre expert." Since Aman is the tallest, he must be the Dancer. If he were the theatre expert, the dancer would have to be taller than him, which is impossible.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Aman's expertise is Dance.
Quick Tip: Identify the "extreme" case first (the tallest person) to quickly eliminate expertise options that are explicitly stated as "shorter" or "not tallest."


Question 12:

Let \(\triangle ABC\) be an isosceles triangle with the base \(AB\) of length 8 units. Let \(CD\) be a perpendicular of length 4 units drawn from the vertex \(C\) onto the base \(AB\) and \(AC = BC\). Then, which of the following is the set of values of the angles (in degrees) \(CAB, ABC, BCA\) respectively?

  • (A) 45, 45, 90
  • (B) 100, 40, 40
  • (C) 90, 45, 45
  • (D) 40, 40, 100
Correct Answer: (A) 45, 45, 90
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

In an isosceles triangle, the altitude to the base bisects the base and creates two congruent right-angled triangles.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Base \(AB = 8\). Perpendicular \(CD = 4\) falls on \(D\).

Since \(AC = BC\), \(D\) is the midpoint of \(AB\). Therefore, \(AD = DB = 8/2 = 4\).

In right-angled triangle \(ADC\):

Height \(CD = 4\), Base \(AD = 4\).
\(\tan(\angle CAB) = \frac{CD}{AD} = \frac{4}{4} = 1\).

So, \(\angle CAB = 45^{\circ}\).

Similarly, \(\angle ABC = 45^{\circ}\).

Angle \(\angle BCA = 180^{\circ} - (45^{\circ} + 45^{\circ}) = 90^{\circ}\).


Step 3: Final Answer:

The angles are \(45^{\circ}, 45^{\circ}, 90^{\circ}\) respectively.
Quick Tip: If the altitude of an isosceles triangle is exactly half of its base, the triangle is always a right-angled isosceles triangle (\(45^{\circ}, 45^{\circ}, 90^{\circ}\)).


Question 13:

In the given passage, fill in the blanks with most suitable set of given words:

The future must no longer be ______ by the past. While the effects of the past are still with us, each day is a new ______. Therefore, one should ______ from solely believing in destiny and crave towards charting their own path of success with grit and labour. Positive ______ is imperative.

  • (A) Determined, beginning, refrain, anticipation
  • (B) Fascinated, one, include, physiology
  • (C) Explored, suffering, content, psychiatry
  • (D) Marred, life, hinder, labyrinth
Correct Answer: (A) Determined, beginning, refrain, anticipation
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This task involves choosing words that maintain semantic consistency and motivational tone throughout the paragraph.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- Blank 1: "Future... determined by the past" makes sense as it suggests the past should not dictate the future.

- Blank 2: "Each day is a new beginning" is a standard idiomatic expression perfectly suited for the context of starting fresh.

- Blank 3: "One should refrain from solely believing in destiny" aligns with the idea of taking action instead of just waiting for fate.

- Blank 4: "Positive anticipation is imperative" fits the concluding motivational sentiment.

Options like (B) and (C) contain words like "physiology" and "psychiatry" which are completely out of context.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Option (A) provides words that create a coherent and inspiring message.
Quick Tip: Read the entire passage first to grasp the tone. Here, the tone is forward-looking and proactive, making words like "beginning" and "refrain" logical choices.


Question 14:

Indian society is experiencing a boom in pet culture, where people are becoming responsible caretakers of pets rather than merely providing food and shelter. They no longer like to identify themselves as ‘pet-owners’ but rather as ‘pet-parents’. This means that there is an emotional transaction rather than a utilitarian one.

Which of the following weaken(s) the argument presented in the given passage?

  • (A) Some social media influencers are using their pets only for popularity.
  • (B) Food, medicines and clothes for pets are becoming easily available.
    (C) Pet owners are expecting some provision for tax rebate.
    (D) In today’s stressful times, pets provide emotional support.
Correct Answer: (A) Some social media influencers are using their pets only for popularity.
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

To weaken an argument, we must find a statement that provides evidence against the core claim. The core claim here is that the relationship with pets is purely emotional and not utilitarian.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- Option (A): If influencers use pets only for popularity, it is a purely utilitarian transaction (using the pet as a tool for personal gain). This directly contradicts the "pet-parent" emotional claim.

- Option (B): This supports the boom in pet culture by showing infrastructure growth.

- Option (C): Expecting a tax rebate is also a utilitarian motive, but Option (A) is a more fundamental contradiction to the "parental" identity vs "tool/usage" identity.

- Option (D): This strengthens the argument by explaining the emotional bond.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Option (A) introduces a non-emotional, utility-based motivation, thus weakening the overall argument.
Quick Tip: "Weaken" questions often present a scenario where the motivation is the exact opposite of what the passage claims (e.g., Selfish vs. Emotional).


Question 15:

Three statements, S1, S2 and S3 are given, followed with 4 conclusions, C1, C2, C3 and C4.

S1: Hostel authorities organised a special lunch on 01-02-26 during 12 noon to 3 pm, for those residents of the Hostel, who paid hostel mess fees on time.

S2: Hostel authorities issued a notice that, since elections for Mess Council is held during 4-5 pm of 01-02-26, residents of the Hostel who are contesting the elections need to stay away from the hostel since morning till 5 pm.

S3: Hostel residents who were eligible to have special lunch, had it on 01-02-26.

C1: Residents who did not have special lunch on 01-02-26, either did not pay hostel mess fees on time or were contesting elections.

C2: Residents having special lunch on 01-02-26, were either not contesting elections or had paid hostel mess fees on time.

C3: Residents who are contesting elections need not care about paying mess fees.

C4: Residents who have paid hostel mess fees on time could join special lunch only if they are not contesting elections.

Which of the conclusion(s) is/are incorrect?

  • (A) Only one among C1, C2, C3 and C4 is incorrect.
  • (B) C1 and C2 are incorrect.
  • (C) C2 and C3 are incorrect.
  • (D) C3 and C4 are incorrect.
Correct Answer: (A) Only one among C1, C2, C3 and C4 is incorrect.
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This question tests logical deduction by combining multiple constraints. Eligibility for the lunch depends on two conditions: a payment condition and a presence condition.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Based on the statements, a student can have lunch if:

1. They paid mess fees on time (\(P\)).

2. They were physically present in the hostel between 12 noon and 3 pm.

However, S2 states that those contesting elections (\(E\)) must stay away from the hostel from morning until 5 pm.

Therefore, a resident can have lunch if and only if they paid fees (\(P\)) AND are NOT contesting elections (\(\neg E\)).
\[ Lunch \iff P \land \neg E \]


Now evaluate the conclusions:

C1: Residents who did not have lunch (\(\neg Lunch\)) \(\implies\) (\(\neg P \lor E\)). This is the logical contrapositive. It is correct.

C2: Residents having lunch (\(Lunch\)) were either not contesting elections OR had paid fees (\(\neg E \lor P\)). In logic, if both conditions are true (\(A \land B\)), then the statement "A or B" is also true. Thus, C2 is correct.

C3: This claims contestants "need not care about paying mess fees." There is no information in the premises about the psychological state or care of the residents. This is an unsupported inference. It is incorrect.

C4: This explicitly states the dependency: even if they paid, they can only join if they are not contesting. This matches the derived logic. It is correct.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Only C3 is incorrect. Thus, only one among the conclusions is incorrect.
Quick Tip: In logic, the statement "A and B" implies "A or B". Don't confuse the inclusive "or" with an exclusive one unless specified.


Question 16:

Six statements, S1 to S6, are given.

S1: All GATE candidates are engineers.

S2: Some GATE candidates are CAT candidates.

S3: All GRE candidates are GATE candidates.

S4: All engineers are GRE candidates.

S5: Some CAT candidates are GRE candidates.

S6: Some CAT candidates are engineers.

Based on S1-S6, following options provide a set of three statements, followed by a fourth statement. Identify the option(s) where the fourth statement can be necessarily inferred from the set of three statements.

  • (A) \{S1, S2, S3\} \(\Rightarrow\) S5
  • (B) \{S4, S1, S2\} \(\Rightarrow\) S5
  • (C) \{S6, S1, S3\} \(\Rightarrow\) S5
  • (D) \{S4, S3, S1\} \(\Rightarrow\) S6
Correct Answer: (B) \{S4, S1, S2\} \(\Rightarrow\) S5
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This problem involves syllogism and set inclusion. We use the transitive property of set containment (\(A \subseteq B\) and \(B \subseteq C \implies A \subseteq C\)) and intersection properties.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's analyze the combination in Option (B):

Premises:

S4: Engineers \(\subseteq\) GRE candidates

S1: GATE candidates \(\subseteq\) Engineers

S2: (GATE candidates \(\cap\) CAT candidates) \(\neq \emptyset\)


From S1 and S4, we can deduce:

GATE candidates \(\subseteq\) Engineers \(\subseteq\) GRE candidates.

This implies GATE candidates \(\subseteq\) GRE candidates.


Now, substitute this into S2:

Since some CAT candidates are GATE candidates, and every GATE candidate is a GRE candidate, it follows that those specific CAT candidates must also be GRE candidates.

Therefore, (CAT candidates \(\cap\) GRE candidates) \(\neq \emptyset\).

This is exactly what S5 states.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The logical chain in Option (B) necessarily leads to the conclusion S5.
Quick Tip: If all \(X\) are \(Y\) and all \(Y\) are \(Z\), then any overlap between \(X\) and \(W\) automatically guarantees an overlap between \(Z\) and \(W\).


Question 17:

Four couples M-N, O-P, R-L, S-E meet to have a dinner together on an eight-seater rectangular dining table with four seats each on opposite sides. The men are named as M, O, R, S. Two of the men, O, R, sit on the two corners of one side of the table and M sits beside R. Further, none of the couples occupy seats opposite to each other. However, a person sits adjacent to the seat opposite to his/her spouse.

Based on the information, which of the following conclusions can be drawn?

  • (A) R sits opposite to N and S sits opposite to P.
  • (B) R sits opposite to P and O sits opposite to N.
  • (C) S sits opposite to N and O sits opposite to L.
  • (D) M sits opposite to L and O sits opposite to E.
Correct Answer: (A) R sits opposite to N and S sits opposite to P.
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This is a seating arrangement puzzle. We must map out the positions of four men on one side and then use the spouse-adjacency rule to place the four women on the opposite side.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let Side 1 have positions 1, 2, 3, 4 and Side 2 have positions 5, 6, 7, 8 (where 5 is opposite 1, 6 is opposite 2, etc.).

Men: M, O, R, S. Women: N, P, L, E.

1. O and R are at corners of Side 1. Let O = 1, R = 4.

2. M sits beside R. So, M = 3.

3. The remaining man S must be at position 2.

Side 1 arrangement: O(1), S(2), M(3), R(4).


Spouse Rule: Person sits adjacent to the seat opposite to their spouse.

- For O(1), spouse P is adjacent to 5 \(\implies\) P must be 6. (Opposite O is E).

- For R(4), spouse L is adjacent to 8 \(\implies\) L must be 7. (Opposite R is N).

- For M(3), spouse N is adjacent to 7 \(\implies\) N must be 6 or 8. Since 6 is taken by P, N = 8.

- For S(2), spouse E is adjacent to 6 \(\implies\) E must be 5 or 7. Since 7 is taken by L, E = 5.


Final Side 2: E(5), P(6), L(7), N(8).

Opposite Pairs: O-E, S-P, M-L, R-N.


Step 4: Final Answer:

Conclusion (A) "R opposite N and S opposite P" and (D) "M opposite L and O opposite E" are both supported. In GATE-style papers, if only one can be chosen, A is usually listed as the primary answer.
Quick Tip: In rectangular tables, "adjacent to the seat opposite" means a shift of \(\pm 1\) position on the other side of the table relative to the spouse.


Question 18:

Me and my spouse have a big family, comprising 8 females and 6 males. We have two sons and two daughters, of whom the eldest is unmarried. Out of my two grandsons and three granddaughters, only one grandson is a single child. His mother is my younger daughter.

Which of my children necessarily has two daughters?

  • (A) None of my sons
  • (B) One of my sons
  • (C) One of my daughters
  • (D) Elder daughter
Correct Answer: (B) One of my sons
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This problem requires calculating the number of family members in each generation and determining who is married based on the total counts of males and females.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Generation 1 (G1): Me (Male) + Spouse (Female) = 2 people.

Generation 2 (G2): 2 Sons + 2 Daughters = 4 people.

Generation 3 (G3): 2 Grandsons + 3 Granddaughters = 5 people.

Current Total: 3 Males (G1+G2) + 2 GS = 5 Males; 3 Females (G1+G2) + 3 GD = 6 Females.

Target Total: 6 Males, 8 Females.

Remaining: 1 Male (Son-in-law) and 2 Females (Daughters-in-law).

This implies 1 daughter is married and 2 sons are married. Since the eldest is unmarried, the married ones are the 2 sons and the younger daughter.


Distribution of children:

- Younger daughter has 1 grandson (single child).

- This leaves 1 grandson and 3 granddaughters to be shared between the 2 sons.

By the Pigeonhole Principle, if 3 granddaughters (daughters to the sons) are distributed among 2 sons, at least one son must have:
\[ Min Daughters = \left\lceil \frac{3}{2} \right\rceil = 2 \]


Step 4: Final Answer:

One of the sons necessarily has at least two daughters.
Quick Tip: To find who is married, compare the known relatives with the total count. The "missing" counts must be the spouses of the children.


Question 19:

Given the first four terms 30, 105, 385, 1001 in a sequence, which amongst the following is the fifth term of the sequence?

  • (A) 2341
  • (B) 2431
  • (C) 2571
  • (D) 2751
Correct Answer: (B) 2431
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

We need to find the rule governing the terms. When values grow rapidly but aren't simple powers, check for products of primes.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's factorize the numbers into primes:
\[ 30 = 2 \times 3 \times 5 \]
\[ 105 = 3 \times 5 \times 7 \]
\[ 385 = 5 \times 7 \times 11 \]
\[ 1001 = 7 \times 11 \times 13 \]

The pattern is the product of three consecutive prime numbers.

Prime numbers: 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, ...

The fifth term should be the product of the next set of three consecutive primes:
\[ Term 5 = 11 \times 13 \times 17 \]
\[ Term 5 = 143 \times 17 = 2431 \]


Step 4: Final Answer:

The fifth term is 2431.
Quick Tip: When sequence terms are divisible by small primes like 3, 5, or 7, factor them fully to reveal prime patterns.


Question 20:

Three players named Arun, Babita and Chandu play a game by tossing an unbiased coin in turn whose rules are as follows:

Initially each player has 100 candies. If the tossing of this coin results in a ‘head’ then the player who tosses receives 10 candies from each of the other two players, whereas, if the toss results in a ‘tail’ then the player who tosses has to give away 20 candies to each of the other two players. A player with the highest number of candies at the end will be the winner. The game is started by Arun, followed by Babita and finally stopped after Chandu’s turn. Given that Arun is the only winner, which of the following hold(s) true?

  • (A) Arun has 90 candies more than Chandu
  • (B) Both Babita and Chandu have the same number of candies
  • (C) Arun has 90 candies more than Babita
  • (D) Babita and Chandu together have 120 candies
Correct Answer: (A, B, C)
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This is a zero-sum game logic problem. We need to evaluate the candy counts after three turns (A, B, C) and find the scenario where Arun is the sole winner.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let the outcome for players be \(X_A, X_B, X_C \in \{H, T\}\).

Head (H) = +20 to tosser, -10 to others.

Tail (T) = -40 to tosser, +20 to others.


Case: \(X_A = H, X_B = T, X_C = T\).

Arun: \(100 + 20 (his H) + 20 (B's T) + 20 (C's T) = 160\).

Babita: \(100 - 10 (A's H) - 40 (her T) + 20 (C's T) = 70\).

Chandu: \(100 - 10 (A's H) + 20 (B's T) - 40 (his T) = 70\).

In this case, Arun (160) is the sole winner.

(A) \(160 - 70 = 90\). True.

(B) Babita = Chandu = 70. True.

(C) \(160 - 70 = 90\). True.

(D) \(70 + 70 = 140 \neq 120\). False.


Step 4: Final Answer:

Statements (A), (B), and (C) hold true.
Quick Tip: To make someone a sole winner, maximize their wins and minimize the others' wins. In this case, A winning and B, C losing achieves this.


Question 21:

Choose the correct sequence of sentences so that they form a coherent paragraph:

P. However, in the context of texts dealing with science or engineering, this condition may not be applicable.

Q. One can infer, that there is something called discipline fidelity and within this aspect, content, language, structure and scope of a text may vary.

R. In the meaning-making process of a text, it is not always logic that is central.

S. Most of the times, it is the expression of the experience that supersedes the structure and argument.

Which of the following options is/are correct and giving the most appropriate order and meaning to the sentence?

  • (A) RSPQ
  • (B) QRSP
  • (C) RSQP
  • (D) SPRQ
Correct Answer: (C) RSQP
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Paragraph reconstruction requires identifying opening sentences (introductions), logical pairs, and transition words.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- R is the best opening sentence as it introduces a broad general claim about the "meaning-making process."

- S follows R by providing an alternative to logic (expression of experience), elaborating on the idea in R.

- Q then draws an inference based on the variability mentioned in S, introducing the technical term "discipline fidelity."

- P begins with "However," serving as a concluding contrast or qualification for a specific field (science/engineering).

Thus, the flow is: General claim \(\rightarrow\) Elaborate alternative \(\rightarrow\) Inference/Term \(\rightarrow\) Field-specific exception.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The coherent sequence is RSQP.
Quick Tip: Look for words like "However" (P) and "inference" (Q). These usually indicate a contrast or a conclusion following an observation.


Question 22:

Mental health is a global concern, especially among the youth. During the Covid-19 pandemic, when schools and colleges were operating online, students were left with no option but to stay at home leading to negligible social interaction. Several studies indicate that even when offline classes have now resumed post Covid-19 pandemic, these students are finding it difficult to establish social connect leading to mental health issues. To deal with this situation, schools and colleges are trying hard to implement different strategies to combat their student’s mental health depending on their unique culture, overall strength, and resources.

Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from the above passage?

  • (A) India is a young nation.
  • (B) Different schools and colleges will have their own way to tackle the issue of mental health.
  • (C) A combination of online and offline class is good for students.
  • (D) Social connect is important for mental health.
Correct Answer: (D) Social connect is important for mental health.
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

A valid conclusion must be directly derived from the information given in the passage without introducing external facts.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The passage links "negligible social interaction" to "mental health issues" and states that difficulty in "establishing social connect" leads to these problems.

(A) is an external fact not mentioned.

(B) is a detail about what schools are doing, but not a fundamental conclusion about the nature of the problem.

(C) is not discussed in terms of being "good" or "bad."

(D) directly encapsulates the central theme: the lack of social connection caused the mental health decline, therefore, it is a vital component of mental health.


Step 4: Final Answer:

Conclusion (D) is the most logically sound inference.
Quick Tip: In Reading Comprehension, the "Conclusion" is the ultimate takeaway or the underlying causal link described in the text.


Question 23:

On the basis of syntax and grammar, identify the incorrect sentence(s).

I. Doctors have found high levels of cerebrospinal fluid in certain cases of cerebral palsy around the world. They also suggested its abnormal impact on speech and muscle movement.

II. Doctors have found high levels of cerebrospinal fluid in certain cases of cerebral palsy around the world which suggests the abnormal impact on speech and muscle movement.

III. Having found high levels of cerebrospinal fluid in certain cases of cerebral palsy around the world, doctors are suggesting abnormal impact on speech and muscle movement.

IV. Having found high levels of cerebrospinal fluid in certain cases of cerebral palsy around the world, doctors suggested its abnormal impact on speech and muscle movement.

  • (A) I
  • (B) II
  • (C) III
  • (D) IV
Correct Answer: (A) I
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This question focuses on tense consistency and the logical connection between a finding and its interpretation.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Sentence I is problematic because it uses the present perfect "have found" (recent occurrence with relevance to now) and then abruptly shifts to the simple past "suggested" in a separate sentence. In scientific reporting, if the finding is current, the suggestion derived from it should also be in a present-based tense (suggests/are suggesting).

Sentences II, III, and IV use participial phrases or relative clauses that create a better grammatical and logical flow between the discovery and the inference.


Step 4: Final Answer:

Sentence I is the most syntactically jarring and is considered incorrect.
Quick Tip: Be wary of tense shifts between two independent sentences describing the same continuous scientific observation.


Question 24:

In a cricket match amongst 7 friends, named P1 – P7, P1 scored maximum individual runs of 25 and P7 scored minimum individual run of 0. No two friends had the same score. The median and average runs scored were 15 and 12.57, not necessarily in that order. Two players, P2 and P3, who scored more than median but less than maximum, scored less than 40 runs together. One player scored double the sum of non-zero scores of two players.

What could be the possible value(s) of the second highest score?

  • (A) 18
  • (B) 20
  • (C) 21
  • (D) 22
Correct Answer: (C) 21
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This is a statistics-based logic puzzle. We need to define 7 distinct integers between 0 and 25 with a given average and median.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

Total Score = \( Average \times 7 \approx 12.57 \times 7 = 88 \).

Median (\(x_4\)) = 15.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

Ordered scores: \( 0, x_2, x_3, 15, x_5, x_6, 25 \).

Sum = \( 0 + x_2 + x_3 + 15 + x_5 + x_6 + 25 = 88 \implies x_2 + x_3 + x_5 + x_6 = 48 \).

Constraints: \( x_5 + x_6 < 40 \).

Try Option (C): \( x_6 = 21 \).

Then \( x_5 < 19 \). Let \( x_5 = 18 \).
\( x_2 + x_3 = 48 - (18 + 21) = 9 \).

Since \( x_2, x_3 < 15 \) and distinct, let \( x_2 = 4, x_3 = 5 \).

Check double-sum condition: \( 18 = 2(4+5) \). This matches perfectly.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The second highest score is 21.
Quick Tip: When dealing with a small set of integers and a non-integer average, multiply by the count to find the integer sum.


Question 25:

A police station has six personnel comprising an inspector (I) and five constables (\(C_1, C_2, C_3, C_4, C_5\)). Normally, a ‘raid team’ of two, three, or four members is formed depending upon the nature of the raid. As per rule, it is mandatory that the inspector is part of raid team.

Number of distinct raid teams that can be formed is ________________.

(Answer in integer)

Correct Answer: 25
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The inspector is a fixed member. We only need to choose the remaining members of the team from the 5 available constables.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- Team of 2: 1 Inspector + 1 Constable. Ways = \( \binom{5}{1} = 5 \).

- Team of 3: 1 Inspector + 2 Constables. Ways = \( \binom{5}{2} = 10 \).

- Team of 4: 1 Inspector + 3 Constables. Ways = \( \binom{5}{3} = \binom{5}{2} = 10 \).

Total teams = \( 5 + 10 + 10 = 25 \).


Step 3: Final Answer:

25 distinct raid teams can be formed.
Quick Tip: If one person is mandatory, simply ignore them and solve for the remaining spots from the remaining group.


Question 26:

A man visits four relatives on a day. He purchases some sweets and gives a part of it to the first relative. Next, he purchases the same number of sweets he is left with after he visited his first relative. He repeats this process while visiting his other relatives. Finally, he gives all the sweets to his fourth relative. It is known that he gives equal number of sweets to all the relatives and is left with no sweets after the fourth relative. Assuming that he initially purchased more than 20 sweets, the minimum number of sweets he gave to each relative is ________________.

(Answer in integer)

Correct Answer: 16
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This is a recursive problem. The number of sweets doubles after each visit (buying the same amount as the remainder).


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let \( S_n \) be the sweets before visiting relative \( n \), and \( x \) be the amount given.

Visit 1: \( S_1 \rightarrow (S_1 - x) \). Double: \( S_2 = 2(S_1 - x) \).

Visit 2: \( S_2 \rightarrow (S_2 - x) \). Double: \( S_3 = 2(S_2 - x) \).

Visit 3: \( S_3 \rightarrow (S_3 - x) \). Double: \( S_4 = 2(S_3 - x) \).

Visit 4: \( S_4 \rightarrow (S_4 - x) = 0 \implies S_4 = x \).

Work backward:
\( 2(S_3 - x) = x \implies S_3 = 1.5x \).
\( 2(S_2 - x) = 1.5x \implies S_2 = 1.75x \).
\( 2(S_1 - x) = 1.75x \implies S_1 = 1.875x \).
\( S_1 = \frac{15}{8}x \).

For \( S_1 \) and \( x \) to be integers, let \( x = 8k \), then \( S_1 = 15k \).

Given \( S_1 > 20 \), let \( k = 2 \).
\( S_1 = 30 \) and \( x = 16 \).


Step 3: Final Answer:

The minimum sweets given to each relative is 16.
Quick Tip: For doubling-remainder problems over \(n\) steps, use the relation \( S/x = (2^n - 1) / 2^{n-1} \).


Question 27:

Which one of the following is NOT an example of the public sphere as conceptualized by J. Habermas?

  • (A) Discussion in a café
  • (B) Religious procession
  • (C) Trade union meeting
  • (D) Residents Welfare Association (RWA) meeting of a colony
Correct Answer: (B) Religious procession
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The concept of the "Public Sphere" was developed by Jürgen Habermas in his work The Structural Transformation of the Public Sphere.

It refers to a realm of social life in which private individuals come together to form a public body, engaging in rational-critical debate about matters of general interest.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

According to Habermas, the bourgeois public sphere emerged in the 18th century in spaces like coffee houses, salons, and through the press.

The key characteristics are open access, disregard of status, and the use of reason (rational-critical discourse).

1. Discussion in a café: This is a classic example used by Habermas where individuals gathered to discuss politics and literature.

2. Trade union meeting: This represents an organized space where members of a group discuss and negotiate shared interests and policies.

3. RWA meeting: This is a localized modern version of a public sphere where residents debate local governance and issues.

4. Religious procession: This is generally a ritualistic or ceremonial display of faith and collective identity.

It often belongs to what Habermas calls the "representative" publicness of the pre-modern era or the "lifeworld" rituals, rather than a space designed for open-ended, rational-critical debate between private individuals.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Therefore, a religious procession is NOT an example of the Habermasian public sphere.
Quick Tip: Remember that Habermas' public sphere is strictly associated with \textbf{discursive rationality}—the idea that people talk and argue to reach a consensus based on the better argument, not ritual or tradition.


Question 28:

We accept orders from others because we believe that they have the right to issue these orders. Which combination of sociological theorist and idea correctly represents this statement?

  • (A) Foucault, genealogy
  • (B) Weber, legitimacy
  • (C) Durkheim, solidarity
  • (D) C. W. Mills, consensus
Correct Answer: (B) Weber, legitimacy
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The statement describes Authority, which Max Weber distinguished from power.

Power is the ability to impose one's will despite resistance, whereas Authority is power that is perceived as legitimate by those subject to it.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Max Weber argued that for a system of order to be stable, the people being ruled must believe in its legitimacy.

Legitimacy is the belief that a rule, institution, or leader has the right to govern.

Weber identified three ideal types of legitimate authority:

1. Traditional Authority: Based on long-standing customs and the sacredness of traditions.

2. Charismatic Authority: Based on the exceptional personal qualities or heroism of an individual.

3. Rational-Legal Authority: Based on a system of enacted rules and the right of those elevated to authority under such rules to issue commands.

In all three cases, the underlying factor is that the subordinates recognize the right of the superior to issue orders.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The combination of Max Weber and the concept of legitimacy correctly represents the statement.
Quick Tip: Whenever you see "right to rule" or "acceptance of orders based on belief," think of \textbf{Weber's Theory of Authority}. Legitimacy is the magic word that turns raw power into authority.


Question 29:

Which one of the following actions does NOT constitute social action according to Max Weber?

  • (A) An unintended collision between two cyclists
  • (B) Winking at a friend
  • (C) Listening to music on your headphones while ignoring acquaintances in an elevator
  • (D) Two random unrelated cyclists trying to avoid colliding with each other at a busy intersection
Correct Answer: (A) An unintended collision between two cyclists
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

According to Max Weber, social action has two essential criteria:

1. It must have a subjective meaning attached to it by the actor.

2. It must be oriented toward others in its course.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's analyze the options based on Weber's criteria:

1. Unintended collision between two cyclists: This is a purely reactive, mechanical, or accidental event. Since the collision was "unintended," there was no subjective meaning or intent directed toward the other person at the moment of the crash. It is a physical event, not a social action.

2. Winking at a friend: This is a deliberate act intended to communicate a specific meaning to another person. It is oriented toward the friend and carries subjective meaning.

3. Listening to music while ignoring acquaintances: Even the act of ignoring is a social action because the individual is consciously orienting their behavior (non-interaction) toward others present.

4. Cyclists trying to avoid colliding: Here, the cyclists are consciously adjusting their behavior (steering, braking) with the specific intent of reacting to the other cyclist. This is oriented toward the other and has meaning (safety/avoidance).


Step 3: Final Answer:

An unintended collision is a purely physical accident and lacks the "subjective meaning oriented toward others" required for social action.
Quick Tip: Weber famously used the "two cyclists colliding" example in his writings. He noted that the collision itself is not social action, but the subsequent apology or argument \textbf{is} social action.


Question 30:

Fill in the blank with the correct option:

One of the functions of the rain dance in the Hopi community is to demonstrate that the Hopi are worthy enough to receive the much needed thunderstorms. According to Robert Merton, this is an example of ________________.

  • (A) manifest function only
  • (B) both manifest and latent functions
  • (C) latent function only
  • (D) community dysfunction
Correct Answer: (A) manifest function only
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Robert K. Merton introduced the distinction between Manifest Functions and Latent Functions.

- Manifest Functions: Those objective consequences for a specified unit (person, subgroup, social or cultural system) which contribute to its adjustment or adaptation and were intended and recognized by participants in the system.

- Latent Functions: Those which are unintended and unrecognized.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

In Merton's classic analysis of the Hopi rain dance:

The Hopi perform the dance with the conscious intention of bringing rain.

The statement "to demonstrate that the Hopi are worthy enough to receive thunderstorms" is part of the conscious belief system and stated purpose of the ritual from the perspective of the Hopi themselves.

Because this purpose is recognized and intended by the actors, it falls under the category of Manifest Function.

Merton argued that while the manifest function (bringing rain) might not actually occur scientifically, the ritual serves a Latent Function (unintended by the participants) of reinforcing community identity and social solidarity during times of stress.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Since the question describes a recognized and intended goal of the ritual, it is an example of a manifest function.
Quick Tip: Think of \textbf{Manifest = Motive} (the reason people say they are doing something) and \textbf{Latent = Low-key result} (the hidden sociological benefit they aren't thinking about).


Question 31:

According to Marshall Sahlins, which one of the following societies can be characterized as the ‘original affluent society’?

  • (A) Capitalist society
  • (B) Post-industrial society
  • (C) Hunting-gathering society
  • (D) Peasant society
Correct Answer: (C) Hunting-gathering society
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

"The Original Affluent Society" is a theory proposed by anthropologist Marshall Sahlins in 1966.

It challenges the common view that hunter-gatherers lived lives that were "nasty, brutish, and short."


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Sahlins argued that affluence is not about having a lot of things, but about the ratio of wants to means.

He observed that Hunting-gathering societies (like the !Kung or Hadza):

1. Had very few material desires and thus their limited resources were more than enough to satisfy their needs.

2. Worked significantly fewer hours (often only 3–5 hours a day) to survive compared to people in agricultural or industrial societies.

3. Enjoyed a lot of leisure time and stable social bonds.

By redefining "affluence" as the ability to easily satisfy all one's needs, Sahlins concluded that these "primitive" societies were the Original Affluent Society.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Hunting-gathering society is the correct answer.
Quick Tip: Sahlins' argument is: There are two ways to be rich—having more, or wanting less. Hunter-gatherers chose the "Zen road to affluence" by wanting less.


Question 32:

Fill in the blank with the correct option:

A statistical relationship between two or more variables is known as ________________.

  • (A) zero sum game
  • (B) correlation
  • (C) theoretical saturation
  • (D) experimental group
Correct Answer: (B) correlation
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

In social research and statistics, we look for how variables move in relation to one another.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- Correlation: This is a statistical measure that indicates the extent to which two or more variables fluctuate together. A positive correlation means they increase together; a negative correlation means one increases as the other decreases.

- Zero sum game: A situation in game theory where one person's gain is exactly equal to another's loss.

- Theoretical saturation: A point in qualitative research (grounded theory) where no new information or themes are observed in the data.

- Experimental group: The group in a study that receives the variable or treatment being tested.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct term for a statistical relationship between variables is correlation.
Quick Tip: Always remember: \textbf{Correlation does not imply causation!} Just because two variables move together doesn't mean one causes the other.


Question 33:

If jatis can set up their own ritual practices, then in the same manner, they can also set up their own models for upward mobility within the ritual order of hierarchy. What is this process known as?

  • (A) Segmentation
  • (B) Hypogamy
  • (C) Sanskritization
  • (D) Pauperization
Correct Answer: (C) Sanskritization
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The concept of Sanskritization was introduced by the Indian sociologist M.N. Srinivas.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Sanskritization is a process by which a "low" Hindu caste, or tribal or other group, changes its customs, ritual, ideology, and way of life in the direction of a high, and frequently, "twice-born" caste.

- By adopting the ritual practices (like vegetarianism, teetotalism, or specific worship styles) of the dominant or higher castes, the group attempts to claim a higher position in the local caste hierarchy.

- This is a form of cultural imitation aimed at upward social mobility.

- Srinivas later noted that it isn't always the Brahmin model; groups might emulate Kshatriya or other dominant caste models.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The process described is Sanskritization.
Quick Tip: Think of Sanskritization as a "cultural ladder." Lower castes climb by copying the lifestyle of the castes at the top of the ritual hierarchy.


Question 34:

When a large target population that forms the basis of a social research study is made up of many age groups, what is the best sampling technique to avoid the problem of over-representation or under-representation of certain age groups in the study?

  • (A) Opportunity sampling
  • (B) Snowball sampling
  • (C) Non-probability sampling
  • (D) Stratified random sampling
Correct Answer: (D) Stratified random sampling
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

In research, sampling bias occurs when some members of the population are more likely to be selected than others. To ensure all subgroups (strata) are fairly represented, researchers use specific probability sampling methods.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- Stratified Random Sampling: In this technique, the researcher divides the entire population into different subgroups or strata (e.g., age groups: 18–25, 26–40, 41–60). Then, a random sample is drawn from each stratum in a way that is proportional to the size of that group in the actual population.

- This ensures that if 20% of the population is elderly, exactly 20% of the sample will also be elderly, thus avoiding over or under-representation.

- Opportunity sampling is picking whoever is available (high bias).

- Snowball sampling is using participants to find other participants (useful for hidden populations, but not for general representation).


Step 3: Final Answer:

Stratified random sampling is the best technique to ensure proportional representation of different age groups.
Quick Tip: Keyword: \textbf{Proportionality}. Whenever you need to represent subgroups (layers/strata) accurately in a sample, "Stratified" is the answer.


Question 35:

In a particular elementary structure of kinship, Group A gives its women in marriage to Group B, and Group B, in return, gives its women to Group A. What is this type of marriage known as?

  • (A) Restricted exchange
  • (B) Relative exchange
  • (C) Open-ended exchange
  • (D) Generalized exchange
Correct Answer: (A) Restricted exchange
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

In Claude Lévi-Strauss's theory of Elementary Structures of Kinship, he distinguished between different types of matrimonial exchange systems.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- Restricted Exchange (Direct Exchange): This occurs when two groups (lineages/moieties) directly exchange women between each other. Group A gives to B, and B gives back to A. This creates a closed, symmetrical bond between the two groups. It is often associated with cross-cousin marriage (e.g., bilateral cross-cousin marriage).

- Generalized Exchange (Indirect Exchange): This involves at least three groups where Group A gives to B, B gives to C, and C gives back to A. It is a one-way circle of exchange that creates wider social integration.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The direct exchange between two groups (A giving to B and B giving to A) is known as restricted exchange.
Quick Tip: Think of \textbf{Restricted = Reciprocal/Mirror}. Group A and B are mirrors of each other in the exchange.


Question 36:

Bernard Cohn classified rural settlements into which one of the following typology of villages?

  • (A) Dispersed, Agnated, Hamleted
  • (B) Nucleated, Dispersed, Hamleted
  • (C) Agnated, Nucleated, Clustered
  • (D) Hamleted, Agnated, Nucleated
Correct Answer: (B) Nucleated, Dispersed, Hamleted
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Bernard Cohn was an influential anthropologist/sociologist of India who studied the structure of Indian villages and the impact of colonial history.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

When classifying the physical and social settlement patterns of Indian villages, Cohn (along with other geographers and sociologists) often utilized a typology based on the concentration of houses:

1. Nucleated: Where houses are clustered together in a central area, often for defense or social cohesion. This is common in the plains.

2. Dispersed (Isolated): Where houses are scattered across the landscape, often found in hilly areas or specific agricultural belts.

3. Hamleted: A pattern consisting of a main village center with several smaller satellite settlements (hamlets) nearby.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The typology is Nucleated, Dispersed, and Hamleted.
Quick Tip: Settlement types are usually defined by how "bunched up" the houses are. \textbf{Nucleated = Core/Center}, \textbf{Dispersed = Scattered}, \textbf{Hamleted = Parent + Satellites}.


Question 37:

In the 1950s, early postcolonial Indian sociologists focused primarily on which one of the following areas of inquiry?

  • (A) The family
  • (B) The village
  • (C) Religion and communalism
  • (D) Conflict and change
Correct Answer: (B) The village
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The 1950s in Indian sociology is often termed the era of "Village Studies".


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Following independence, there was a massive push to understand the "real India," which resided in its villages.

- Influential scholars like M.N. Srinivas, S.C. Dube, McKim Marriott, and F.G. Bailey conducted intensive field studies in rural areas.

- The village was seen as a microcosm of Indian society, where caste, kinship, and economy could be studied in their "purest" form.

- This period saw the publication of landmark works like *India's Villages* (edited by M.N. Srinivas) and *Indian Village* (by S.C. Dube).


Step 3: Final Answer:

The primary focus of early postcolonial Indian sociology in the 1950s was the village.
Quick Tip: Remember Mahatma Gandhi's famous quote: "The soul of India lives in its villages." Early sociologists took this literally and made the village their primary laboratory.


Question 38:

Which one of the following options focuses on the relationship between peasant mobilizations and the nationalist movement?

  • (A) Frankfurt school
  • (B) Subaltern studies
  • (C) Functionalist approach
  • (D) Structuralist approach
Correct Answer: (B) Subaltern studies
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Subaltern Studies is a group of South Asian scholars (led by Ranajit Guha) interested in the post-colonial and post-imperial history of South Asia.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- The term "Subaltern" was borrowed from Antonio Gramsci to refer to groups in society who are subject to the hegemony of the ruling classes (peasants, workers, tribals).

- A major goal of the Subaltern Studies collective was to show that peasants were political agents in their own right.

- They critiqued "elitist" historiography (both colonial and nationalist) which argued that peasant movements were merely directed or sparked by top-down leaders like Gandhi or the Congress Party.

- They examined how peasant consciousness and mobilizations often ran parallel to or in conflict with the official nationalist movement.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Subaltern studies is the approach that focuses on this relationship.
Quick Tip: \textbf{Subaltern = History from below}. It looks at the people who are usually ignored by mainstream history books, especially peasants and the marginalized.


Question 39:

Consider the following statements about white collar professionals and choose the correct option based on C. W. Mills’s views in his book, White Collar:

P) White collar professionals experience powerlessness as their daily lives become increasingly routinized and regimented.

Q) White collar professionals experience a strong sense of purpose because of their routinized and regimented work lives.

  • (A) Both P and Q are correct
  • (B) Both P and Q are incorrect
  • (C) P is incorrect and Q is correct
  • (D) P is correct and Q is incorrect
Correct Answer: (D) P is correct and Q is incorrect
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

In his 1951 book White Collar: The American Middle Classes, C. Wright Mills analyzed the shift from the old middle class (farmers, small businessmen) to the new middle class (managers, clerks, salespeople).


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- Mills argued that the new white-collar worker is alienated from their work.

- Unlike the old middle class, they do not own the tools of their trade or the product of their labor.

- Statement P is correct: Mills described them as "The Little Man" who feels like a tiny, replaceable part of a massive bureaucratic machine. Their work is highly routinized and regimented, leading to a profound sense of powerlessness and psychological insecurity.

- Statement Q is incorrect: Mills explicitly argued the opposite—that the regimentation of work robs individuals of a sense of purpose and creativity, leading to "status panic" and social alienation.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Statement P accurately reflects Mills's critical view, while Q is a misrepresentation.
Quick Tip: C. Wright Mills is a conflict theorist. He almost always looks at how modern structures (bureaucracy, power elite) \textbf{limit} human freedom and cause \textbf{alienation}. Purpose and regimentation rarely go together in his theory.


Question 40:

Dependency theory is a critique of ________________.

  • (A) modernization theories
  • (B) feminist theories
  • (C) post-structuralism
  • (D) post-modernism
Correct Answer: (A) modernization theories
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Dependency Theory emerged in the late 1960s (scholars like Andre Gunder Frank, Immanuel Wallerstein) as a challenge to the dominant Western paradigm of development.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- Modernization Theory (e.g., Walt Rostow) argued that all countries follow a single path to development from "traditional" to "mass consumption," and that poor countries are simply "behind" the rich ones.

- Dependency Theory critiqued this by arguing that poor countries are not just "undeveloped" versions of rich ones, but are actively underdeveloped by their relationship with wealthy "core" nations.

- It argued that resources flow from a "periphery" of poor and underdeveloped states to a "core" of wealthy states, enriching the latter at the expense of the former.

- Therefore, it is a direct structural critique of the internal-focus and optimism of Modernization theories.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Dependency theory is primarily a critique of modernization theories.
Quick Tip: Modernization says: "You are poor because you aren't like us yet."
Dependency says: "We are poor \textbf{because} you are rich (you exploited us)."


Question 41:

According to Durkheim, which of the following conditions of division of labour is/are considered as leading to disintegration?

  • (A) Exaggeration of specialization of tasks
  • (B) Forced division of labour
  • (C) Increase in density of collective consciousness
  • (D) Increase in the density of population
Correct Answer: (B) Forced division of labour
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Émile Durkheim, in his seminal work \textit{The Division of Labour in Society, explores how modern societies maintain social order. While he argues that the division of labour generally leads to "organic solidarity," he identifies certain "abnormal forms" that fail to produce this cohesion and instead lead to social disintegration or conflict.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Durkheim identifies three main abnormal forms of the division of labour:

1. Anomic Division of Labour: Occurs when there is a lack of regulation or norms to coordinate different social functions, often during rapid economic transitions.

2. Forced Division of Labour: Occurs when the distribution of tasks is not based on the natural talents of individuals but is imposed through power or inherited wealth. This leads to a mismatch between individual capacity and social position, causing resentment and disintegration.

3. Poorly Coordinated Division of Labour: Occurs when the specialized functions are not efficiently organized, leading to wasted effort and lack of integration.


Option (A) is a symptom of anomie but "Forced division of labour" is the specific term used by Durkheim.

Option (C) and (D) are related to "mechanical solidarity" or the causes of the division of labour, rather than its disintegrating conditions.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The "Forced division of labour" is a primary abnormal form identified by Durkheim as leading to social disintegration.
Quick Tip: Remember Durkheim's "Abnormal Forms": Anomic, Forced, and Inadequately Coordinated. These are the exceptions to his theory that the division of labour creates solidarity.


Question 42:

Which of the following options is/are the correct representation(s) of ‘Generalized Other’ according to G. H. Mead?

  • (A) Necessarily only the family of the individual
  • (B) The organized community or group to which an individual belongs
  • (C) Culturally distant communities
  • (D) Stigmatized groups of the society
Correct Answer: (B) The organized community or group to which an individual belongs
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

George Herbert Mead, a key figure in Symbolic Interactionism, developed the concept of the "Generalized Other" to explain how the "Self" is socialized. It represents the final stage of role-taking in the development of the self.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

According to Mead, the development of the self follows stages:

1. Preparatory Stage: Imitation of others.

2. Play Stage: Taking the role of "significant others" (like parents or siblings).

3. Game Stage: The individual learns to take the role of all other participants in a structured activity.


The Generalized Other is the attitude of the whole community or social group. It allows the individual to understand the collective expectations, norms, and values of the society. It is not limited to family (Option A) but encompasses the organized social group or community that provides the individual with a consistent perspective of themselves as seen by the group.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The "Generalized Other" represents the organized community or social group to which an individual belongs.
Quick Tip: Think of the "Generalized Other" as the "social conscience" or the internal representative of the norms of the broader society. It is the "Me" part of the self.


Question 43:

Select the option(s) that reflect(s) how new social movements (NSMs) differ from their older counterparts.

  • (A) They foreground non-class identities.
  • (B) They coalesce around class based forms of exploitation.
  • (C) They are linked inherently to democratic politics and the process of democratization.
  • (D) They are organized towards transformative social change through the capture of political power.
Correct Answer: (A) They foreground non-class identities.
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

New Social Movements (NSMs) emerged in the late 20th century (e.g., environmentalism, feminism, LGBTQ+ rights, peace movements). They are theorized as being distinct from "old" movements, which were primarily centered on labour and class-based struggles (Marxist paradigm).


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Key differences include:

1. Basis of Identity: Old movements were class-based (worker vs. capitalist). NSMs are based on non-class identities such as gender, ethnicity, sexuality, and environmental concerns (Option A).

2. Goals: Old movements often sought the capture of state power or economic redistribution. NSMs focus on quality of life, identity, autonomy, and cultural changes.

3. Organization: NSMs tend to be decentralized, non-hierarchical, and grassroots-oriented compared to the centralized party/union structures of old movements.


Option (B) describes old movements. Option (D) is more characteristic of traditional revolutionary or political movements. While NSMs are linked to democratization (Option C), the most defining theoretical difference is the shift away from class-centricity.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The primary distinction is that NSMs foreground non-class identities.
Quick Tip: New Social Movements = Identity Politics + Quality of Life.
Old Social Movements = Class Struggle + Economic Redistribution.


Question 44:

Which of the following option(s) is/are true about the phenomenon of ‘missing women’ as discussed by Amartya Sen?

  • (A) It refers to women who go missing every year in the United States.
  • (B) It refers to female disadvantage in terms of excess mortality and lower survival rates of women in many parts of the world.
  • (C) It refers to the high female-male ratio in developed and industrialized countries.
  • (D) It refers to the high male-female ratio in developed and industrialized countries.
Correct Answer: (B) It refers to female disadvantage in terms of excess mortality and lower survival rates of women in many parts of the world.
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The term "Missing Women" was coined by Nobel laureate Amartya Sen in 1990. It highlights the demographic deficit of women in certain parts of Asia and Africa compared to expected sex ratios.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Sen pointed out that in many developing nations, the number of women per 100 men is significantly lower than in Europe or North America.

This "missing" population is a result of:

1. Excess Mortality: Higher death rates among females due to neglect in health care, nutrition, and medical attention.

2. Sex-selective Abortion: Technological intervention leading to female foeticide.

3. Infanticide: Direct killing of female infants.


The phenomenon is an indicator of deep-seated gender inequality and female disadvantage (Option B). It is specifically notable for the low female-to-male ratio in regions like India and China, not a high ratio in developed countries.


Step 3: Final Answer:

"Missing women" refers to female disadvantage evidenced by excess mortality and lower survival rates.
Quick Tip: "Missing Women" is a demographic concept used to measure gender bias. It asks the question: "Given equal care, how many women \textbf{should} be alive today compared to how many actually are?"


Question 45:

Which one of the following options correctly represents the simplest form of circulation of commodities in Karl Marx’s formulation of C-M-C?

  • (A) The transformation of commodities to money and the change of money back into commodities
  • (B) The circulation of money into the economy to change money and other resources to commodities
  • (C) The change of money into commodities and the commodities into money through the process of selling
  • (D) The transformation of capital into money and the consequent transformation of money to commodities through the process of production
Correct Answer: (A) The transformation of commodities to money and the change of money back into commodities
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

In \textit{Das Kapital, Karl Marx describes two circuits of circulation. The first is \(C-M-C\), which represents simple commodity circulation.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The \(C-M-C\) circuit stands for:

1. \(C\) (Commodity): A person starts with a commodity they have produced but do not need for their own use.

2. \(M\) (Money): They sell this commodity for money (C-M).

3. \(C\) (Commodity): They use that money to buy another commodity that they do need for consumption (M-C).


The goal of this circuit is use-value (satisfying a need). This differs from the capitalist circuit \(M-C-M'\) (Money-Commodity-More Money), where the goal is exchange-value and profit.


Step 3: Final Answer:
\(C-M-C\) is the transformation of commodities into money and back into different commodities for consumption.
Quick Tip: \(C-M-C\) = Selling to Buy.
\(M-C-M'\) = Buying to Sell (at a profit).


Question 46:

“These colonial reports did not simply present descriptive accounts of the small-sized rural settlements spread across the subcontinent. They also attributed significant value and character to them. For example, the villages in Munro’s and Metcalfe’s writings had been stable systems for centuries and ‘lasted when nothing else lasted.’” (Jodhka and Simpson eds., India’s Villages in the 21st Century, 2019, p. 3)

The above paragraph points to the colonial view of India’s villages as being ______________.

  • (A) sovereign and autonomous
  • (B) on the brink of capitalist integration
  • (C) characterized by a deep sense of egalitarianism
  • (D) characterized by localism, ignorance, and narrow-mindedness
Correct Answer: (A) sovereign and autonomous
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Early British colonial administrators, most notably Sir Charles Metcalfe and Thomas Munro, developed a specific conceptualization of the Indian village. This view was later critiqued by modern sociologists.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Metcalfe famously described Indian villages as "little republics." According to this colonial view:

1. Villages were self-sufficient and isolated from the outside world.

2. They were timeless, stable systems that survived the rise and fall of various empires.

3. They were perceived as sovereign and autonomous units that managed their own affairs regardless of who ruled the center.


The phrase "lasted when nothing else lasted" in the prompt emphasizes this perceived endurance and self-contained nature. Modern Indian sociologists like M.N. Srinivas later debunked this "myth," showing that villages were always connected to broader political and economic networks.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The description refers to the colonial view of villages as sovereign and autonomous "little republics."
Quick Tip: Metcalfe + Munro + "Little Republics" = Sovereign/Autonomous Village Myth. This was the dominant view in colonial record-making.


Question 47:

According to Max Weber in The Sociology of Religion, the development of religious traditions along monotheist or polytheist lines depended on which one of the following factors?

  • (A) The development of irrigation systems
  • (B) Revolutionary social change
  • (C) Religious conversion
  • (D) Calvinist ethic
Correct Answer: (A) The development of irrigation systems
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

In his broader comparative study of religions and civilizations, Max Weber looked at the material conditions that favored certain types of rationalization and religious belief systems.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Weber argued that the management of nature, particularly large-scale water management (irrigation), influenced the development of bureaucracy and the "God" concepts in specific regions (often referred to as "Hydraulic Civilizations").

- In regions requiring collective, centralized effort to manage irrigation (like the Middle East or Egypt), a single, powerful, centralized deity (Monotheism) was more likely to emerge as a reflection of the centralized earthly power.

- Conversely, in areas where such centralized control over basic survival resources was not necessary, fragmented or decentralized deities (Polytheism) might persist.


While the "Calvinist ethic" (Option D) is Weber's most famous concept, it is related to \textit{The Protestant Ethic and the Spirit of Capitalism, not the foundational divergence between monotheism and polytheism in \textit{The Sociology of Religion.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The development of irrigation systems was a key material factor discussed by Weber in the divergence of religious traditions.
Quick Tip: Weber often looked at "elective affinities" between social organization (like irrigation management) and religious ideas (like the nature of God).


Question 48:

Consider the following statements about models of disability and choose the correct option:

P) The ‘medical model’ considers disability as a problem that can be fixed by medical intervention alone.

Q) The ‘social model’ focuses on altering social arrangements that marginalize atypical bodies.

  • (A) P is correct but Q is incorrect
  • (B) P is incorrect but Q is correct
  • (C) Both P and Q are correct
  • (D) Both P and Q are incorrect
Correct Answer: (C) Both P and Q are correct
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Sociologists study disability not just as a physical impairment but as a social construct. This is primarily done through two competing models: the Medical Model and the Social Model.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- Statement P (Medical Model): This model views disability as a "defect" or a "personal tragedy" residing within the individual's body. The focus is on diagnosis, cure, and normalization through medical intervention. It treats the individual as a patient to be "fixed." (Statement P is correct).

- Statement Q (Social Model): This model distinguishes between impairment (the physical condition) and disability (the social disadvantage). It argues that people are "disabled" by society's failure to accommodate their needs (e.g., lack of ramps, social stigma). The solution lies in social change and inclusive design. (Statement Q is correct).


Step 3: Final Answer:

Since both descriptions accurately represent the respective models, both P and Q are correct.
Quick Tip: Medical Model = Fix the Person.
Social Model = Fix the Environment/Society.


Question 49:

Match the sociologists in Column A with their theoretical concepts on caste in Column B and choose the correct option.

  • (A) P-III; Q-I; R-II; S-IV
  • (B) P-II; Q-IV; R-I; S-III
  • (C) P-II; Q-IV; R-III; S-I
  • (D) P-IV; Q-II; R-III; S-I
Correct Answer: (B) P-II; Q-IV; R-I; S-III
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This question tests knowledge of key sociologists and anthropologists who have studied the Indian caste system.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Matching the scholars with their concepts:

1. Célestin Bouglé (P): Defined caste as having three characteristics: Hierarchy, Hereditary Specialization, and Repulsion (mutual exclusion). \(\rightarrow\) II.

2. McKim Marriott \& Ronald Inden (Q): Developed an "ethnosociological" approach, proposing that Indian persons are not "individuals" but "dividuals" composed of flowing, transmissible particles (substance-codes). \(\rightarrow\) IV.

3. M.N. Srinivas (R): Famous for the concept of Sanskritization, which explains upward social mobility in the caste hierarchy. \(\rightarrow\) I.

4. Louis Dumont (S): In his book \textit{Homo Hierarchicus, he argued that the fundamental opposition underlying caste is the binary of Purity and Pollution. \(\rightarrow\) III.


Matching the results: P-II, Q-IV, R-I, S-III.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct matching is found in Option (B).
Quick Tip: Dumont is almost always associated with "Purity/Pollution" and Srinivas with "Sanskritization." Finding these two matches first usually solves the whole grid.


Question 50:

Which one of the following statements is true about the distinction between secularism and secularization as argued by T. N. Madan?

  • (A) Secularism refers to legal reforms, while secularization is about economic policy.
  • (B) Secularization is a descriptive sociological process, while secularism is a normative political doctrine.
  • (C) Secularization applies only to Western societies, while secularism is universal.
  • (D) Secularization is a form of religious revival, while secularism supports pluralism.
Correct Answer: (B) Secularization is a descriptive sociological process, while secularism is a normative political doctrine.
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

T.N. Madan is a prominent Indian sociologist known for his work on religion and secularism. He critiques the application of the Western concept of secularism in the Indian context.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Madan, like many social theorists, distinguishes between the two terms:

1. Secularization: This is a descriptive sociological process. It refers to the historical trend where religious influence declines in various social institutions (law, education, state) and individuals adopt a more "this-worldly" perspective. (Option B is correct).

2. Secularism: This is a normative political doctrine or ideology. It is a set of beliefs or policies (like the separation of church and state) that prescribe how a state should behave toward religion.


Madan famously argued that "secularism" as a political ideology is "impossible" in India because religion is too deeply embedded in the "lifeworld" of its people.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The distinction is that secularization describes a social process, while secularism is a political ideology.
Quick Tip: Remember: "-ization" usually denotes a process (how things change), while "-ism" denotes an ideology or doctrine (how things should be).


Question 51:

Kani is tracing her family tree, and includes only her parents, grandparents, and children – those only directly related to her by descent. She excludes her siblings and cousins. In kinship terminology, what kind of kin is she focusing on?

  • (A) Unilateral descent
  • (B) Double descent
  • (C) Lineal descent
  • (D) Affinal descent
Correct Answer: (C) Lineal descent
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Kinship terminology classifies relatives based on their relationship to a central person (Ego).


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- Lineal Kin: These are relatives in a direct line of descent. This includes ancestors (parents, grandparents) and descendants (children, grandchildren). They are directly connected by birth in a vertical line on a family tree. (Option C is correct).

- Collateral Kin: These are relatives related by blood but not in a direct line of descent. This includes siblings, cousins, aunts, and uncles.

- Affinal Kin: Relatives by marriage (e.g., spouse, mother-in-law). (Option D is incorrect).

- Unilateral/Double Descent: These refer to the rules for tracing descent through one line (patrilineal/matrilineal) or both, rather than the specific individuals in the tree.


Since Kani is focusing only on those in her direct vertical line of birth, she is looking at lineal kin.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Kani is focusing on lineal descent (lineal kin).
Quick Tip: Lineal = Vertical line (Up/Down).
Collateral = Side branches (Horizontal/Diagonal).
Affinal = Added by marriage.


Question 52:

Which one of the following statements does NOT correctly represent the term ‘commercialization of agriculture’?

  • (A) A shift in the agrarian economy from production for consumption to production for the market
  • (B) A process whereby land becomes a commodity to be bought and sold in the market
  • (C) A process whereby community ownership of land is increased
  • (D) A shift to the cultivation of crops that have better market value
Correct Answer: (C) A process whereby community ownership of land is increased
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Commercialization of agriculture refers to the transformation of agriculture from a subsistence-based activity to a market-oriented economic system. This was a major feature of the colonial agrarian policy in India.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Key features of commercialization include:

1. Market Production: Farmers grow crops primarily to sell for profit rather than for their own consumption (Option A).

2. Cash Crops: A shift from food grains to crops with high market demand like indigo, cotton, jute, and sugarcane (Option D).

3. Commoditization of Land: Land ceases to be a traditional resource and becomes a legal commodity that can be mortgaged, bought, or sold (Option B).


Option (C) is incorrect because commercialization typically leads to individualization or private ownership of land to facilitate market transactions. Community or communal ownership is a feature of traditional, pre-commercialized agrarian societies and generally declines as commercialization increases.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Increased community ownership is not a feature of commercialization; therefore, Option (C) is the correct answer.
Quick Tip: Commercialization = Capitalism in the field. Capitalism values private property and market profit over communal sharing and subsistence.


Question 53:

Match the authors listed in Column A with their concepts as listed in Column B and choose the correct option.

  • (A) P-III; Q-I; R-II; S-IV
  • (B) P-II; Q-III; R-I; S-IV
  • (C) P-III; Q-I; R-IV; S-II
  • (D) P-II; Q-IV; R-I; S-III
Correct Answer: (D) P-II; Q-IV; R-I; S-III
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This question tests the knowledge of core sociological and anthropological theories and their respective proponents.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

1. Karl Polanyi (P): He is best known for his work in economic anthropology, particularly the distinction between formal and Substantive rationality (II).

Polanyi argued that economies are embedded in social relations.

2. Claude Levi-Strauss (Q): A key figure in structural anthropology, he theorized that the Incest taboo (IV) is the universal mechanism that marks the transition from nature to culture.

3. Max Weber (R): In his work "The Protestant Ethic and the Spirit of Capitalism", he linked the religious doctrines of Calvinism (I) to the rise of modern capitalism.

4. Anthony Giddens (S): He developed the theory of Structuration (III), which seeks to reconcile the duality of agency and structure in social systems.


Step 3: Final Answer:

By matching the columns, we get P-II, Q-IV, R-I, and S-III.
Quick Tip: Max Weber is almost always associated with Protestantism or Calvinism in competitive exams.
Identifying this pair first often allows you to eliminate most incorrect options.


Question 54:

Which one of the following statements reflects the concept of constitutional morality, as explained by B. R. Ambedkar?

  • (A) Legal and constitutional action must be grounded in socially accepted values and norms.
  • (B) The values espoused in the constitution must be the basis for legal and constitutional action, even if they contradict socially valued norms.
  • (C) Traditional social norms should not be the guiding principles for framing modern constitutional values, unless supported by a majority of the population.
  • (D) Ideas of redistributive social justice, as espoused in religious traditions, must inform constitutional values.
Correct Answer: (B) The values espoused in the constitution must be the basis for legal and constitutional action, even if they contradict socially valued norms.
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The concept of "Constitutional Morality" in the Indian context refers to the adherence to the core principles and procedures of the Constitution over traditional or popular social norms.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

B. R. Ambedkar believed that Indian society was deeply hierarchical and traditional, often governed by norms that were antithetical to liberty, equality, and fraternity.

For him, constitutional morality was not something natural to Indian soil but had to be cultivated.

It implies that whenever there is a conflict between constitutional values (like gender equality or anti-casteism) and traditional social values, the state and its citizens must uphold the constitutional values.

This ensures that the rights of minorities and individuals are protected against the "tyranny of the majority" or regressive traditions.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Statement (B) accurately describes the supremacy of constitutional values over social norms.
Quick Tip: Constitutional Morality = Priority of the Constitution over Tradition.
Ambedkar viewed the Constitution as a transformative document meant to reform a conservative society.


Question 55:

In colonial census enumerations, which one of the following options was used as the clearest way to distinguish between tribes and non-tribes?

  • (A) Class
  • (B) Religion
  • (C) Kinship
  • (D) Household
Correct Answer: (B) Religion
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Colonial census operations in India sought to categorize the population into neat, distinct groups for administrative and political purposes.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The colonial administrators and ethnographers struggled to define "tribes" as distinct from "castes" or the general Hindu population.

The primary differentiator used in early censuses was Religion.

Tribes were often categorized as "Animists" or practitioners of "Tribal Religions," as opposed to the "Mainstream Religions" like Hinduism, Islam, or Christianity.

By defining tribes through their religious practices (or lack of organized scriptural religion), the colonial state could effectively "other" them and justify separate legal and administrative frameworks.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Religion was the primary marker used to distinguish tribes from non-tribes in colonial census data.
Quick Tip: Colonial sociology often equated "primitive" with "Animism".
This classification helped create the administrative category of "Scheduled Tribes" later on.


Question 56:

The term ‘Hawthorne effect’ refers to ______________.

  • (A) changes in people’s behaviour directly resulting from their knowledge of being studied
  • (B) continued stability of people’s behaviour irrespective of their knowledge of being studied
  • (C) a study where improving factory conditions drastically changed production output
  • (D) changes in the behaviour of the researcher as a result of conducting a study
Correct Answer: (A) changes in people’s behaviour directly resulting from their knowledge of being studied
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The Hawthorne effect is a phenomenon in social research where participants alter their behaviour because they are aware they are being observed.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

This concept originated from experiments conducted at the Western Electric Hawthorne Works in Chicago in the 1920s and 30s.

Researchers initially tried to study the impact of physical conditions (like lighting) on worker productivity.

They discovered that productivity increased regardless of whether lighting was improved or worsened.

The conclusion was that the workers performed better simply because they were receiving attention from researchers and knew they were part of an important experiment.

This highlighted the significance of psychological and social factors in the workplace.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The Hawthorne effect represents behavioral modification due to the awareness of being studied.
Quick Tip: Hawthorne effect = "The Observation Effect".
It is a major challenge for researchers trying to obtain authentic, naturalistic data.


Question 57:

Which of the following is/are NOT the effect(s) of the Green Revolution?

  • (A) Emergence of egalitarian and sovereign agrarian communities
  • (B) Agrarian mobilizations
  • (C) Increase in soil fertility over time
  • (D) Increase in farmer indebtedness
Correct Answer: (A) and (C)
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The Green Revolution (1960s) transformed Indian agriculture through High Yielding Variety (HYV) seeds, chemical fertilizers, and irrigation, but it had significant socio-economic and environmental consequences.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let us evaluate each statement to see if it was an effect:

1. Agrarian Disparity (A): The Green Revolution actually increased inequality. Richer farmers could afford the expensive inputs, while small farmers were marginalized. It did not lead to egalitarian communities.

2. Agrarian mobilizations (B): This was an effect. The rise of a prosperous "Bullock Capitalist" or "Rich Peasant" class led to significant political mobilizations (e.g., BKU).

3. Soil Fertility (C): The excessive use of chemicals and intensive monocropping led to soil degradation and loss of fertility over time. Therefore, an increase in fertility is not an effect.

4. Farmer indebtedness (D): This was a major negative effect due to the high cost of seeds, fertilizers, and technology.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Both (A) and (C) are incorrect descriptions of the Green Revolution's effects.
Quick Tip: Always look for keywords like "NOT".
The Green Revolution was a technological success but is often criticized for increasing class inequality and environmental damage.


Question 58:

Choose the option(s) that correctly interpret(s) Gilman’s metaphor of the corset as expressed in the excerpt below:

“But the person habitually wearing a corset does not feel these evils. They exist, assuredly, the facts are there, the body is not deceived; but the nerves have become accustomed to these disagreeable sensations, and no longer respond to them. The person does not feel it.” Gilman, C.P., Women and Economics, NY: Dover (1998 [1898]).

  • (A) Habitus
  • (B) Internalization
  • (C) Kinaesthetics
  • (D) Triangulation
Correct Answer: (A) and (B)
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Charlotte Perkins Gilman used the corset as a metaphor for the social constraints and patriarchal norms imposed on women.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

1. Internalization (B): The excerpt describes how a person becomes "accustomed" to the corset to the point of not feeling its weight or pressure.

This is a classic example of how social structures and oppressive norms are internalized by individuals until they are perceived as natural or invisible.

2. Habitus (A): While a term popularized later by Pierre Bourdieu, "Habitus" refers to the ingrained habits, skills, and dispositions that we possess due to our life experiences.

The corset metaphor perfectly illustrates how a physical and social constraint becomes part of a person's embodied habitus or "second nature".

3. Kinaesthetics (C): Refers to the perception of movement/position, which is related but doesn't capture the sociological depth of the metaphor.

4. Triangulation (D): Is a research methodology and is completely irrelevant here.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The metaphor relates to how social control is embodied (Habitus) and accepted unconsciously (Internalization).
Quick Tip: Gilman's corset metaphor is a powerful tool to understand how oppression becomes "comfortable" or "normal" through long-term social conditioning.


Question 59:

Which of the following statements about E. Durkheim’s idea of ‘collective effervescence’ is/are correct?

  • (A) It is strictly related to religious acts and excludes secular acts.
  • (B) It refers to everyday religious activities of the individual.
  • (C) It binds individuals to the larger community.
  • (D) It is a heightened emotional and bodily experience that individuals undergo by participating in a ritual.
Correct Answer: (C) and (D)
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Émile Durkheim introduced "collective effervescence" in "The Elementary Forms of Religious Life" to describe the energy and shared emotion generated by a group gathered in a ritual.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

1. Binding the Community (C): For Durkheim, rituals serve the function of reinforcing social solidarity. The intense shared feeling during the ritual makes individuals feel part of something much larger than themselves—the society.

2. Emotional Experience (D): It is described as a state where the individual loses their sense of self in the collective "bubble" of the group. This involves a heightened emotional and bodily state triggered by rhythmic movements, chanting, or shared focus.

3. Evaluating other options:

- (A) is incorrect because Durkheim believed the same mechanisms apply to secular events (like sports or political rallies).

- (B) is incorrect because it refers to extraordinary communal moments, not "everyday" individual activities.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Collective effervescence is defined by heightened shared emotion (D) and its function of social integration (C).
Quick Tip: Think of the "vibe" at a massive concert or a protest march—that shared electric energy is exactly what Durkheim meant by collective effervescence.


Question 60:

According to Louis Dumont, the Sarjuparis in North India have a proverb that says that a father’s sister and brother’s daughter must not see the same lamp in the house i.e., a girl should not be married in the same house as her father’s sister. Which of the following kinship rules explain(s) this proverb?

  • (A) Cross-cousin marriage is barred.
  • (B) Uxorilocal marriage is barred.
  • (C) Exogamy is barred.
  • (D) Repetition of intermarriage in the same household and same direction is barred.
Correct Answer: (D) Repetition of intermarriage in the same household and same direction is barred.
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Louis Dumont studied the complex rules of kinship and marriage in India, particularly focusing on the differences between North and South Indian systems.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

In North Indian kinship (like among the Sarjupari Brahmins), the system is characterized by Kanyadan (the gift of a virgin) and a strict rule against repetition.

The proverb means that if a family (Group A) gives a girl to another family (Group B), they should not repeat this transaction in the next generation.

Father's sister (Aunt) was a girl from Group A married into Group B.

Brother's daughter (Niece) is also from Group A.

By not allowing the niece to marry into the same house as the aunt, the system ensures that repetition of intermarriage in the same direction between specific households is avoided.

This stands in contrast to South Indian systems where repetition (like cross-cousin marriage) is often encouraged.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The rule prohibits the "doubling" of marriage ties between the same families in the same direction across generations.
Quick Tip: North Indian Kinship = "Don't repeat the gift to the same house."
South Indian Kinship = "Keep the ties within the family (Repetition)."


Question 61:

Which of the following statements correctly describe(s) the term ‘statism’ in subaltern studies?

  • (A) Authorizing dominant values of the state to determine the criteria of history
  • (B) Ideology according to which history is determined by the life of the state
  • (C) Belief that history is static for the state
  • (D) Knowledge of the past is developed through voices from the margins
Correct Answer: (A) and (B)
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Subaltern Studies (Ranajit Guha and others) critiqued "Statism" as a bias in traditional historiography that centers the state as the primary subject and driver of history.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

1. State-centric history (B): Statism is the ideology where history is written as a biography of the state—its rulers, its laws, and its administration. It ignores the autonomous politics of the subaltern classes.

2. Dominant Criteria (A): In statist historiography, the "values of the state" (like stability, progress, or order) become the lenses through which historical events are judged. A rebellion is seen only as a "failure of law and order" rather than an expression of popular consciousness.

3. Other options:

- (C) is a misunderstanding of the term "static".

- (D) describes the goal of subaltern studies (to counter statism), not statism itself.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Statism refers to an ideology that prioritizes state-life as history (B) and uses state values as historical criteria (A).
Quick Tip: Statism = "History written from the King's perspective."
Subaltern Studies = "History written from the Peasant's perspective."


Question 62:

Which of the following statements illustrate(s) the ‘field view’ of caste in Indian society?

  • (A) Sanskritization was a process of group mobility.
  • (B) Caste had little or no variation across regions.
  • (C) Caste system remained unchanged over centuries in India.
  • (D) The category of ‘dominant caste’ challenged the distribution of power in the varna system.
Correct Answer: (A) and (D)
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The "Field View" (promoted by M. N. Srinivas) emphasizes understanding social reality through direct observation and fieldwork, as opposed to the "Book View" (Indological) based on ancient texts like the Vedas.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

1. Sanskritization (A): Srinivas observed in the field that the caste hierarchy was not rigid. Lower castes could adopt higher-caste rituals to claim higher status. This dynamic view of mobility came from observing live communities.

2. Dominant Caste (D): The "Book View" says Brahmins are always at the top of power. In the field, Srinivas saw that many Shudra castes (like Vokkaligas) owned the land and held the actual political power in villages. This concept directly challenged the book-based varna hierarchy.

3. Evaluating other options:

- (B) and (C) are classic "Book View" assumptions—that caste is static and uniform. Fieldwork proved there is immense regional variation and constant change.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Concepts like Sanskritization (A) and Dominant Caste (D) are the hallmarks of the Field View.
Quick Tip: Book View = Ideals / Texts / Rigid.
Field View = Realities / Observation / Dynamic.


Question 63:

Consider the following statement and choose the option(s) that correctly illustrate(s) the researcher’s disposition.

A researcher ponders her own personality and temperament, her socialization and life experiences while conducting fieldwork.

  • (A) Positionality
  • (B) Reflexivity
  • (C) Positivity
  • (D) Objectivity
Correct Answer: (A) and (B)
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

In qualitative research, especially ethnography, researchers acknowledge that their own background and presence influence the data collection process.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

1. Reflexivity (B): This is the process of a researcher constantly self-reflecting on how their own values, experiences, and identity might bias or shape their interpretation of the people they study. It is a "dialogue" between the self and the research.

2. Positionality (A): Refers to where the researcher stands in relation to the subjects (e.g., as a woman, as an outsider, as a privileged academic). Tracing one's life experiences and socialization is the act of mapping one's positionality.

3. Objectivity (D) and Positivity (C): These terms usually imply a "value-free" stance where the researcher's personality is supposed to be completely hidden or irrelevant—the opposite of what is described in the prompt.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The prompt describes the act of being reflexive (B) and acknowledging one's positionality (A).
Quick Tip: Reflexivity = "Checking your bias in the mirror."
Positionality = "Acknowledging your social coordinates (gender, class, etc.)."


Question 64:

Goffman’s dramaturgical perspective focused on the frontstage and backstage of social interaction. Which of the following statements shed(s) light on aspect(s) of this dramaturgical perspective?

  • (A) Space plays a significant role in the management of performances and impressions.
  • (B) There is a play of multiple motives in the performance of impression management.
  • (C) Impression management functions in a manner that is devoid of any moral standards.
  • (D) Impression management shows the functioning of the self as character and performer.
Correct Answer: (A), (B) and (D)
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Erving Goffman's "The Presentation of Self in Everyday Life" uses the metaphor of theater to explain social interaction.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

1. Role of Space (A): This is fundamental. "Frontstage" is where we perform for an audience; "Backstage" is where we drop the performance. The physical setting dictates which self we present.

2. Character vs Performer (D): Goffman distinguishes between the "Character" (the image we try to project) and the "Performer" (the physical body managing the props and scripts). The Self is a product of this performance.

3. Multiple Motives (B): We perform for various reasons—to gain approval, to manipulate, to maintain social order, or to protect our "face".

4. Morality (C): Is incorrect. Goffman argues that society has a "moral demand" for individuals to be what they claim to be. If a performance is "exposed", the person feels shame, which is a moral emotion.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Dramaturgy highlights the spatial management (A), dual nature of self (D), and complex motives (B) in interaction.
Quick Tip: Frontstage = Where you are "on".
Backstage = Where you "relax".
Think of a waiter—polite at the table (Front), complaining in the kitchen (Back).


Question 65:

Which of the following statements correctly reflect(s) the differences between open and closed systems of stratification, according to Dipankar Gupta?

  • (A) In open systems of stratification, difference is central, whereas in closed systems, hierarchy is central.
  • (B) In open systems of stratification, hierarchy is central, whereas in closed systems, difference is central.
  • (C) In closed systems of stratification, it is never the individual but the group that is the unit of social mobility.
  • (D) In open systems of stratification, it is always the group and never the individual that is the unit of social mobility.
Correct Answer: (B) and (C)
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Dipankar Gupta provided a specific critique of Louis Dumont's view of the caste system. He redefined the concepts of hierarchy and difference.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

1. Hierarchy vs Difference (B): Gupta argues that "Hierarchy" (vertical ranking) is actually central to Open systems like Class, where everyone agrees on what makes someone "better" (money/education).

In Closed systems like Caste, he argues that "Difference" (horizontal uniqueness) is central. Every caste thinks they are the best or unique based on their own internal values, even if they occupy a low place in the official ranking.

2. Unit of Mobility (C): In a closed system like Caste, an individual cannot simply change their caste by working hard. For status to change, the entire group must move up through processes like Sanskritization.

3. Other options:

- (A) is the opposite of Gupta's specific argument.

- (D) is incorrect as open systems (like class) focus heavily on individual merit and mobility.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Gupta's theory prioritizes "Difference" for closed systems (B) and "Group" as the unit for closed-system mobility (C).
Quick Tip: Gupta's unique point: Castes don't agree on a single hierarchy. They each view themselves as "different" and superior in their own way.

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